The factors that stimulate an increase in the population size may include the birth rate and migration into the population or immigration.
The factors that stimulate a decrease in the population size may include the death rate and migration out of the population or emigration.
What is the population size?The population size may be defined as the number of organisms of the same species that are found within a given habitat. The population size of organisms in a habitat area is affected by the following factors:
Birth rate: An increase in births results in an increase in population size whereas a decrease in births results in a decrease in population size. Death rate: An increase in deaths results in a decrease in population size whereas a decrease in deaths results in an increase in population size. Migration: migration into a habitat results in an increase in population size while migration out of a habitat results in a decrease in population sizeTherefore, the factors for increasing or decreasing the population size are well described above.
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genes c and d are located on opposite ends of a chromosome that is undergoing crossing-over during meiosis. which of the following outcomes is likely to be true?
Crossing-over between genes c and d located on opposite ends of the same chromosome is likely to result in the offspring inheriting new combinations of alleles, different from either parent. So the correct option is (d.) Both of these answers are true: genes C and D have an increased likelihood of being inherited as a linkage group AND recombination rates for genes C and D will likely exceed 50%.
Genes c and d are located on opposite ends of a chromosome that is undergoing crossing-over during meiosis. This process is essential for the production of genetic variation in offspring and is an essential part of the sexual reproduction process.
Crossing-over occurs when the chromatids of the homologous chromosomes break and exchange segments of DNA. This process shuffles the alleles of the genes, creating new combinations of alleles that are passed on to the offspring. In this case, genes c and d are located on opposite ends of the chromosome and are thus likely to be recombined in the process of crossing-over.
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a. Recombination rates for genes C and D will likely exceed 50%.
b. Genes C and D have an increased likelihood of being inherited as a linkage group.
c. Genes C and D have an increased likelihood of undergoing recombination
d. Both of these answer are true: genes C and D have an increased likelihood of being inherited as a linkage group AND recombination rates for genes C and D will likely exceed 50%.
Which of the following statements about the DNA in one of your brain cells is TRUE? A) Most of the DNA codes for protein. B) All of the genes of the genome are likely to be transcribed. C) Each gene lies immediately adjacent to an enhancer. D) Many related genes are transcribed from a single promoter. E) It is the same as the DNA in one of your heart cells
The following statements about DNA in the brain cells are true:
A) Most DNA codes for proteins.
B) All genes in the genome are likely transcribed.
D) Many related genes are transcribed from a single promoter.
E) It's the same DNA that's in one of your heart cells.
Statement C) Each gene lies immediately adjacent to an enhancer because the location of the enhancers is different.
All cells in the body contain the same DNA, organized into chromosomes and stored in the nucleus of each cell. DNA contains instructions for building and maintaining the body, including the brain and heart.
Most DNA encodes proteins, which are the building blocks of the body and perform a variety of functions, including structural support, signaling, and catalyzing chemical reactions. Each gene is a specific segment of DNA that encodes a specific protein or group of proteins.
An enhancer is a DNA sequence that can regulate gene expression by binding to a specific protein called a transcription factor, and a promoter is a DNA sequence located near the start of a gene that helps initiate transcription. Many related genes are transcribed from a single promoter, which helps coordinate the expression of these genes.
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Select the two true statements about natural selection.
Only variations that help individuals avoid predators can become more
common through natural selection.
The result of natural selection in a population depends on the population's
environment.
Natural selection causes advantageous variations to become more
common over many generations.
Natural selection can cause an individual to gain new advantageous
variations during its life
The result of natural selection in a population depends on the population's environment and Natural selection causes advantageous variations to become more common over many generations are true statements about the process of natural selection (options 2 and 3).
What is the process of natural selection?The process of natural selection is an evolutionary mechanism associated with the differential survival and reproduction of the most adaptive phenotypes in a given environment.
Therefore, with this data, we can see that the process of natural selection leads to a change in gene allele frequency due to differential reproduction.
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the urinary system organ removes waste products from the body and helps regulate blood pressure. T/F
True. The urinary system is composed of several organs that work together to remove waste products from the body and to help regulate blood pressure.
The primary organs of the urinary system are the kidneys, ureters, bladder, and urethra. The kidneys filter out waste products and excess water, which are then transported to the bladder via the ureters. The bladder stores the waste products until they are expelled from the body through the urethra. The urinary system also helps to regulate blood pressure by controlling the amount of water and salt that is excreted in the urine.
Additionally, the kidneys release a hormone that helps to regulate blood pressure. Through these functions, the urinary system plays an important role in maintaining the health of the body.
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Which best describes the ecosystems on Earth?
•
A. There are very few types of ecosystems on Earth.
•
B. Earth has mostly rain forest ecosystems.
•
C. Separate ecosystems can affect each other.
Ecosystems do not interact with each other.
atp hydrolysis is favorable in terms of four factors electrostatics, ionization, resonance, and entropy. the same logic can be used to analyze other biomolecues
Comment can be made on how this hydrolysis would compare to that of ATP as When ΔG is more negative, the reaction tends to progress toward products.
The following two forces have an impact on both the hydrolysis of ATP and uridine diphosphate glucose (UDG): enthalpy and entropy, or to put it another way, the change in free energy, or delta G, is the net driving force for these reactions.
ΔG = ΔH - TΔS
The reaction has a tendency to progress toward products when ΔG is more negative.
The exothermic reaction of ATP hydrolysis, in which the high-energy phosphate bonds break and release energy, has a ΔG value of -35.7.
When UDG hydrolysis takes place, the phosphate-glucose bond is also broken, releasing a lot of energy with ΔG= -31.9.
A high GΔ indicates that the products of the reaction are much more stable than the reactants and will be more disordered, resulting in an increase in entropy.
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(complete question)
In class, we discussed why ATP was considered a high-energy biomolecule. Its hydrolysis was favorable in terms of four factors: electrostatics, ionization, resonance, and entropy. This same logic can be used to analyze other biomolecules for energy transfer potential. Consider the hydrolysis of uridine phosphoglucose. Comment on how this hydrolysis would compare to that of ATP (consider both sign and magnitude of AG) and how each of the four factors contributes (if at all).
Adding compost to farmed soil is better than adding synthetic fertilizer because: O compost contains disease fighting microorganisms that synthetic fertilizers lack. O synthetic fertilizers contain a great many microorganisms, some of which spread plant diseases. O compost contains carbon, and using only synthetic fertilizers can lead to a loss of soil carbon content. O synthetic fertilizers are adding the primary chemicals to the atmosphere that contribute to the ozone hole.
Adding compost to farmed soil is better than adding synthetic fertilizers for a variety of reasons. Perhaps the most important of these is that compost contains disease fighting microorganisms that synthetic fertilizers lack.
These microorganisms help to keep the soil healthy and reduce the chances of plant diseases. The microorganisms in synthetic fertilizers, on the other hand, can sometimes spread plant diseases.
Another advantage of adding compost to farmed soil is that it contains carbon. Over time, the use of only synthetic fertilizers can lead to a loss of soil carbon content, which is essential for healthy soil. In contrast, compost adds carbon and helps maintain the soil’s fertility.
Finally, it’s important to consider the environmental impact of synthetic fertilizers. Synthetic fertilizers are adding the primary chemicals to the atmosphere that contribute to the ozone hole. In contrast, compost is a natural product and does not contribute to environmental pollution.
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If Evolution is defined as genetic change over time.... Can we observe this happening in a
species? Explain your thinking. [4pts]
The process of evolution causes the genetic makeup of a population to change through time.
Can we observe evolution happening in a species?Evolution captures how animals adjust to their changing circumstances, which can result in altered DNA, distinctive characteristics, and the formation of new species. Evolutionary processes are influenced by both variations in genetic variability and variations in allele frequencies across time.
While evolution is happening all around us, for many species it happens so slowly that it cannot be seen for thousands or even hundreds of thousands of years, which is much too long for a human lifetime to see.
We can actually watch evolution happen throughout the course of an experiment in organisms with quick generation periods, such bacteria or fruit flies. Additionally, biologists have occasionally seen evolution in action in the wild.
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What TWO FACTORS cause the amount of water collected to vary?
What is a major human impact in the Savannah biome? And brainstorm at least 10 different solutions.
Hint: You want to try and think about what you are reading to check if its 2 questions in the question.
Answer #1: The Savanna biome has had a lot of human impacts affect the environment and health of the Savanna. The African people use the Savanna land not just to live on but to graze their cattle and goats. The grasses get completely eaten and with no vegetation, the Savanna turns into a desert.
Answer #2: Humans have affected the savanna biome in many ways. The increased use of the savanna by humans has caused degradation of this biome. Extinction of animals in this biome is caused by humans releasing foreign species into the savanna. Humans have killed predators, built dwellings, and cleared land to be able to farm. Humans have done things like stopping natural fires and starting fires in this environment which kill many plants and animals if they get out of hand.
High oxygen content and low nutrient content in surface seawater indicate that a population of ___________ is present.
High oxygen content and low nutrient content in surface seawater indicate that a population of phytoplankton is present.
Bacteria, protists, and single-celled plants make up the majority of phytoplankton. Green algae, dinoflagellates, cyanobacteria, silica-encased diatoms, and chalk-coated coccolithophores are a few examples of frequent types. Numerous aquatic food webs are built on phytoplankton. They provide as food for a variety of aquatic animals in a healthy habitat. Because they contain chlorophyll and need sunshine to survive and develop, phytoplankton, often referred to as microalgae, resemble terrestrial plants. These are made up of solitary cells encased in silica (glass) containers.
High oxygen content and low nutrient content in surface seawater indicate that a population of ___________ is present?
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HELP I DONT HAVE MUCH TIME
In photosynthesis, light energy is harvested and used to generate
molecules of _____, which contain high amounts of chemical energy.
Select one:
Carbon dioxide
NADP+
Glucose
Oxygen
Using water and carbon dioxide, glucose is produced during photosynthesis by converting solar energy into chemical energy.
Explain about the photosynthesis?Chemical energy is produced during photosynthesis from solar or radiant energy. The rate of photosynthesis is intimately correlated with the productivity of agricultural crops. For all living things, it supplies oxygen to the atmosphere. The ecosystem's oxygen and carbon dioxide levels are kept in check by it.
The process of creating sugars and starches from carbon dioxide and water, which are the building blocks of photosynthesis, stores some of this chemical energy.
The most well-known examples are plants, since all species—aside from a very small number of parasitic or mycoheterotrophic ones—contain chlorophyll and make their own sustenance. The other important group of eukaryotic photosynthetic creatures is algae.
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Based on the model of eukaryotic cell cycle regulation shown in the figure, which of the following best describes the effect of a drug that blocks the production of the mitotic cyclin?
The cell would cease dividing and be prevented from going through mitosis.
What elements control the eukaryotic cell's cell cycle?Higher eukaryotes have several cyclins as well as multiple Cdc2-related protein kinases that regulate their cell cycles. The term "Cdk's" refers to these Cdc2-related kinases (for cyclin-dependent kinases).
Which of the following best sums up cyclin's function in controlling the cell cycle?Cyclins collaborate with an enzyme family known as cyclin-dependent kinases to control the cell cycle's activities (Cdks). A Cdk that is not bound to a cyclin is inactive, but when it is, it becomes a functioning enzyme that can alter target proteins.
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38. State the amount of digestion (in mm) that might
be expected after 48 hours in a test tube that is
identical to the other 5 test tubes, but at a tem-
perature of 15°C.
(1) less than 2.5 mm
(2) between 2.5 and 4 mm
(3) between 4.0 and 7.5 mm
(4) more than 7.5 mm
The amount of digestion (in mm) that might be expected after 48 hours in a test tube that is identical to the other 5 test tubes, but at a temperature of 15°C is between 2.5 and 4 mm.
Option 2 is correct.
What is temperature?Temperature is described as a physical quantity that expresses quantitatively the perceptions of hotness and coldness which is measured with a thermometer.
The normal rate of digestion after eating takes about six to eight hours for food to pass through your stomach and small intestine.
When the food then enters your large intestine (colon) for further digestion, absorption of water and, finally, elimination of undigested food. It takes about roughly 36 hours for food to move through the entire colon.
To calculate the digestion time, which given as the ratio between number of prey in stomach and total number of prey eaten, times the incubation time, assuming that the feeding intensity is constant.
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mendel discovered that the allele for green seed pods (g) is dominant to the allele for yellow seed pods (g). he crossed true-breeding (homozygous) parental plants with green (gg) and yellow (gg) seed pods to produce an f1 generation, all of which were heterozygous (gg) with green seed pods. he then crossed two of these f1 plants to produce an f2 generation. drag the genotypes and phenotypes from the left to correctly complete the punnett square for the f2 generation. labels may be used more than once.
The genotypes and phenotypes from the left to correctly complete the punnett square for the f2 generation are:
The Punnett square for the F2 generation:
G g
G GG Gg
g Gg gg
What is the Punnett square about?In this Punnett square, G represents the dominant allele for green seed pods, and g represents the recessive allele for yellow seed pods. The F1 generation plants are heterozygous (GG), meaning that they have one dominant allele for green seed pods and one recessive allele for yellow seed pods.
When these plants are crossed, the F2 generation can have four possible genotypes: GG (homozygous dominant for green seed pods), Gg (heterozygous for green seed pods), gG (heterozygous for green seed pods), and gg (homozygous recessive for yellow seed pods).
The genotypes GG and Gg will produce plants with green seed pods (the dominant trait), while the genotypes gG and gg will produce plants with yellow seed pods (the recessive trait).
Therefore, the F2 generation will have 3 plants with green seed pods and 1 plant with yellow seed pods. The phenotypes in the F2 generation will be 75% green seed pods and 25% yellow seed pods.
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The signal that tells soluble proteins to be sent forward to the lysosome is ________
The message informing soluble proteins to proceed to the lysosome is Cargo receptor and lysosomal transmembrane protein sorting is necessary.
Signals found in the cytosolic domains of the proteins are what sort transmembrane proteins to endosomes and lysosomes.
The ubiquitination of cytosolic lysine residues also acts as a signal for sorting at different phases of the endosomal-lysosomal system, in addition to peptide motifs.
UIM, UBA, or UBC domains found in numerous parts of the internalization and lysosomal targeting machinery are able to identify conjugated ubiquitin. This intricate network of signals and recognition proteins makes sure that transmembrane proteins are accurately and dynamically distributed to the various endosomal and lysosomal compartments.
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Which table best compares the events that occur during different stages of the cell cycle? A Phase. event. S. Phase. DNA replication. M. Phase. Nuclear division. B Phase. Event. S. Phase. Nuclear division. M. Phase. Cytoplasm division. C phase. event. S. Phase. cytoplasm division. M. phase. cell growth. D phase. event. s. phase. cell growth. m. phase. DNA replication.
The table that best compares the events that occur during different stages of the cell cycle is S phase/DNA replication and M phase/Nuclear division. Option A.
Cell cycleThe cell cycle has two main phases which are further divided into subphases. The main phases are:
S phaseM phaseThe S phase is further divided into:
G1 phase: a phase during which the cell grows and developS phase: a phase during which the cell carries out DNA replicationG2 phase: a phase during which the cell synthesizes proteins.The M phase is further divided into:
ProphaseMetaphaseAnaphaseTelophaseCytokinesisIn other words, the M phase is the active cell division phase.
Following the summary of the cell cycle, the table that best compares what happens during the cell cycle can, thus, be seen as the one that pairs DNA replication with the S phase and nuclear division with the M phase.
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Hi can someone please help me with this. So I have to make observations of these cells but I’m not sure what to put because according to what the instructions say it kinda makes me struggle a bit.
The observations that can be made is that each cell is made up of a cell membrane that distinguishes it from the other cells and there are components within the cells that picks stains more that others.
What is a cell?A cell is defined as the structural and functional unit if the body which is made up of membrane bound organelles that functions together for the vitality of the whole cell.
The structures that can be found within the cell include the following:
Cell membrane; This is the phospholipid bilayer that surrounds the cells which uses its semi permeable abilities to monitor the substances that enter and leave the cell.Nucleus; This is usually centrally placed in a cell and they contain the hereditary material of the organism which can be passed from them to their offspring.Ribosomes: This is the site for the production of proteins in the cell. The rough Endoplasmic reticulum has the ribosome on its surface which gives it the rough appearance while there is absence of ribosome on the surface of the smooth endoplasmic reticulum.lysosomes: This contains enzymes that are used to destroy any foreign substances in the cell.From the stained stained and the unstained slides is can be observed that each cell is made up of a cell membrane that distinguishes it from the other cells and there are components within the cells that picks stains more that others.
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Which of the following amino acids is more likely to be found on the exterior of a globular protein and which on the interior? Explain.
(a) Valine
(b) Aspartic acid
(c) Phenylalanine
(d) Lysine
Valine is more likely to be found on the exterior of a globular protein because it is a hydrophobic amino acid, meaning it tends to interact with other non-polar molecules and be repelled by water.
Exploring the Differences Between Interior and Exterior Amino Acids in Globular ProteinsValine tends to interact with other non-polar molecules and be repelled by water. Aspartic acid is more likely to be found on the interior of a globular protein because it is a polar amino acid and therefore more likely to interact with other polar molecules and be attracted to water. Phenylalanine and lysine are both polar amino acids and are therefore more likely to be found on the interior of a globular protein.Learn more about amino acids: https://brainly.com/question/2526971
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Please identify the four most significant interactions between humans and the microbes that live in and on our bodies. Microbes promote the development and maturation of host immune defenses. Microbes may invade and grow in normally sterile body sites. Microbes cause disease by damaging tissues and organs.
In addition to positive connections in the form of human, domestic animal, and crop diseases, human interactions with microorganisms also involve both practical and symbolic uses of germs.
Fermentation in food processing was the first practical application of microbes in antiquity; yeasts have been used to make bread, beer, and wine since the birth of civilization, including in ancient Egypt. More recently, as industrial chemists learn how to produce an increasing variety of organic chemicals, including enzymes and bioactive molecules like hormones and competitive inhibitors for use as medicines, microbes have been used in activities ranging from biological warfare to the production of chemicals by fermentation. Additionally, fuels can be created through fermentation, including ethanol and methane, which are alternatives for fossil fuels .Escherichia coli and yeast are used as model organisms in scientific research, particularly in genetics and related sciences.
Pathogens, or microorganisms that cause disease in humans, domesticated animals, and crop plants, include bacteria, viruses, and other microorganisms.
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Most members of which of the following groups are most closely associated with a wet or moist environment? Most members of which of the following groups are most closely associated with a wet or moist environment?
A. amphibians B. birds C. mammals D. pterosaurs E. dinosaurs
what could happen to a food web if one of its secondary consumers goes extinct?
Explanation:
If we just remove one type of consumer, there will be an observable change in the food web, but not such drastic changes. The Food web is very complex and has a number of organisms at each level, such that the removal of anyone, may shift the food web, but not destroy it.
Which of the following are lines of evidence that support the theory of evolution by natural selection? The comparison of body structures in modern organisms The comparison of DNA sequences in different organisms The study of the geographic distribution of species on Earth All of the above are lines of evidence that support the theory of evolution
The lines of evidence that support the theory of evolution by natural selection include the comparison of body structures in modern organisms, the comparison of DNA sequences in different organisms, and the study of the geographic distribution of species on Earth (all of the above are lines of evidence that support the theory of evolution).
What is the theory of evolution by natural selection?The theory of evolution by natural selection is a well-sustained scientific model proposed by Darwin that states species change (evolve) as a consequence of the process of natural selection, which can be defined as the differential survival and reproduction of the more adaptive organism in a given environment.
Therefore, with this data, we can see that the theory of evolution by natural selection states that organisms better adapted to environmental conditions have more chances of surviving and reproducing.
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Select the two true statements about natural selection.
h
Only variations that help individuals avoid predators can become more
common through natural selection.
Natural selection causes advantageous variations to become more
common over many generations.
The result of natural selection in a population depends on the population's
environment.
Natural selection can cause an individual to gain new advantageous
variations during its life.
How are these 7 organisms related? Which ones are more closely related?
Frog
Aligator
Rabbit
Shark
Tuna
Parrot
Relationships between organisms indicate that they had a common ancestry. The closer the creatures are linked, the more recent their common ancestor was. Given that you have a parent as your most recent shared ancestor, siblings (brothers and sisters) would be your closest relatives.
Which organisms are more linked to one another, and how can you tell?Two organisms' DNA can be compared by scientists; the closer the DNA matches, the more related the two organisms are.
Which of the following assemblages of creatures is more kin to the other?Genus. The taxonomic rank between a family and a species is called a genus (plural, genera). A genus is a collection of creatures that are structurally very similar to one another and are very closely linked.
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Based on the data in the table, if the number of snakes were to suddenly decrease, which of the following changes would most likely occur in the food web of this ecosystem?A: increase in number of shrews, decrease in number of hawksB: increase in number of hawks, decrease in number of shrewsC: increase in number of grasshoppers, decrease in number of plantsD: increase in number of spiders, decrease in number of plantsA: increase in number of shrews, decrease in number of hawks (Snakes feed on shrews so with less snakes, the population of shrews should increase. Hawks feed on snakes so with less overall food, the population of hawks should decrease.)
When a population in a trophic web is affected by any factor that reduces or increases its population size, the anterior and posterior links in the trophic chain are affected as well. Option A is correct. increase in number of shrews, decrease in number of hawks.
What is the throphic web?The trophic web is the interaction between different organisms involving transference of energy when some of them feed on the other ones. The ones placed at lower levels pass energy to the ones at the higher levels.
Organisms at each level feed on the preceding one and become food for the next one.
Because it is a web, all organisms are in equilibrium until a change occurs. When a sudden change affects any of the involved links, there can be a cascade effect on the web.
Any change in a link population size (increasing or decreasing) will affect the superior links and the immediately anterior link.
In the exposed example, if snake's population was to suddenly decrease, there would be
a decrease in hawk's populationan increase in shrew's populationSnakes feed on shrews, so a decrease in the number of snakes will allow the shrew's survival and reproductive rate to increase, and hence, to increase their population size.
Hawks feed on snakes and shrews. A decrease in the number of snakes means less available food items for them and more competition. Their population size might be reduced even if the shrew's population increases in size.
Option A is correct. increase in number of shrews, decrease in number of hawks.
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the rr for whistling marmot camp is relatively low, but you are curious about the area nonetheless. your colleague who is putting together the study happens to have samples from most of the major water sources near each campground. you take a look at the sample from the whistling marmot stream and observe the following:
The water is crystal clear and free of any visible pollutants. -The water is cold and clear, with a pH level of 6.2. -The water contains a significant amount of dissolved oxygen, providing a healthy environment for fish and other aquatic organisms.
Whistling marmot stream The stream is fed by a healthy mountain spring, meaning the water is constantly replenished with clean and fresh water. From the observations, it appears that the water quality of the Whistling Marmot Stream is good. The clarity of the water and the lack of visible pollutants indicate that the source of the water is not polluted. The cold and clear water with a pH level of 6.2 indicates that the water is not acidic, and the amount of dissolved oxygen indicates that the water is healthy and suitable for aquatic organisms. The fact that the stream is fed by a mountain spring further supports that the water is constantly replenished with clean and fresh water.
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In the troposphere, pressure _____________ with height and temperature typically ____ ____ with height.
Temperature and pressure normally decrease with height in the troposphere.
Per thousand feet above sea level, the air pressure in the troposphere decreases by roughly one inch of mercury. Since the earth's gravity holds our atmosphere near to the surface, air pressure decreases as you ascend to greater altitudes. As a result, as one ascends higher in the troposphere, pressure falls.
Because to the heating of the air molecules by radiation and conduction of energy from the Earth's surface, the temperature of the troposphere decreases as one increases in altitude. As a result, air molecules close to the surface have a higher temperature than those further away.
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during ovulation in human females, the mature egg is released from the , travels through the where fertilization occurs, and embeds in the .
During ovulation in human females, the mature egg is released from the Ovary, travels through the fallopian tube where fertilization occurs, and embeds in the uterus.
one of the ovaries releases a mature egg or ovum. The ovaries are the two female conceptive organs tracked down in the pelvis. Pregnancy occurs when an egg is fertilized by a sperm as it travels down the fallopian tube. The uterine lining is adhered to by the fertilized egg. After that, the placenta grows. The fetus receives oxygen and nutrition from the mother through the placenta. On the off chance that the egg doesn't become prepared, the coating of the uterus (endometrium) is shed during the mensuration cycle.
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Through the process of photosynthesis, _____energy from the sun is changed to stored _______ energy.
Answer:
Kinetic, Potential
Explanation:
Since light waves are in motion, their energy is the energy of motion. This would be kinetic energy. Once that energy is stored by the plant during photosynthesis, it becomes potential energy.