Discrepancy of quantity is Select one:a. adjusting the quantities of products handled at each level in a channel of distribution.b. collecting products from many small producers.c. the difference between the lines a typical producer makes and the assortment final consumers or users want.d. usually seen with producers who specialize by product.e. the difference between the quantities of products that it is economical for a producer to make and the quantity final users or consumers normally want.

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Answer 1

The Discrepancy of quantity is, option (c). the difference between the quantities of products that it is economical for a producer to make and the quantity of final users or consumers normally want.

What is a discrepancy in quantity? Discrepancy of quantity is the difference between the quantities of products that it is economical for a producer to make and the quantity of final users or consumers normally want. It means that the producer would want to produce products in bulk to make it economical, but the consumers might want to buy the product in a lesser quantity. Thus, this creates a discrepancy in quantity.

What are the different types of discrepancies in marketing? The different types of discrepancies in marketing are as follows:

Discrepancy of quantity: It is the difference between the quantities of products that it is economical for a producer to make and the quantity of final users or consumers normally want. Discrepancy of assortment: It is the difference between the lines a typical producer makes and the assortment final consumers or users want.Discrepancy of time: It is the difference between the time when a product is prepared and the time when it is needed by the customers.Discrepancy of location: It is the difference between the location of the producers and the location of the customers or users.

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unlike the classical economists, keynes asserted that

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The Keynes argued that, in contrast to the Classical economists, the economy was intrinsically unstable. While Keynesian Economics (also known as neoclassical economics) is founded on the notion that if demand is insufficient to meet total output.

The governments should intervene with fiscal measures, classical economics emphasizes the free market and supply and demand. The long-term state of the economy, in which all workers and resources are employed, is shown by the classical model. The Keynesian Model explains what occurs in the short term during expansions and recessions when the economy is performing above or below its potential.

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The question is incomplete complete question is given below

Unlike the classical economists, keynes asserted that the economy was inherently unstable.

the manager of a company selling replacement windows in rural u.s. markets asks you to conduct a survey to uncover what percentage of people in the state of washington live in communities of fewer than 10,000 people. the problem with this research objective is that

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The problem with this research objective is that it is already known and available from the U.S. Bureau of the Census.

What is Research Objective?

Research objectives spell out the goals you have for your investigation. They serve to focus your study by providing an overview of the project's methodology and goals.

Your research paper's beginning should include your objectives after the problem statement.


Thus, the given problem about selling replacement windows in rural u.s. markets asks you to conduct a survey to uncover what percentage of people, the problem is the Census Bureau already knows this.

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rachel johnson went to the atm to withdraw $300 cash with her debit card. she inadvertently pulled out her credit card instead, not realizing the expenses for cash advances. if her credit card company charges a cash advance fee of 3% and interest at 24% apr, what are the total fees she will pay for her mistake? group of answer choices a) $6 b) $3 c) $9 d) $15 e) $24

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The total fees which Rachel will pay for her mistake is 15%. It is the cash advance fees and interest on the fees. The correct option is D.

What is the total fees?

Rachel Johnson mistakenly pulled out her credit card instead of her debit card when she went to the ATM to withdraw 300 cash. Her credit card company charges a cash advance fee of 3 and interest at 24 APR. Let's find out what the total fees will she have to pay for her mistake.

The total fees she will pay for her mistake are 15. Here's how to calculate it:

Cash Advance fee = (3/100) × 300 = 9

Interest = 24

Total fees = Cash Advance fee + Interest = 9 + 6 = 15%

Therefore, the correct option is D.

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an agent is not required to keep which of the following information confidential? a. customer lists b. business plans c. unique business methods d. information that his or her principal is engaged in criminal activity

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Answer: The answer is D. Information that his or her principal is engaged in criminal activity. Agents are not obligated to keep information confidential if it is related to criminal activity.


Explanation: An agent is an individual who has been appointed to act on behalf of someone else in business transactions or other legal matters. They are sometimes referred to as power-of-attorney or attorney-in-fact, and they are normally required to maintain the confidentiality of the principal's affairs.

It is the agent's responsibility to ensure that any confidential data shared with them by their principal or client is kept private and is only shared with people who are authorized to receive it.

Agents, on the other hand, do not have a duty of confidentiality with regards to information that their principal is engaged in criminal activity, as this information may be reported to the authorities if necessary.

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Question 1Share ValuationThe board of Santova Ltd is exploring ways to expand the number of shares outstanding in an effort to reduce themarket price per share to a level that the firm considers more appealing to investors.

The options under consideration are a 20% stock dividend and, alternatively, a 5-for-4 stock split. At the same time, the firm’s equity account and other per-share information are as follows:

Preferred stock0Common stock ( 100,000 shares at R1 par)100000Paid-in capital in excess of par900000

Retained earnings700000Total stockholders' equity1700000Share priceR30EPSR3,60DPSR1,08P/ER8,33a)

Show the effects on the equity account, EPS and P/E ratio of a 20% of a stock dividend.

After stock 20% dividendPreferred stockCommon stock ( )[2]Paid-in capital in excess of par[2]Retained earnings[2]Total stockholders' equity0[2]Change in price[1]Net Income[1]Change in EPS[1]b) Show the effect on the equity accounts, EPS and P/E ratio of a 5-for-4 stock split.

After 5-for-4 stock splitPreferred stockCommon stock ( )[2]Paid-in capital in excess of par[2]Retained earnings[2]Total stockholders' equity0[2]Change in price[1]Change in EPS[1]Change in the number of Outstanding shares. ​

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The effects on the equity account, EPS and P/E ratio of a 20% of a stock dividend is represented

common stock = 120,000. Paid-in capital in excess of par account after the dividend

= 580,000. Revised balance = 1480,000.

Total stockholders’ equity is equals to 17,000,000.

Change in price is decrease by $ 5.

The earnings per share (EPS) after the dividend is equals to the 3.

Change in EPS = Decrease by 0.6.

Change in number of outstanding shares is equals to the increase by 20,000 shares.

Dividends means the distribution of company's profit into it's shareholders and stock dividend is defined as percentage increase in number of shares held. The number of shares of common stock after the dividend is shares = 100,000 x (1 + 20%) = 120,000

The balance in the common stock account after the dividend is = 120,000 x $ 1 = 120,000

The balance in the paid-in capital in excess of par account after the dividend is $ = 20,000 x (Current price - par value) = 20,000 x (30 - 1) = 580,000

Revised balance = 580,000 +900,000

= 1480,000

The balance in the retained earnings account after the dividend is = Current balance - new number of shares x current share price = 700,000 - (120,000 - 100,000) x 30 = 100,000

Total stockholders’ equity = 120,000 + 1480,000 + 100,000 = 17,000,000

The price per share of common stock after the dividend is total wealth remain the same. Hence, the price per share of common stock after the dividend is

= Share price before dividend / (1 + % dividend) = 30 / (1 + 20%) = $ 25

Change in price = decrease by $ 5

The earnings per share (EPS) after the dividend is = 3.6 / (1 + 20%) = 3

Change in EPS = Decrease by 0.6. Hence, the change in number of outstanding shares is increase by 20,000 shares.

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ctivity Rates and Product Costs using Activity-Based Costing Lonsdale Inc. manufactures entry and dining room lighting fixtures. Five activities are used in manufacturing the fixtures. These activities and their associated budgeted activity costs and activity bases are as follows:
Activity BudgetedCost Activity Base Activity Casting 570,000 Machine hours Assembly 80,000 Direct labor hours
Inspecting 42,000 Number of inspections
setup 38,000 Number of setups
material handling 23,750 Number of loads
Corporate records were obtained to estimate the amount of activity to be used by the two products. The estimated activity-base usage quantities and units produced follow: Activity Base Entry Dining Total Machine hours 6000 13000 19000
Direct labor hours 3000 2000 5000
Number of inspections 600 400 1000
Number of setups 300 200 500
Number of loads 450 500 950
Units produced 6000 3000 9000
a. Determine the activity rate for each activity. b. Use the activity rates in (a) to determine the total and per-unit activity costs associated with each product. Round the per unit amounts to the nearest cent.

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a. To determine the activity rate for each activity, divide the budgeted cost by the total activity base.

Activity Budgeted Cost Activity Base Activity Rate
Casting 570,000 Machine hours 30.53
Assembly 80,000 Direct labor hours 16
Inspecting 42,000 Number of inspections 42

Setup 38,000 Number of setups 76
Material Handling 23,750 Number of loads 25
b. To determine the total and per-unit activity costs associated with each product, multiply the activity rate by the activity base for each product.

Entry Dining Total
Machine hours 30.53 x 6000 = 183,180 30.53 x 13,000 = 396,890 579,070
Direct labor hours 16 x 3000 = 48,000 16 x 2000 = 32,000 80,000
Number of inspections 42 x 600 = 25,200 42 x 400 = 16,800 42,000
Number of setups 76 x 300 = 22,800 76 x 200 = 15,200 38,000
Number of loads 25 x 450 = 11,250 25 x 500 = 12,500 23,750
Total Activity Cost 307,430 297,190 604,620

Per-unit Activity Cost Entry Dining
Machine hours 30.53 x 6000 = 30.53 30.53 x 13,000 = 30.53
Direct labor hours 16 x 3000 = 8 16 x 2000 = 8
Number of inspections 42 x 600 = 4.2 42 x 400 = 4.2
Number of setups 76 x 300 = 3.8 76 x 200 = 3.8

Number of loads 25 x 450 = 2.5 25 x 500 = 2.5
Total Activity Cost 51.03 49.03

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Use your knowledge of contemporary situational leadership theory to choose the word or phrase that best describes the situation.a. If your leader allows you to share in decision-making responsibility, which leadership style will he or she use?b. Delegate stylec. Selling styled. Participating stylee. Storytelling style

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The word or phrase that best describes the situation where the leader allows the team to share in decision-making responsibility is "Participating style." Option D is correct.

What is situational leadership?

Situational leadership is a leadership model that focuses on adapting one's leadership style to meet the needs of their team members in various scenarios. It is a leadership strategy that involves adapting a leadership style based on the person or group's requirements to whom you are leading.

The three main components of situational leadership are:

Directive behaviorSupportive behaviorFollower readiness

In the Situational Leadership Theory, a leader is needed to change the management style as per the situation. The following are the four different styles of situational leadership:

Directing styleCoaching styleSupporting styleDelegating style.

Which leadership style will he or she use?

If the leader allows the team members to share in decision-making responsibility, then he/she will use the Participating style of leadership. In this leadership style, the leader gives some responsibility to the team members to share their views, thoughts and provide them with the opportunity to participate in decision-making.

The following are the key features of the Participating style:

Involving team members in decision-making.Encouraging open communication and active listening.Demonstrating mutual respect and trust in team members.Soliciting feedback from team members.Encouraging collaborative work.Creating a supportive and empowering work environment.

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Illiams owns 18% of first mfg. Co. Williams has filed a lawsuit against management of first mfg. Co. , but not against its auditors, claiming that management reported at december 31 three times the number of physical units in inventory than actually existed. Unit costs used to value the inventory are not at issue. Jones, partner in charge of the first mfg. Co. Audit, is called on to testify as to the amount of inventory first mfg. Co. Had at december 31. He testifies before the trier of facts as to his audit staff's observation of the inventory taken by first mfg. Co. S personnel on december 31 and his audit staff's test counts of more than 50% of the units in inventory. As he finishes his testimony, the trier of facts asks whether in jones' opinion first mfg. Co. S procedures for controlling inventory are adequate. Jones answers the question giving his opinion on first mfg. Co. S controls over inventory. What effect does jones' testimony, both as to the auditor's observation of the inventory at december 31 and his opinion on the adequacy of first mfg. Co's internal controls over inventory have on his firm's independence with first mfg. Co. ?

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Jones's testimony may be intended to support the auditor's work, but it could potentially undermine the independence of his firm and raise questions about the quality of the audit work performed.

Jones's testimony regarding the auditor's observation of the inventory on December 31 and his opinion on the adequacy of First Mfg. Co's internal controls over inventory could potentially have a negative effect on his firm's independence with First Mfg. Co.

As an auditor, Jones and his firm have a responsibility to remain independent and unbiased when performing an audit of First Mfg. Co's financial statements. However, by testifying in court about the adequacy of First Mfg. Co's internal controls over inventory, Jones may be seen as providing advisory services to the company, which could compromise his independence.

Furthermore, Jones' testimony about the auditor's observation of the inventory could also raise questions about the audit procedures his firm performed. If his firm observed the inventory and counted more than 50% of the units in inventory, why did they not catch the alleged misstatement in the financial statements?

It is important for auditors to maintain independence and avoid providing advisory services to the companies they audit to ensure the integrity and reliability of the financial statements.

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workflow structures processes so work proceeds in the most __________ order.

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Workflow structures processes so work proceeds in the most efficient order.

The activities in the process and the transitions between them determine the structure of a workflow process. As a result, a workflow is a Graph with activities as vertices. Arcs serve as transitions (the graph that is formed by a workflow can be viewed by using the Visualize Workflow Process feature in the Process Definition Tool).

The graph formed by a process must meet certain criteria in order for the workflow engine to successfully interpret and run it. These criteria are presented in the section under two main headings: Graph Structure and Block Structure.

When creating process definitions, workflow designers should be aware of certain structural rules. When a Cram workflow process is validated, the validations determine whether the process structure conforms to these rules.

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Consider an oligopolistic market with 3 identical firms, all three making a homogeneous product. The inverse demand for this product is P(Q) = 3, 000 − 6Q where Q is the market quantity. The marginal cost of production is equal to the average cost and is identical for all firms and given by c = 2, 000.
(a) Solve for the best response function for each of the three firms.
(b) Calculate the Nash equilibrium output, price and profits of each firm using quantity as the strategic variable (i.e. assuming firms choose quantities).
(c) Compute the Lerner index for each firm.
(d) Assume two of the firms merge. Assume that the merged firm has marginal cost 1,600. What is the profit of the merged firm? (e) Given your answer to pard (d), would the firms want to merge? Explain. (f) Would the firm that was not part of the merger benefit from the merger? Explain.

Answers

The profits of the companies combined are 1000. The firms would want to merge because the profit of the merged firm is higher than the profit of each of the firms in the Nash equilibrium.

The best response function for each firm in this oligopolistic market is given by the following equation:
BR(Q) = MC + ((P(Q) - MC) / n),
where

MC is the marginal cost (2,000) and n is the number of firms (3).

The Nash equilibrium output, price and profits of each firm are given by the following equations:
Q* = 1000, P* = 1000, Profits* = 500

The Lerner index for each firm is given by the following equation:
Lerner Index = (P* - MC) / P* = (1000 - 2000) / 1000 = -1.

The profit of the merged firm is given by the following equation:
Profits* = (3000 - 6Q*) - 1,600Q* = 1000 - 2,400Q*.
Therefore, the profit of the merged firm is 1000.

The firms would want to merge because the profit of the merged firm is higher than the profit of each of the firms in the Nash equilibrium. The firm that was not part of the merger would not benefit from the merger because its profit would remain the same in the Nash equilibrium.

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Does the efficient markets hypothesis imply that the average investor will not earn anything by purchasing stock?
A) Yes, the efficient markets hypothesis implies that the best that the average investor can do is break even.
B) Yes, the efficient markets hypothesis implies that stock purchases are extremely risky and that the average investor has no hope of recovering any loss.
C) No, the efficient market hypothesis implies that the average investor should not expect to receive abnormally high returns on a consistent basis.
D) No, the efficient market hypothesis implies that the investor will consistently earn abnormally high returns by purchasing stock.

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No, the efficient markets hypothesis does not imply that the average investor will earn anything by purchasing stock.

The efficient markets hypothesis states that the markets are efficient and that asset prices reflect all available information. As a result, stock prices reflect the collective expectations of investors, so it is not possible to consistently earn abnormally high returns by investing in the markets. The hypothesis implies that the best an average investor can do is to break even, as the market prices are usually in line with the investors’ expectations.

However, it is possible for investors to make money by buying stock. By researching the markets and individual companies and evaluating the potential risks, investors can make more informed decisions and possibly earn a return higher than the market average. But to do so requires a great deal of knowledge and understanding of the markets and investing.

In conclusion, the efficient markets hypothesis does not imply that the average investor will earn anything by purchasing stock. While it is possible for investors to make money by researching and making informed decisions, the markets are too efficient to make abnormally high returns consistently.

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Requiring approval of customers' credit history, reviewing the age of past due accounts and rewarding speedy collections are examples of controls over ______.
accounts receivable

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Accounts receivable is an important asset of a company, and it is critical to monitor and control it. As a result, accounts receivable management is a critical component of every company's financial management.

A set of controls are needed for accounts receivable management to be successful. These controls include the approval of customers' credit history, reviewing the age of past due accounts, and rewarding speedy collections. These controls are essential for the following reasons: Approving customer's credit history: Before agreeing to extend credit to a customer, it is critical to examine their credit history. If a customer has a poor credit history, extending credit to them may result in losses for the company.Reviewing the age of past due accounts: It is critical to review the age of past due accounts regularly to ensure that the company is not losing money due to unpaid debts. Accounts that are overdue for a prolonged period should be dealt with swiftly.Rewarding speedy collections: Offering incentives to customers who pay their accounts promptly can encourage them to pay their accounts quickly. Early payment benefits can include discounts, free shipping, and other benefits. The sooner accounts receivable are paid, the healthier a company's cash flow will be.Accounts receivable is an important component of a company's financial management. To keep it under control, a set of controls are required. These controls include the approval of customer's credit history, reviewing the age of past due accounts, and rewarding speedy collections.

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Assume that the United States economy is currently in long-run equilibrium. a. Draw a correctly labeled graph of aggregate demand and aggregate supply and show each of the following. i. The long-run aggregate supply curve ii. The current equilibrium output and price levels, labeled asYEandPLE, respectively b. Assume that the government increases spending on national defense without raising taxes. i. On your graph in part (a), show how the government action affects aggregate demand. ii. How will this government action affect the unemployment rate in the short run? Explain. c. Assume that the economy adjusts to a new long-run equilibrium after the increase in government spending. 1. How will the short-run aggregate supply curve in the new long-run equilibrium compare with that in the initial long-run equilibrium in part (a) ? Explain. ii. On your graph in part (a), label the new long-run equilibrium price level as PL2.

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In the following question, among the conditions given in long-run equilibrium,  PLE is the equilibrium price level and YE is the equilibrium level of output. It will cause the firms to hire more workers, as well as the output of goods and services to increase.

a) i) The following graph shows the long-run aggregate supply curve and the aggregate demand curve: Figure: AD and AS curves in long-run equilibrium. Where PLE is the equilibrium price level and YE is the equilibrium level of output.

ii) The current equilibrium price level is PLE and the equilibrium output level is YE.

b) i) Figure: Effect on aggregate demand. Since the government increases defence spending without raising taxes, aggregate demand shifts from AD1 to AD2.
ii) In the short run, the unemployment rate will be lower due to the increase in government spending. It will cause the firms to hire more workers, as well as the output of goods and services to increase.

c) i) Initially, the economy was at the intersection of AD1 and LRAS, which resulted in PLE and YE. The increase in defence spending will cause the aggregate demand to shift rightward, as shown in the figure. As a result, the economy moves from point A to point B, resulting in the intersection of AD2 and the initial LRAS. The short-run aggregate supply curve in the new long-run equilibrium is similar to the short-run aggregate supply curve in the initial long-run equilibrium. Both curves are represented by the LRAS.

ii) The new long-run equilibrium price level is PL2. Figure: Effect on the long-run equilibrium. The equilibrium point shifts from point A to point B.

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The table below shows monetary assets for a banking sector at the end of a year.Monetary AssetsValue (in millions)Monetary Base$4,000$4,000Currency in Circulation$1,500$1,500M1$6,500$6,500Based on the data provided, what is the value of total reserves held by depository institutions?A. $500 millionB. $1,500 millionC. $2,500 millionD. $5,500 millionE. $8,000 million

Answers

Depository institutions currently hold reserves of $2,500,000,000. The correct response is (C) $2,5 billion.

The opportunity cost of keeping currency is measured by which of the following?

The interest rate is a metric for evaluating the potential of retaining currency. Hence the benefit lost by choosing one alternative over others is known as the opportunity cost.

The difference between the monetary base and the amount of money in circulation can be used to determine the value of the total reserves held by depository institutions:

Total Reserves = Monetary Base - Currency in Circulation

Total Reserves = $4,000 million - $1,500 million

Total Reserves = $2,500 million

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Direct labor was used in production; to be paid next month. Which of the following entries would be used to record this event?
a. Debit Work in Process and credit Salaries and Wages Payable.
b. Debit Work in Process, debit Manufacturing Overhead, and credit Direct Labor.
c. Debit Work in Process, debit Manufacturing Overhead, and credit Salaries and Wages Payable.
d. Debit Manufacturing Overhead and credit Salaries and Wages Payable.
c. Debit Work in Process, debit Manufacturing

Answers

Option C would be used to record the event of direct labor being used in production, as it involves "debiting Work in Process and Manufacturing Overhead while crediting Salaries and Wages Payable."

All are used to account for the cost of labor to be paid next month.

This entry recognizes the cost of labor as a component of the cost of goods produced, which is recorded in the Work in Process account, while also accounting for the indirect costs associated with production in the Manufacturing Overhead account.

The Salaries and Wages Payable account is credited to indicate that payment for the labor will be made in the future, as it has not yet been incurred.

Option C is the most appropriate choice as it correctly recognizes the use of direct labor in production and accounts for it in the appropriate accounts. Debiting the Work in Process account reflects the cost of labor as a component of the cost of goods produced, while debiting the Manufacturing Overhead account accounts for indirect costs associated with production.

Finally, crediting the Salaries and Wages Payable account indicates that payment for the labor will be made in the future, and that the cost has not yet been incurred.

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Which of the following statement is the best regarding JIT?I. It is a philosophy that relates to the way in which a manufacturing company organizes and operate its business.II. It is a set of techniques to make manufacturing more productive.III. It is concerned with adding value to the product. 14.00 stion Select one:A. all the above are trueB. only I and II are trueC. only I and III are trueD. only II and Ill are true

Answers

The phrase "a theory that relates to the method in which a manufacturing organisation organises and manages its business" best sums up JIT (Just-In-Time). As a result, only assertion I is accurate.

What is the just in time (JIT) systems' guiding principle?

JIT manufacturing is a strategy built on decreasing waste, increasing overall quality control, and lowering manufacturing costs. JIT's key goal is to produce the appropriate amount of product at the appropriate time and location while keeping a small amount of work-in-process and finished work in stock.

What does the term "just" in JIT manufacturing mean?

A production strategy known as "just-in-time manufacturing" (JIT manufacturing) relies on the idea that goods should only be produced when they are actually needed.

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a family has decided to go away for the summer. the monthly mortgage payment on the family's house is $1,000. water, electricity, natural gas, and maintenance bills, to be paid by the family, will be $700 per month if the house is occupied and zero otherwise. if the family wishes to minimize losses from being away, it should rent the house for as much as the market will bear, as long as the monthly rent is above which of the following? (assume wear and tear to be the same whether or not the house is occupied.)

Answers

If the family wants to reduce the losses incurred while they are abroad, they should rent the property for whatever the market will bear, provided that the monthly rent is $700.

How do mortgages work and what exactly is one?

Your lender will provide you money to buy the property if you are granted a mortgage. You agree to make only interest payments against the principle of your loan over time. The lender will continue to have a claim on the home as long as the mortgage is not fully repaid.

What is covered by a mortgage payment each month?

Taxes, insurance, loan principle, and loan interest normally make up the first four components of your monthly mortgage payment. If you've never purchased a house before, you might be startled to learn how many different elements go into a mortgage payment. By combining these expenses into a one monthly payment, your lender simplifies things for you.

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what is an example of internal secondary data for marketing research?

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Examples of common secondary data sources include internal corporate data from the company, such as advertising and marketing research, customer account information, and data on product purchases and consumption.

The careful collection, logging, and assessment of qualitative and quantitative data about problems related to the marketing of goods and services constitutes marketing research. The objective is to detect and evaluate how shifting marketing mix components affect consumer behavior. Companies utilize market research to speak directly with potential customers to assess the viability of a new product or service. Companies may quickly collect input from customers to help them identify their targeted audience through market research. This kind of research can be carried out internally, directly by the business, or through a recognized market research firm.

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Suppose that the six-month interest rate in the United States is 3%, while the six-month interest rate in Canada is 4%. Further, assume the spot rate of the Canadian dollar is $0.50.According to interest rate parity (IRP), the forward rate premium of the Canadian dollar with respect to the U.S. dollar should be−1.0577%−0.6731%−0.9615%−1.1538%

Answers

The forward rate premium of the Canadian dollar with respect to the U.S. dollar should be -1.0577%.

According to interest rate parity (IRP), the forward exchange rate should reflect the interest rate differential between two currencies. In this case, the interest rate differential between the United States and Canada is 4% - 3% = 1%. Therefore, the Canadian dollar should be trading at a forward rate premium relative to the U.S. dollar equal to the interest rate differential.

To calculate the forward rate premium, we can use the following formula:

Forward rate premium = [(Forward rate - Spot rate) / Spot rate] x (360 / t)

where t is the time to maturity in days, assuming a 360-day year.

In this case, we are given the spot rate of the Canadian dollar as $0.50, and we assume a six-month time to maturity. Therefore, t = 180.

Substituting the given information into the formula, we get:

Forward rate premium = [(0.5 - Forward rate) / 0.5] x (360 / 180) = 1%

Solving for the forward rate, we get:

Forward rate = 0.5 x (1 - 0.01) = 0.495

Therefore, the forward rate premium of the Canadian dollar with respect to the U.S. dollar should be -1.0577%, which is equal to the interest rate differential of 1% expressed as a percentage of the Canadian dollar spot rate.

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Semantic information difference is a term that describes _______________.
a. when employees and supervisors do not share the same view of some organizational issues, basic job duties, or employees' participation in decision making
b. when the information being presented in a meeting is not in line with the company's mission statement.
c. how companies communicate by different channels such as phone, internet, and mail
d. when semantics play a part in organizational decision making

Answers

Semantic information difference is a term that describes "when employees and supervisors do not share the same view of some organizational issues, basic job duties, or employees' participation in decision making" (option A).

This term refers to situations where the meanings of certain terms or concepts are interpreted differently by different individuals, leading to misunderstandings and potential conflict. Such differences in interpretation can arise due to differences in personal backgrounds, experiences, or perspectives. Resolving semantic information differences requires effective communication and clarity in language usage to ensure that everyone involved has a shared understanding of the relevant concepts and issues.

Thus, option a is the correct answer.

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prezas company's balance sheet showed total current assets of $4,750, all of which were required in operations. its current liabilities consisted of $975 of accounts payable, $600 of 6% short-term notes payable to the bank, and $250 of accrued wages and taxes. what was its net operating working capital? group of answer choices $3,701 $3,878 $3,384 $3,525 $3,842

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Net operating working capital is the difference between the current assets used in operations and the current liabilities arising from operations. In the  given case, net operating working capital would be $3,525.

Thus, by subtracting the current liabilities of Preza's company from its total current assets, its net operating working capital can be calculated by using concepts of liabilities, assets and capital, it is as follows:

Net operating working capital = Total current assets - Current liabilities= $4,750 - ($975 + $100 + $150)= $3,525. Therefore, the net operating working capital of Preza's company is $3,525.

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ms. ray is age 46 and single. this year, mr. ray's retirement savings included a $2,720 employer contribution to a qualified profit-sharing plan account, and a contribution by ms. ray to a traditional ira. mr. ray contributed the maximum allowed. required:
a. compute ms. ray's ira deduction if current year income includes $57,100 salary. b. compute ms. ray's ira deduction if current year income includes $71,350 salary. c. compute ms. ray's ira deduction if current year income includes $71,350 salary and $7,630 dividend income.

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Compute Ms. Ray's IRA deduction if the current year income includes $57,100 salary.The maximum IRA contribution allowed for tax deduction in 2020 for those under the age of 50 was $6,000. The maximum amount deductible was phased out between certain income limits.

Ms. Ray's income from salary: $57,100Ms. Ray contributed the maximum allowed to a traditional IRA: $6,000Ms. Ray's MAGI (Modified Adjusted Gross Income) for this deduction is:$57,100 − $6,000 = $51,100The maximum amount of Ms. Ray's deduction is: $6,000.Ms. Ray's deduction is gradually phased out between $32,000 and $42,000. Since her income of $51,100 exceeds this range, her maximum contribution is phased out by $9,100 ($51,100 - $32,000).The amount of Ms. Ray's allowable IRA deduction is: $6,000 - ($9,100/15,000) × $6,000= $6,000 - $3,660= $2,340.b) Compute Ms. Ray's IRA deduction if the current year income includes $71,350 salary. For this scenario, Ms. Ray's income is over the threshold and she is not qualified for the traditional IRA deduction. Therefore, Ms. Ray's IRA deduction is zero.c) Compute Ms. Ray's IRA deduction if the current year income includes $71,350 salary and $7,630 dividend income.Ms. Ray's total income is: $71,350 + $7,630= $79,980. Her contribution of $6,000 is greater than her maximum allowable deduction of $2,340 as her income exceeds the $65,000 phase-out limit.The amount of Ms. Ray's allowable IRA deduction is:$2,340 - (($79,980 - $65,000)/$10,000) × ($2,340)= $2,340 - ($1,498 / $10,000) × ($2,340)= $2,340 - $0.35 × $2,340= $2,340 - $819= $1,521. Therefore, Ms. Ray's IRA deduction if the current year income includes $71,350 salary and $7,630 dividend income is $1,521.

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nominal gdp is multiple choice 1 a. adjusted for inflation, whereas real gdp is the market or money value of all final goods and services produced by the economy in a given year. b. the sum of intermediate and final goods and services, whereas real gdp is the sum of final goods and services only. c. the market or money value of all final goods and services produced by the economy in a given year, whereas real gdp is adjusted for inflation. d. determined in the market, whereas real gdp is computed by a government agency.

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Nominal GDP is c. The market or money value of all final goods and services produced by the economy in a given year, whereas real GDP is adjusted for inflation.


Nominal GDP measures the total value of all goods and services produced in a given year, expressed in the price of that period. It does not take into account the effect of inflation, which can distort the real purchasing power of a nation's output. Real GDP, on the other hand, measures the output of the economy, adjusting for inflation and expressing the result in constant dollars, allowing for a better comparison of economic growth from one period to the next.

Nominal GDP is determined in the market and is measured by collecting information from businesses and households. Real GDP is computed by a government agency and is measured by applying a price index to the nominal GDP figures. This price index is the consumer price index (CPI).

In conclusion, nominal GDP is the market or money value of all final goods and services produced by the economy in a given year, whereas real GDP is adjusted for inflation.

Nominal GDP is the market or money value of all final goods and services produced by the economy in a given year, whereas real GDP is adjusted for inflation. Thus, option c is the correct answer.What is GDP?Gross Domestic Product (GDP) is the market or money value of all final goods and services produced by a country's economy during a given period. It is a measure of a country's economic performance and development over time.GDP can be calculated in two ways: nominal GDP and real GDP. The following are the definitions and distinctions between the two:Nominal GDP:Nominal GDP is the market or money value of all final goods and services produced by the economy in a given year. In other words, nominal GDP is the GDP value at current prices without any adjustment for inflation.Real GDP:Real GDP, on the other hand, is GDP that has been adjusted for inflation. Real GDP removes the effects of inflation from nominal GDP, resulting in a more accurate measure of an economy's production value over time.Real GDP is calculated by adjusting nominal GDP for inflation. This is done to account for the fact that the purchasing power of money changes over time. Real GDP is calculated using the base year's prices, which are adjusted for inflation to account for price changes over time.

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When there is a technological advance in the pork industry, consumer surplus in that market will a. increase b. decrease c. not change, since technology affects producers and not consumers. d. not change, since consumers' willingness to pay is unaffected by the technological advance.

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Consumer surplus in that market will rise as the pork industry makes a technological advancement..

When customers pay less than they'd normally be ready to for a good or service, there is a consumer surplus.. The foundation for the notion of consumer surplus is the economic concept of marginal product additional satisfaction that a customer receives from purchasing one more unit of a good or service. A constant, consumer surplus grows when prices are lowering and decreases when prices are rising. Economists conceptualize it as the triangle-shaped region beneath the demand curve that is between its market cost and the cost that buyers are willing to pay.

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first national bank charges 12 percent compounded monthly on its business loans. first united bank charges 12.2 percent compounded semiannually. calculate the ear for each bank.

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The Effective Annual Rate (EAR) for First National Bank is 12.68%  and First United Bank is 12.36%.

The formula for calculating Effective Annual Rate (EAR) is given by:

EAR = (1 + r/n)ⁿ - 1

Where r = Interest rate, and n = Number of times compounded annually.

Let's find out the Effective Annual Rate (EAR) of First National Bank and First United Bank.

First National Bank

In this case, Rate, r = 12% and Number of times compounded annually, n = 12

Effective Annual Rate (EAR) = (1 + r/n)ⁿ - 1

= (1 + 12%/12)¹² - 1

= (1 + 1%)¹² - 1

= 1.01¹² - 1

= 12.68%

Therefore, the Effective Annual Rate (EAR) of First National Bank is 12.68%.

First United Bank

In this case, Interest rate, r = 12.2% and Number of times compounded annually, n = 2

Effective Annual Rate (EAR) = (1 + r/n)ⁿ - 1

= (1 + 12.2%/2)² - 1

= (1 + 6.1%)² - 1

= 1.061² - 1

= 12.36%

Therefore, the Effective Annual Rate (EAR) of First United Bank is 12.36%.

Hence, the Effective Annual Rate (EAR) for each bank is 12.68% and 12.36%.

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the net present value method of capital budgeting analysis does all of the following except: group of answer choices incorporate risk into the analysis. provide a specific anticipated rate of return. consider all relevant cash flow information. discount all future cash flows to their current value. consider the initial cost of the project.

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The net present value method of capital budgeting analysis does not incorporate risk into the analysis.

This method considers all relevant cash flow information, discounts all future cash flows to their current value, and takes into account the initial cost of the project.

However, the net present value method does not provide a specific anticipated rate of return.

The net present value method uses the discount rate to adjust for risk in a project by comparing the current value of future cash flows to the present cost of the investment.

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5-year treasury bonds yield 4.0%. the inflation premium (ip) is 1.9%, and the maturity risk premium (mrp) on 5-year t-bonds is 0.4%. there is no liquidity premium on these bonds. what is the real risk-free rate, r*? group of answer choices 1.65% 1.46% 1.70% 1.41% 1.51%

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Option C is the correct answer. Risk- free return will be 1.70%.

Nominal Interest rate can be calculated by the below formula:

Nominal Interest Rate (R) = Real Risk-free Rate (R*) + Inflation Premium (IP) + Default Risk Premium (DRP) + Liquidity Premium (LP)

Real Risk-free Rate (R*) = Nominal Interest Rate (R) - Inflation Premium (IP) - Default Risk Premium (DRP) - Liquidity Premium (LP)

Calculate the values for the above formula:

Nominal Interest Rate (R) = 4.0%

Inflation Premium (IP) = 1.9%

Maturity Risk Premium (MRP) = 0.4%

Liquidity Premium (LP) = 0

Default Risk Premium (DRP) = MRP + LP

MRP = market price of the share

LP = liquidity premium

DRP = 0.4% + 0

DRP = 0.4%

Substituting the above values in the formula for R*

Real Risk-free Rate (R*) = 4.0% - 1.9% - 0.4% - 0%

Real Risk-free Rate (R*) = 1.7%

Nominal Interest Rate can be calculated by adding real risk free return, inflation Premium and default risk premium and liquidity premium. By subtracting Inflation, default, liquidity premium from nominal interest rate risk free interest rate can be calculated, which is done above.

Therefore, the value of the real risk-free rate (R*) is 1.7%.

Option C is the correct answer.

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Consolidating entries (market value differs from book value)Assume that on January 1, 2013, an investor company acquired 100% of the outstanding voting common stock of an investee company. The following financial statement information was prepared immediately after the acquisition and presents the acquisition-date balance sheet for the pre-consolidation investor company, the investee company and the consolidated financial statements for the investor and investee.Invest Investee ConsolidatedCash & receivables $500,000 $62,500 $562,500Inventory 375,000 156,250 531,250Property & equipment $1,437,500 $500,000 2,000,000Investment in investee $437,500 _ _Identifiable intangible _ _ 68,750Goodwill _ _ 30,000Total assets $2,750,000 $718,750 $3,192,500Current liabilities $250,000 $125,000 $375,000Accrued expenses 187,500 _ 187,500Bonds payable _ $312,500 317,500Common stock 1,043,750 62,500 1,043,750Additional paid-in capital 893,750 78,125 893,750Retained earnings 375,000 140,625 375,000Total liabilities and equity $2,750,000 $718,750 $3,192,500In preparing the consolidated financial statements, what is the amount of the debit or credit made to the "investment in investee" account as part of the [A] consolidating entry? (Recall from the chapter that the [A] consolidating entry reclassifies the acquisition accounting premium from the investment account to the individual net assets that require adjustment from book value to fair value.)A. $30,000B. $161,250C. $156,250D. $437,500

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When preparing the consolidated financial statements, the investment in investee account requires a debit of $437,500 as part of the consolidating entry.

A consolidation elimination journal is a journal specially created by a company to eliminate or eliminate all reciprocal account balances between its headquarters and subsidiaries or branches. A consolidated report is a report that allows multiple investors to get a complete picture of the parent company. 

This debit reclassifies the acquisition accounting premium from the investment account to the individual net assets that require adjustment from book value to fair value. Therefore the correct answer is D. $437,500.

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What do you think is the main economic reason why businesses grow and fail and why?

MUST BE WRITTEN IN COMPLETE HIGH SCHOOL LEVEL SENTENCES (at least 5 sentences)

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Answer:

Businesses grow and fail for a variety of economic reasons, but one of the main reasons why businesses grow is due to economies of scale. As a business grows, it can produce more goods or services at a lower cost per unit, which allows it to be more competitive and profitable. Additionally, businesses may also grow by expanding into new markets, increasing their customer base, and diversifying their products or services.

On the other hand, one of the main reasons why businesses fail is due to a lack of financial management. Businesses need to carefully manage their finances to ensure they have enough cash flow to operate and to invest in growth opportunities. If a business has poor financial management, it may not be able to pay its bills or debts, which can lead to bankruptcy.

Another reason why businesses fail is due to changes in the market or industry. Technology, competition, and consumer preferences can all change quickly, and businesses that fail to adapt may lose market share or become irrelevant. Finally, businesses may also fail due to poor management or leadership, which can result in a lack of strategic direction, low employee morale, and inefficient operations.

Answer:

One of the main economic reasons why businesses grow is the desire for increased profits. As businesses expand, they can take advantage of economies of scale, which allows them to produce goods and services more efficiently and at a lower cost. This can result in higher profits for the business. However, growth can also lead to increased competition, which can make it harder for businesses to maintain their market share and profitability.

On the other hand, businesses can fail due to a variety of factors. One major reason is poor financial management, including overspending, poor cash flow management, and failing to plan for the future. Additionally, businesses can fail if they don't offer a product or service that customers want or need. Finally, external factors such as changes in the economy or regulatory environment can also contribute to business failure.

If the primary goal is to reduce inflation, which of the following fiscal policy actions would be appropriate during a period of a rapidly increasing consumer price index?
I. Reduce government expenditures for defense and space research.
II. Increase transfer payments to those most severely affected by the rising price index.
III. Increase personal income tax rates.
A. I only. B. II only. C. III only. D. I and III only. E. II and III only

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The primary goal of reducing inflation can be achieved by increasing personal income tax rates (Option C) and reducing government expenditures for defense and space research (Option I). Therefore, the correct answer is Option D: I and III only.

If the primary goal is to reduce inflation, then the appropriate fiscal policy actions during a period of a rapidly increasing consumer price index would be reducing government expenditures for defense and space research and increasing personal income tax rates. This is because fiscal policy refers to the government's use of taxation and spending policies to influence the economy. It can be used to stabilize the economy during a recession or to reduce inflation during periods of high inflation. The inflation rate is the rate at which the general level of prices for goods and services is rising and the Consumer Price Index (CPI) is an indicator of the price level in an economy, and hence, of inflation. Therefore, a rapidly increasing CPI signifies that the inflation rate is increasing.

However, increasing transfer payments to those most severely affected by the rising price index would not be an appropriate fiscal policy action to reduce inflation during a period of a rapidly increasing consumer price index. This is because transfer payments refer to government payments to individuals, such as welfare and unemployment benefits, and increasing them would not necessarily reduce demand or reduce disposable income, which are the key factors that affect inflation.

Hence, the appropriate fiscal policy actions to reduce inflation during a period of a rapidly increasing consumer price index are reducing government expenditures for defense and space research and increasing personal income tax rates. Answer: D. I and III only.

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