contrast the following activities in prokaryotes and eukaryotes: replication of dna transcription or translation gene regulation cell division

Answers

Answer 1

The cytoplasm of the cell is where prokaryotic transcription takes place, whereas the nucleus of the cell is where eukaryotic transcription takes place.

Direct transcription of prokaryotic mRNA from DNA is possible. Eukaryotes, in contrast, produce pre-mRNA first, followed by the processing of mature mRNA. DNA replication, which is primarily accomplished through binary fission or budding in prokaryotes, is the initial stage of cell division. DNA replication happens during the synthesis (S) phase of the cell cycle, which is a somewhat complex process in eukaryotes. Transcriptional control happens at the transcriptional level in prokaryotes, where transcription and translation both take place concurrently in the cytoplasm.

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Contrast the following activities in prokaryotes and eukaryotes: Replication of DNA, Transcription, Gene Regulation, Cell Division.


Related Questions

select all of the reasons that gene regulation is advantageous in multicellular eukaryotic organisms.

Answers

The reasons that gene regulation is advantageous in multicellular eukaryotic organisms are;

B-it saves energyC-not all cells need all proteins encoded in the genome

What is gene regulation?

Gene regulation is the process by which the expression of genes is controlled in response to various internal and external signals. It is a complex process that involves several mechanisms, including the binding of regulatory proteins to specific DNA sequences, chemical modification of DNA or histones, and the action of non-coding RNAs.

Gene regulation is essential for the proper development and functioning of all living organisms. It allows cells to respond to changes in their environment, differentiate into different cell types, and perform specialized functions.

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The complete question:

select all of the reasons that gene regulation is advantageous in multicellular organisms.

-it allows cells to delete unneeded genes and recycle the nucleotides for other processes

-it saves energy

-not all cells need all proteins encoded in the genome

9. What number on the diagram is pointing to the deltoid muscle?

15
16
17
18

Answers

Answer:

17 number on the diagram is pointing to the deltoid muscle

What is a structural observation you can make to explain why the rumen does not rip or burst?​

Answers

Answer:

The rumen is a specialized compartment of the stomach found in ruminant animals such as cows, sheep, and goats. It is designed to handle the fermentation of cellulose and other complex carbohydrates through the activity of microorganisms. One structural observation that explains why the rumen does not rip or burst is its ability to stretch and accommodate large volumes of feed.

The rumen is a muscular sac that can expand and contract as needed to accommodate the incoming feed. The walls of the rumen are lined with folds of tissue called papillae, which increase the surface area available for nutrient absorption. The rumen also contains a complex network of muscles and nerves that allow it to move and mix the contents, ensuring that all parts of the feed are exposed to the microorganisms and digestive enzymes.

Additionally, the rumen is supported by the diaphragm and other surrounding organs, which help to prevent it from overexpanding or rupturing. The diaphragm is a sheet of muscle that separates the thoracic and abdominal cavities and provides support to the rumen as it expands.

Overall, the combination of muscularity, papillae, and support from surrounding structures enables the rumen to handle large volumes of feed without ripping or bursting.

When electrons flow along the electron transport chains of mitochondria, which of the changes occurs? The correct answer is (B) the pH of the matrix increases. As electrons are passed along the electron transport chains, protons are actively transported from the mitochondrial matrix into the intermembrane space.

Answers

Protons are actively transferred from the mitochondrial matrix into the intermembrane gap as electrons move along the electron transport chains. Option 4 is Correct.

One of the changes that takes place as electrons move along mitochondria's electron transport chains is a rise in the matrix's pH. Both photosynthesis and cellular respiration take place in mitochondria. In the former, energy is released together with the release of electrons from the breakdown of organic molecules.

In the latter, after being activated by light, the electrons join the chain, and the energy released is utilized to create carbs. At the conclusion of cellular respiration comes the electron transport chain, a network of chemical processes. This chain is found in the cell's cristae or inner mitochondrial membrane. Option 4 is Correct.

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Correct Question:

When electrons flow along the electron transport chains of mitochondria, which of the following changes occurs?

1. NAD+ is oxidized.

2. The electrons gain free energy.

3. The cytochromes phosphorylate ADP to form ATP.

4. The pH of the matrix increases.

5. ATP synthase pumps protons by active transport.

6. the pH of the matrix increases.

5.3.c contrast euchromatin and heterochromatin in terms of structure, gene activity, and location along an interphase chromosome.

Answers

Contrast euchromatin and heterochromatin in terms of structure is euchromatin and heterochromatin are in their structures, gene activity, and location along the interphase chromosome.

The DNA of a cell is packed into chromatin fibers, which exist in two forms: euchromatin and heterochromatin. They differ in terms of structure, gene activity, and location along an interphase chromosome. Structure: Euchromatin fibers are thin and uncondensed, while heterochromatin fibers are thick and condensed. Gene Activity: The majority of genes are found in euchromatin, which is actively transcribed. Heterochromatin has fewer genes and is generally transcriptionally silent. Location Along an Interphase Chromosome. Thus, in general, euchromatin is more readily accessible to transcriptional machinery than heterochromatin.

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If the temperature of the skin is too low or too high this information is conveyed to an area of the brain called the
A. cerebellum.
B. hypothalamus.
C. cerebrum.
D. medulla oblongata.
E. spinal cord.

Answers

If the temperature of the skin is too low or too high, this information is conveyed to an area of the brain called the hypothalamus. Therefore the correct option is option B.

The hypothalamus is a small part of the brain that performs a variety of critical functions. The hypothalamus is found in the brain's basal region, at the bottom of the third ventricle. It is situated between the optic nerves and above the pituitary gland.

The hypothalamus is the body's regulatory centre. The hypothalamus is responsible for: Body temperature control Hunger regulation Thirst regulation Water and salt balance The release of hormones The control of emotional behaviour.The hypothalamus, in addition to these roles, controls the pituitary gland's function.

The hypothalamus sends information to the pituitary gland, which then transmits signals to other endocrine organs. The hypothalamus is also involved in the control of the autonomic nervous system. Therefore the correct option is option B.

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What is the correct answer ???

Answers

Answer:

The answer is corn

Tye answer is corn……

You are crossing two pea plants. One is heterozygous for yellow. The second pea plant is homozygous for green. Use "G/g" as the letter to represent the gene for this problem.

Answers

Answer:

Parent 1 genotype: Gg

Parent 2 genotype: gg


gg's bro

Identify a true statement about waves and their movement in the ocean.
O Waves help transport water to different locations.
O When under a wave trough, the water moves up and forward.
O When under a wave crest, water moves down and back.
O Waves carry energy across the sea surface.

Answers

Answer:

"Waves carry energy across the sea surface."

Explanation:

This is a fundamental characteristic of waves and their behavior in the ocean. As waves travel through the ocean, they transfer energy from one location to another, causing the water to move in a circular motion without transporting water itself. The movement of water associated with waves occurs in a vertical and circular motion, with water particles moving up and down in the vicinity of the wave, but not being transported forward or backward over large distances.
waves carry energy across the sea surface and that is because energy is transferred through movement

the reason water takes so long to heat up and cool down is because it has a relatively high .

Answers

The reason water takes so long to heat up and cool down is due to its relatively high specific heat capacity. Specific heat capacity is defined as the amount of heat energy required to raise the temperature of one unit mass of a substance by one degree Celsius.

Water has a very high specific heat capacity compared to many other substances, which means that it requires a large amount of heat energy to raise its temperature even by a small amount. This is why water takes longer to heat up compared to other materials with lower specific heat capacities, such as metals.

Similarly, water also takes a longer time to cool down because it requires a significant amount of heat energy to be removed in order for its temperature to drop. This is why it can take a while for the water to cool down to room temperature even after being heated.

The high specific heat capacity of water is important for many biological and environmental processes. For example, it helps to regulate the temperature of the human body and other living organisms, and it can also moderate temperature changes in aquatic environments.

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what are the names for the 2 wind systems where pressure belts meet called

Answers

Answer:

The two wind systems where pressure belts meet are called the "Polar Front" and the "Intertropical Convergence Zone (ITCZ)".

Explanation:

as characteristized in lecture, an oil spill is an example of: question 12 options: competition antagonism ammensalism commensalism

Answers

Antagonism can take one of two forms: competitive and non-competitive. Ketamine, on the other hand, is a non-competitive foe of the NMDA-glutamate receptor, whereas naloxone is a competitive foe of all opioid receptors. The correct answer is Antagonism.

Competitive antagonism is based on the idea that an agonist or antagonist can bind to the same recognition site(s) on the receptor and compete for those sites when they are present simultaneously.

A competitive antagonist blocks the agonist's action by binding to the same site as the agonist but not activating it. To prevent the receptor from being activated, a non-competitive antagonist binds to an allosteric (non-agonist) site on the receptor.

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what is alcohol how to prepare it ​

Answers

Answer:

Alcohol is made by putting grains, fruits or vegetables through a process called fermentation. This is a chemical reaction where yeast or bacteria react with the sugars in the other ingredients to produce ethanol (the alcohol in the drink) and carbon dioxide (which can mean the drink has bubbles).

which of the following is least likely to help a virus avoid triggering an adaptive immune response?

Answers

Answer:

Synthesizing protein similar to other viruses would not help the virus avoid activating the adaptive immune response. The MHC molecules of the cells recognize the other protein molecules. It triggers the adaptive immune system.

select all of the following that are ethical concerns associated with the use of transgenic organisms. multiple select question.

Answers

Potential harm to the environment

Potential harm to non-target organisms

Unintended consequences of gene transfer

What is a gene ?

The DNA sequence of a gene determines the specific characteristics or traits that it codes for, such as eye color, hair color, height, susceptibility to certain diseases, and more. Genes can be turned on or off by various regulatory mechanisms, and mutations or changes in the DNA sequence of a gene can result in altered or non-functional proteins, leading to genetic disorders.

Humans have an estimated 20,000-25,000 genes, and each individual inherits one copy of each gene from each parent. The study of genes and their functions is known as genetics, and has important applications in fields such as medicine, agriculture, and biotechnology.

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PLEASE HELP!!!What type of air masses form over land in polar regions?
cold and dry air masses
warm and dry air masses
cold and wet air masses
warm and wet air masses

Answers

In polar regions, air masses that develop over land tend to be chilly and dry.

These air masses are characterized by their cold temperatures and low moisture content and are thought to originate over high latitudes.

Air massesLarge bodies of air known as air masses have similar properties with one another, including stability, humidity, and temperature. The area across which an air mass originates affects the features of that air mass. A Continental Polar (cP) air mass is the term used to describe the air mass that develops over land in polar latitudes.The high latitudes where the cP air mass originates have extremely frigid temperatures, frequently below freezing. Because of its lack of access to a source of moisture, this air mass gets dry as it passes over land. As a result, the air mass has low relative humidity and moisture content.

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Which of the following events is an important part of the engineering design process?
A.
testing and evaluating models
B.
evaluating design constraints
C.
designing and building models
D.
all of these
PLS QUICKLY ANSWER

Answers

D. all of these are important parts of the engineering design process. Testing and evaluating models, evaluating design constraints, and designing and building models are all key steps in the iterative process of engineering design.

What is an engineering?

Engineering is a field of study and practice that involves the application of scientific and mathematical principles to design, develop, build, and maintain structures, machines, systems, processes, and materials that solve practical problems and improve our lives. Engineers use creativity, critical thinking, and technical knowledge to address challenges related to a wide range of industries.

What is desigh constraints?

Design constraints are the limitations, requirements, or conditions that must be taken into account when creating a design solution. They may be imposed by various factors, such as the project's scope, budget, timeline, regulatory requirements, safety standards, environmental concerns, user needs, or technological limitations.

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How does water flow?

Answers

water flows down due to gravity.
Water will always form a flat surface unless it is acted on by another force, such as wind. Objects can sink, float, or stay suspended in water. Air takes up space in water and will float to the top. In nature, water flows down due to gravity.

What is responsible for the high resolution of the electron
microscope?

Answers

Answer: The high resolution of EM images results from the use of electrons (which have very short wavelengths) as the source of the illuminating radiation. Electron microscopy is used in conjunction with a variety of ancillary techniques (e.g. thin sectioning, immuno-labeling, negative staining) to answer specific questions.

Explanation:

All of the following types of metabolism use a membrane-associated electron transport system (ETS) EXCEPT for
Choose one:
A. lithotrophy.
B. phototrophy.
C. mitochondrial respiration.
D. fermentation.
E. organotrophy.

Answers

During fermentation, the electrons from glycolytic responses are gotten back to the to some extent oxidized food source as opposed to being gone through an ETS framework to a terminal electron acceptor. The correct answer is (D).

The fact that the protein complexes that make up the various types of ETS share a common ancestor is indicated by their homology.

The electron transport chain is a progression of four protein buildings that couple redox responses, making an electrochemical slope that prompts the production of ATP in a total framework named oxidative phosphorylation. It occurs in mitochondria during photosynthesis and cellular respiration.

Smoke that is exhaled by smokers and smoke that is produced when a tobacco product is burned. It is called compulsory or aloof smoking to Breathe in ETS. Likewise called natural tobacco smoke and handed-down cigarette smoke.

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Please help on this fast

Answers

The correct answer is: The moths are living in an environment with dark trees.

Scientists are studying a genetic disorder. They discover that when both parents are carriers, and do not express the disorder themselves, their children have a 25% chance of developing the disorder. If only one parent is a carrier, none of the children express the disorder. What type of disorder are they most likely studying?

Answers

The genetic disorder that the scientists are most likely studying is an autosomal recessive disorder.

What is the autosomal recessive disorde?

In this type of disorder, a person needs to inherit two copies of the mutated gene, one from each parent, to develop the disorder. When both parents are carriers of a recessive gene mutation, there is a 25% chance that each of their children will inherit two copies of the mutated gene, and therefore develop the disorder.

However, if only one parent is a carrier, the children will inherit one copy of the normal gene from that parent and one copy of the mutated gene from the other parent, and therefore will not develop the disorder.

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please help me i begging you

topic : Nonodontogenic
inflammatory processes of maxillofacial area (furuncle, carbuncle, erysipelas).


1) Furuncle (boil) is acute infection of:
A. a hair follicle and adjacent soft tissue.
B. a hair folicle.
C. a group of adjacent hair follicles become deeply infected.
D. oil and sweat-gland.
E. oilgland.

2) Cavernous sinus thrombosis can complicate boils or carbuncles on the:
A. lower lip and submentum.
B. parotid region.
C. nose, upper lip and cheek.
D. temporal region.
E. submandibular regionandneck.

3) The boils may coalesce into violaceous plaques at patient with:
A. HIV.
B. diabetes mellitus.
C. congenital anomalies.
D. atopic dermatitis.
E. cellulitis.

4)Select the type of microorganism causing of erysipelas:
A. staphylococcus.
B. pneumococcus.
C. actynomycetes.
D. herpes zoster.
E. streptococcus.

5) Depression of which of the following cells delay wound healing:
A. neutrophils.
B. lymphocytes.
C. monocytes.
D. erythrocytes.
E. none of above listed.

6) Organisms gain entry to form abscess:
A. direct infection.
B. local extension.
C. lymphatic and hematogenous spread.
D. none of above listed.
E. all of above.

7) Re-sutured wounds:
A. heals foster.
B. gets infected.
C. heals slower.
D. do not heal easily.
E. none of above listed.

8) If boils are recurred which of the following should be excluded:
A. epilepsy.
B. diabetes.
C. hypertension.
D. arrhythmias.
E. allergy.

9) Boils usually infect regional lymph nodes:
A. secondary.
B. primarily.
C. all of above.
D. none of above.
E. chronically.

10) The major factor in the production of inflammatory edema is:
A. arterial dilatation.
B. venous obstruction.
C. leukocytosis.
D. all of above listed.
E. increased capillary permeability.

11) Multiple pustules appear on the affected surface of skin by:
A. воil.
B. carbuncles.
C. eresipelas.
D. hidradenitis suppurativa.
E. cubcutaneous granuloma.

12) The causative agent of boils and carbuncles are:
A. streptococcus.
B. e. coli;
C. proteus;
D. association s.aureus and proteus.
E. staphylococcus.

13) The unlimited spread of on exudate through the tissues in acute inflammation is a characteristic feature of:
A. granulomatous infection.
B. cellulitis.
C. abscess.
D. leukocytosis
E. leukopedia

14) Predisposing factor for origin of erysipelas in adult is:
A. furunculosis.
B. a cut in the skin, skin ulcers, and problems with the drainage through the veins or lymph system.
C. congenital anomalies of skin.
D. exudative diathesis.
E. cardivascular decompensation.

15) To choice diseases for differential diagnosis of boil:
A. cavernous sinus thrombosis, mediastinitis.
B. siphylis, tuberculosis, actinomycosis.
C. hidradenitis suppurativa, acne vulgaris, anthrax.
D. lymphadenitis.
E. lupus erythematosus.

Answers

Answer:

1) A. a hair follicle and adjacent soft tissue.

2) C. nose, upper lip, and cheek.

3) B. diabetes mellitus.

4) E. streptococcus.

5) B. lymphocytes.

6) E. all of the above.

7) C. heals slower.

8) B. diabetes.

9) A. secondary.

10) E. increased capillary permeability.

11) A. boil.

12) E. staphylococcus.

13) B. cellulitis.

14) B. a cut in the skin, skin ulcers, and problems with the drainage through the veins or lymph system.

15) C. hidradenitis suppurativa, acne vulgaris, anthrax.

Answer:

1.  A

2.  C

3.  A

4.  E

5.  C

6.  E

7.   C

8.  B

9.  A

10. E

11.  D

12. E

13. B

14. B

15. C

which of the following molecules is a nucleotide precursor that is incorporated into the newly synthesized dna strand during normal dna replication?

Answers

During DNA replication, the nucleotides that make up the newly synthesized DNA strand are derived from deoxynucleotide triphosphates, which consist of a deoxyribose sugar, a nitrogenous base, and three phosphate groups. The correct answer is (d) Deoxythymidine triphosphate (dTTP).

One of these nucleotides is deoxythymidine triphosphate (dTTP), which pairs with deoxyadenosine triphosphate (dATP) through hydrogen bonds to form the base pairs that hold the two strands of DNA together. Ribose is the sugar component found in RNA, but it is not a precursor for DNA synthesis. Adenosine triphosphate (ATP) is an important energy molecule in the cell, but it is not incorporated into DNA during replication.

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Full Question ;

"Which of the following molecules is a nucleotide precursor that is incorporated into the newly synthesized DNA strand during normal DNA replication: (a) Deoxyribose, (b) Ribose, (c) Adenosine triphosphate (ATP), or (d) Deoxythymidine triphosphate (dTTP)?"

the cat, felis domestica, has a diploid number of 38 chromosomes in its somatics cell. consisting of 19 homologous pairs ( that is 19 maternal and 19 paternal chromosomes). a student stated that only one fourth of the gametes produced by meiosis in this animal will have all of its chromosomes from either maternal or paternal origin. explain wether you think the student is right or wrong

Answers

Answer:

Explanation:

The student is incorrect. During meiosis, homologous chromosomes pair up and can undergo crossing over, where genetic material can be exchanged between maternal and paternal chromosomes. This results in the formation of genetically unique haploid cells (gametes) with a combination of chromosomes from both maternal and paternal origin.

In the case of a diploid organism with 19 homologous pairs, the total possible combinations of maternal and paternal chromosomes in the gametes is 2^19, or approximately 524,000. This means that there are a large number of possible combinations of chromosomes that can end up in a gamete, making it unlikely for all of the chromosomes in a gamete to come from either maternal or paternal origin.

Therefore, the correct statement is that only a small fraction of the gametes produced by meiosis in this animal will have all of its chromosomes from either maternal or paternal origin, while the majority of the gametes will have a combination of chromosomes from both maternal and paternal origin.

identify the letter that indicates the organ that directs sperm towards the seminal vesicles during ejavulation

Answers

The letter that indicates the organ that directs sperm towards the seminal vesicles during ejaculation is D.

Ejaculation occurs during orgasm, which is when the intense physical and emotional sensations.

During ejaculation, the vas deferens, which is a tube that carries sperm from the testicles to the urethra, contracts and propels the sperm towards the prostate gland.

The prostate gland then adds a fluid to the semen to nourish and protect the sperm. Finally, the semen is propelled out of the body through the urethra during ejaculation.

The prostate gland (D) is the organ that directs sperm towards the seminal vesicles during ejaculation.

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3. Use the diagram and information to answer questions below the figure.

You may use the amino acid table at beginning of exam to look up the 3 letter amino acid abbreciation and structure.
You have discovered a new enzyme that you name Pac-Manase that breaks down Pac-dot substrates (see figure below). You determine that the following potential interactions may occur between amino acids (3 letter abbreviation in red) in the enzyme's active site and its substrate (in yellow in figure below). At each site between the chemical group (in green) on the substrate and the closest side chain of an amino acid (in red) on the enzyme (in the gray circles), Pac-Manase, determine if a favorable interaction is likely to take place.
For each amino acid and substrate functional group pair, decide if a favorable interaction is likely take place and if so state the name for the strongest interaction/bond that may occur. For all cases where a potential interaction seems unfavorable, explain why.

A. GLN

B. ASP

C. ILE

D. LYS

E. ARG

Answers

The interactions that take place between each amino acid and substrate functional group pair play important roles in determining the structure and function of the enzyme Pac-Manase.

What interaction takes place between each amino acid and substrate functional group pair?

Several interactions take place between each amino acid and substrate functional group pair of the enzyme Pac-Manase.

These interactions are described below:

GLN and -OH: GLN contains a side chain with a carboxamide group (-CONH2), which can form hydrogen bonds with a hydroxyl group (-OH). This interaction is called a hydrogen bond.ASP and -NH2: ASP contains a negatively charged side chain, while -NH2 represents a positively charged amino group. The oppositely charged groups can attract each other, forming an ionic bond.ILE and -CH3: ILE contains a side chain with a methyl group (-CH3), which can interact with other methyl groups through van der Waals forces. This interaction is called hydrophobic interaction.LYS and -NH2: LYS contains a positively charged side chain, while -NH2 represents a positively charged amino group. The two positively charged groups can repel each other, but they can also form a salt bridge, which is a strong ionic interaction between oppositely charged groups.ARG and -COOH: ARG contains a positively charged side chain, while -COOH represents a negatively charged carboxyl group. The oppositely charged groups can attract each other, forming a salt bridge.

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The rate of photosynthesis in an aquatic plant can be determined by the number of bubbles released from the plant. These bubbles ________.are hydrogen released when water is splitare mostly carbon dioxide released when sugars are metabolizedare water released when sugars are metabolizedare oxygen released when water is split

Answers

Option D, The number of bubbles emitted by an aquatic plant can be used to estimate its rate of photosynthesis. As water is split, oxygen is released, causing these bubbles.

The oxygen produced as a consequence of the breaking of water molecules makes up the majority of the bubbles that are generated by an aquatic plant during photosynthesis.

During the process of photosynthesis, chlorophyll pigments in the plant's cells absorb light, which sets off a sequence of chemical processes that ultimately lead to the production of energy and the reduction of carbon dioxide to sugars.

This splits the water molecules into electrons, protons, and oxygen gas, which is then released as bubbles into the surrounding water.

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The question is -

The rate of photosynthesis in an aquatic plant can be determined by the number of bubbles released from the plant. These bubbles ________.

a. are hydrogen released when water is split.

b. are mostly carbon dioxide released when sugars are metabolized.

c. are water released when sugars are metabolized.

d. are oxygen released when water is split.

Why is the rumen not acidic?​

Answers

Answer:

please make me brainalist

Explanation:

To keep the rumen bugs happy, cows chew cud. Chewing cud creates saliva, which has bicarbonate in it and opposes acid. Therefore, the more the cows chew cud, the more saliva they produce, and this saliva when swallowed with the cud maintains a rumen pH between 6.0 and 7.0, keeping the important microbes happy.

Answer: How come the rumen is not acidic? Rumen bacteria quickly break down carbohydrates in the rumen into sugars, which are subsequently fermented to produce an excess of volatile fatty acids (VFAs), lowering the rumen's pH. In what way do ruminants and rumen microorganisms interact?

Explanation: I changed the wording for you so you do not have to

I hope this helps broski

using the chart below, explain which organism is most closely related to the human and why? which is most distantly related and why?

Answers

You can see from the chart below that the first species is in the animal kingdom while the other three are in the plant world. Just below the level of domains, the kingdom is a very high degree of categorization.

As a result, creatures from various kingdoms have relatively little in common. Sponge species are our most distant cousins according to the conventional animal tree of life. Like our non-animal ancestors (such as fungi), sponges are structurally basic creatures that lack many sophisticated animal characteristics including a nervous system, muscles, and a through-gut.

The gorillas, chimpanzees, and orangutans are the big apes that resemble humans the most physically. Yet, DNA testing has revealed that the chimpanzees are our closest living cousins; 95% of our DNA is the same.

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Correct Question:

Using the chart below, explain which organism is most closely related to the human and why? which is most distantly related and why?

Other Questions
Which is an adaptation that helped plants survive on land ?A. PhotosynthesisB. Development of backbonesC. Production of seedsD. Diploid forms A forest ranger sights a fire directly to the south. A second ranger, 9 miles east of the first ranger, also sights the fireThe bearing from the second ranger to the fire is S 28 W. How far is the first ranger from the fire? Find the standard normal area for each of the following (LAB)Round answers to 4 decimals identify the epidemiologic triad, including host, agent, and environmental factors as related to hiv. The marginal product of labor eventually slopes downward due toA) diminishing marginal utilityB) diminishing marginal costsC) diminishing average returnsD) diminishing marginal productivity Gross Margin Net Income Cost of Goods Sold. ______(absorption, variable) costing is acceptable for external reporting under U.S. GAAP. Absorption. When removing curNode from a doubly-linked list with at least 2 elements, the list's tail may be assigned with _____ based on the data provided, explain how cellular processes must be altered in stomach cancer cells compared with normal stomach cells to result in the different levels of sirt3 expression observed. a mutation to the gene encoding a cyclin-dependent kinase (cdk ) in human stomach cells results in a cdk that is continually active in the cells. explain why the continually active cdk will most likely change the normal cells into cancer cells. what ethnic group left europe in the years before 1948 to escape persecution and discrimination? A piece of metal weighing 187.6 g is placed in a graduated cylinder containing 225.2 mL of water. The combined volume of solid and liquid is 250.3 mL. What is the density, in grams per milliliter, of the metal? Does the expression 56x+40y-48z=8(7x+5y-6z) Which animal would most likely be found in a warm area near the equator that gets around two meters of rainfall per year?A) DeerB) Zebra C) OrangutanD) Wolf 1.2 Summarise the thesis statement of the text Nature Returns to the cities. Provide THREE (3) examples from the text on how the author develops his thesis statement. (10 marks Think of a scenario where wolves are introduced to an island where elk live. This elk population has not been in contact with wolves for thousands of years. Which of the following is most plausible. a. The carrying capacity and "r" of the elk population will increase. b. There is an evolutionary arms race, where elk evolve defenses as wolves continue to evolve to overcome those defenses. c. The wolf population will not persist more than a year because the elks are not accustomed to reacting to wolf predators. d. Elk behavior will not change in any way. e. The survivorship of elk increases. What does Juliet fear may happen when she drinks the potion?answer choicesShe will feel no effect at all.She will lose her mind and marry Paris.She will forget all about Romeo.She will die or wake up alone in the tomb. maintenance of posture and production of heat are functions of ______ muscle.a) Skeletal muscle b) Smooth muscle c) Cardiac muscle d) Adipose tissu Which of the following statements about instant messaging in the workplace are true? (Select all that apply.)Attitudes toward instant messaging in the workplace vary significantly.Instant messaging is a new form of communication, especially in the workplace. suppose an individual is looking to build a house in a plain that is prone to flooding. because of the risk of damage due to flooding, the buyer's top dollar for building the house is only $280,000. suppose the cost of building a house in this area is $320,000. a wealth-creating transaction is not possible since the seller's bottom line (or the cost of building the house) is the buyer's top dollar. the difference between the cost of building the house minus the buyer's top dollar is $ . suppose the government subsidizes flood insurance for homes in the flood plain. because of this, the buyer has access to very cheap insurance, worth an expected $50,000. without such a subsidy, the high likelihood of flood results in extremely high rates for flood insurance. with this subsidy, the individual incentivized to build a house in the flood plain. HELP ME ASAP!!! YOU WILL BE BRAINLIEST when carl first attended college, he either barely passed or failed most of his courses despite his efforts to do well. after working at a low paying job for a couple of years, carl has returned to school. overwhelmed with the demands of exams, term papers, library assignments, and the need to concentrate on his studies, carl finds himself procrastinating and engaging in self-defeating passive behaviors. this example illustrates the pehenomenon _____