chromatids segments exchange, forming a chiasma. unselected two of the chromosomes carry new combinations of genes. unselected the chromatids forming the chiasma break, and the broken-off ends join their corresponding homologous. unselected chromosomes synapse during prophase of meiosis i.

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Answer 1

The correct answer is Exchanges of DNA segments between sister chromatids of a duplicated metaphase chromosome are known as sister chromatid exchanges (SCEs).

The chiasma is a structure that develops through crossover recombination between a pair of homologous chromosomes and physically connects the homologous chromosomes during meiosis. When it comes to genetics and genomics, the term "crossing over" describes the DNA exchange that takes place between paired homologous chromosomes (one from each parent) during the formation of egg and sperm cells (meiosis). The beginning of meiosis I is preceded by DNA replication. Homologous chromosomes link up and create synapses during prophase I, a process that only occurs during meiosis. The paired chromosomes are known as bivalents, and it is now clear that genetic recombination is what causes chiasmata to occur.

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Related Questions

here are many genes that can affect coat color in ferrets. In particular, there is a gene that is necessary for melanocyte development (D). When this gene is mutant the ferrets are white, regardless of any of the other genes. A second gene affects the production of color in the melanocyte (R). Recessive mutations in this gene result in cream-colored animals, while the fully functional gene allows for animals of a darker color. A third gene causes longer chains of dopaquinone, and the dominant allele produces black animals (B), while the recessive allele produces brown animals. In animals that are black you can sometimes see a pattern of color that looks like stripes; this pattern is created by a gene (a) that affects deposition of color. Only black animals can be striped, and the striped allele is recessive. A brown animal, whose mother was cream colored, has babies. Of the animals, 1/4 are white, 3/8 are brown, 9/32 are black, and 3/32 are striped. What is the genotype of the father of these babies? List the What is the genotype of your brown animal? genes in order DRBA with no spaces.

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The genotype is Aabb and aabb also the proportion of brown fleece(coat) is3/16.

Gametes produced by AaBb creatures are AB, Ab, aB, ab

Cross between two AaBb creatures would be as follows

AaBb * AaBb

AB Ab aB ab

AB AABB AABb AaBB AaBb

Ab AABb AAbb AaBb Aabb

aB AaBB AaBb aaBB aaBb

ab AaBb Aabb aaBb aabb

Out of the 16, seed(offsprings) the one with genotype Aabb and aabb will have red color

There are 2 Aabb and one aabb seed

Therefore, out of 16, 3 seed are brown in color

Proportion of offspring to have a brown fleece is3/16.

Thus, the genotype is Aabb and aabb also the proportion of brown fleece(coat) is 3/16.

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the process of summation type your answer here the strength and duration of graded potentials that occur in the dendrites of a neuron. chapter 12

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Summation is a crucial process that determines the strength and duration of graded potentials occurring in the dendrites of a neuron.

Graded potentials are localized changes in membrane potential caused by the reception of neurotransmitters or sensory stimuli.

Summation involves the integration of these graded potentials, combining their effects to influence the neuron's overall excitability. Two types of summation exist: temporal and spatial.

Temporal summation results from repeated inputs within a short time, causing cumulative effects on the membrane potential.

Spatial summation occurs when multiple inputs from different synapses converge, leading to a more substantial overall effect on the neuron's excitability, ultimately influencing the transmission of electrical signals along the neuron.

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What is the largest mammal on earth?

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Answer:

The Antarctic blue whale.

Explanation:

Hope it helps!

The Antarctic blue whale

in a attack the attacker creates a series of dns requests containing the spoofed source address for the target system.

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In a DNS amplification attack, the attacker creates a series of DNS requests involving the spoofed source address for the target system.

DNS amplification is a Distributed Denial of Service (DDoS) attack through which the attacker exploits vulnerabilities in  DNS or domain name system servers to turn initially small queries into much larger payloads, ultimately that brings down the victim's servers. DNS amplification attacks can be prevented by:

Limiting Recursion to Authorized Clients,Implementing Source IP Verification on a network device Disabling Recursion on Authoritative Name ServersImplementing Response Rate Limiting (RRL) setting on DNS Server

"

Complete question is:

In a attack ________  the attacker creates a series of dns requests containing the spoofed source address for the target system.

"

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T or F? Metamorphic code is software that can be shipped unchanged to a heterogeneous collection of platforms and execute with identical semantics.

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The correct answer is False. Metamorphic code is software that can be shipped unchanged to a heterogeneous collection of platforms and execute with identical semantics.

The most prevalent form of malware that can run automatically and propagate by infecting other programmes or files is a virus. Without a host software, a worm is capable of self-replication and often spreads without any help from the malware creators. Viruses, Trojans, and worms are the three methods of malware spread. 10.2 Which of the following four main types of payloads may malware carry? The most effective method of protecting your computer from harmful malware is to use antivirus software. Run your antivirus application if you suspect an infection on your computer. Your antivirus software should be able to detect any dangerous malware on your computer and quarantine it so it can no longer harm your system.

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A double-slit interference pattern is created by two narrow slits spaced 0.20 mm apart. The distance between the first and the fifth minimum on a screen 58 cm behind the slits is 6.1 mm.What is the wavelength of the light used in this experiment?

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The light utilized in this experiment has a wavelength of 525.86 nm.

Waves that interfere are generated by two coherent sources by double slits. (a) Because the slits are thin, light diffuses (spreads out) from each one. Both constructively (bright lines) and destructively (overlapping and interfering waves) (dark regions). Light passes through two slits, creating new dark areas. The interference of the light traveling through the slits results in the dark and light zones.

Light passing through one slit overlaps with light passing through the other slit as it approaches the screen.

slit separation d = 0.2 mm = 0.2 *   [tex]10^{-3}[/tex] m

distance from the slits  D = 58 cm =0.58 m

The minimal distance behind the slits on a screen between the first and fifth positions is 58 cm, Y = 6.1 mm

   Y = 6.1 * [tex]10^{-3}[/tex] m

condition for 1 st minimum  d sin θ = λ

                                        d( y / D ) = λ

                                            y = λD / d    -----( 1)

condition for 5 th minimum  d sin θ ' = 5λ

                                        d( y ' / D ) = 5λ

                                            y ' = 5λD / d    -----( 2)

given   y ' - y  = Y

[5λD / d] -[λD / d]= Y

4λD / d = Y

from this wavelength of the light  λ = Yd / 4D

                                                   = 525.86 * [tex]10^{-9}[/tex] m

                                                   = 525.86 nm

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The heritability of a trait: (a) is the proportion of phenotypic variation in the population that is due to genetic differences between individuals (b) determines whether natural selection could result in evolutionary change (c) is the proportion of an individual's phenotype that is due to its genotype (d) a and b are correct (e) a, b, and € are all correct

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The heritability of a trait is the proportion of phenotypic variation in the population that is due to genetic differences between individuals.

The degree to which genetic variations among persons may adequately explain the variations in their attributes is known as heritability. Characteristics like height, eye color, and IQ are examples of traits, as are illnesses like schizophrenia and autism spectrum disorder. Heritability, which is denoted by the statistic h2 in science, describes the proportion of a trait's variation that can be attributable to genetic variation.

An estimation of a trait's heritability is particular to one population in a particular setting, and it might alter over time as conditions change.

Estimates of heritability range from 0 to 1. A heritability near to zero means that environmental factors, with very little impact from genetics, account for almost all of the variation in a trait among individuals.

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Which landform is created by a river pouring into a larger body of water?
OA. Delta
B. Beach
C. Dune
D. Moraine

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A. Delta is the answer

FILL IN THE BLANK. Although modified to perform a different task, a horse's front leg is made up of the same bones as is your arm. this suggests a common ancestor between horses and humans that also had those bones in its forelimb. the horse leg and human arm are therefore considered to be ________ structures.

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Although modified to perform a different task, a horse's front leg is made up of the same bones as is your arm. this suggests a common ancestor between horses and humans that also had those bones in its forelimb. the horse leg and human arm are therefore considered to be homologous structures.

Homology is the similarity between structures in different organisms due to them being derived from a common ancestor. Homologous structures are structures in different organisms that have the same evolutionary origin, but may be modified for different functions. A horse's front leg and a human arm are both composed of the same bones, suggesting that they share a common ancestor that had those bones in its forelimb. This common ancestor likely had a forelimb that was adapted for locomotion, and the horse's leg and the human arm each adapted from that forelimb to perform different functions. The horse's leg is adapted for running, while the human arm is adapted for a variety of activities, including grasping and manipulating objects. Despite the different functions, the underlying structure of the bones in the forelimb remains the same, indicating that they both have a common evolutionary origin. Therefore, the horse's leg and human arm are considered to be homologous structures.

Homologous structures are structures in different organisms that have a common evolutionary origin, although they may have different functions. Examples of homologous structures include the wings of a bat and the arm of a human, which have the same underlying skeletal structure even though they are used for different purposes. Homology is evidence that organisms share a common ancestor, and it helps to provide insight into the evolutionary history of organisms.

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given our knowledge of hominin evolution, evolutionary biologists have already predicted what future human evolution will look like. t/f

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It is true that given our knowledge of hominin evolution, evolutionary biologists have already predicted what future human evolution will look like.

We will probably live longer, get taller, and have smaller bodies. Despite having smaller brains, we will probably be less aggressive and more agreeable. We'll be friendly and happy, but maybe not very interesting, like a golden retriever. That, at least, is one potential future.

Thomas Mailund, an associate professor of bioinformatics at Aarhus University in Denmark, suggests that we might then evolve to be smaller so that our bodies would require less energy. This would be useful on a planet with a lot of people. Mailund suggests that our evolution might assist us in coping with this. One example: remembering people's names could become a much more valuable skill.

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list different types of water soluble and fat soluble vitamins then write their name

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Fat-soluble vitamins are absorbed along with fats in the diet and are stored in the body’s fatty tissue and in the liver.

What is Fat soluble vitamins?

They are found in many plant and animal foods and in dietary supplements. Vitamins A, D, E, and K are fat-soluble. Vitamin A plays a key role in maintaining your vision.

Vitamin A is not a single compound. Rather, it is a group of fat-soluble compounds collectively known as retinoids.

The most common dietary form of vitamin A is retinol. Other forms — retinal and retinoic acid — are found in the body, but absent or rare in foods.

Therefore, Fat-soluble vitamins are absorbed along with fats in the diet and are stored in the body’s fatty tissue and in the liver.

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carefully study the diagram below. which statement best describes the direction of signal transmission

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Only presynaptic neurons and postsynaptic neurons exchange messages(transmission).

One neuron releases neurotransmitters at a chemical synapses, while the other neuron contains receptors that bind this chemical. The signal can only travel in one way as a result. Neuronal dendrites are where electrical impulses begin. Once at the axon, they are then transmitted via the cell body. When a signal transmission the axon, it skips over one Ranvier node in favor of another, saving time by avoiding having to pass through each myelin sheath. They let ion to pass through desmosomes. Ions can go from one cell to another in order to transfer electrical impulses at electrical synapses that form between two contacting cells. At electrical synapses, gap junctions rather than desmosomes are the conduits for ions.

(Carefully study the below diagram. Which statement best describes the direction of signal transmission?

a) signals go only from the postsynaptic neuron to presynaptic neuron

b) signals go only from the presynaptic neuron to postsynaptic neuron

c) signals way travel in both directions across a synapse

d) none of these choices)

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osmosis is a specific form of 1. diffusion. 2. pinocytosis. 3. active transport. 4. secondary active transport. 5. movement of water by carrier proteins.

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The correct option here is (a). Osmosis refers to the diffusion of water molecules across a membrane.

Osmosis is a type of passive transport in which water molecules travel through a membrane that is impermeable to the solute from a low solute concentration (high water concentration) to a high solute or low water concentration. Facilitated diffusion is a type of passive transport. 1. Diffusion is an active mode of transport, whereas osmosis is a passive form that leads to equilibrium. 2. Diffusion can happen whether or not a semi-permeable membrane is present, whereas osmosis only takes place in the presence of such a membrane. Osmosis is a particular kind of diffusion that involves the movement of water through a semi-permeable membrane from an area with a high water concentration to one with a low water concentration.

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1:Phosphorus enters the biosphere through the process of ____________ which produces a bioavailable form of the nutrient.
a: phosphorylation
b: phosphorus fixation
c: weathering of phosphorus containing rocks
d: mycorrhizal fixation
2: Decomposers are critical in the nitrogen and phosphorus cycles because they:
a: are responsible for the fixation of the nutrients into a bioavailable form.
b: allow for the cycling of the nutrients within the biosphere.
c: None of these choices are true.
d: are involved in processes that return the nutrients to their major reservoirs.
3: What is the difference between population size and effective population size (Ne)?
a: The effective population size is idealized so that there are more females than males.
b: The effective population size is usually larger than the population size.
c: In effective population size, only the females are counted because you can tell who the offspring are from.
d: In the effective population size, those individuals that do not reproduce are not counted.

Answers

Weathering. Decomposers are critical in the nitrogen and phosphorus cycles because they are responsible for the fixation of the nutrients into a bioavailable form.

Since the main source of phosphorus is found in rocks, the first step of the phosphorus cycle involves the extraction of phosphorus from the rocks by weathering. Weather events, such as rain and other sources of erosion, result in phosphorus being washed into the soil.Effective population size (Ne) is one of the most important parameter in population genetics and conservation biology. It translates census sizes of a real population into the size of an idealized population showing the same rate of loss of genetic diversity as the real population under study.Ne is defined as the size of an ideal Wright–Fisher population exhibiting the same amount of genetic drift and inbreeding as the population under consideration (Wright, 1931). Ne may be complicated to estimate in most populations because of age structure, generation overlap and iteroparity.

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Membrane attack complex (MAC) kills by ________.
A. allowing the organelles to spill free from the bacteria
B. providing a passage for antibodies to enter into the bacterial cytosol
C. penetrating the capsule of the bacteria giving antibiotic drugs access to bacterial cells

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Membrane attack complex (MAC) kills by providing a passage for antibodies to enter into the bacterial cytosol.

What are membrane attack complexes?

Membrane-attack complex and perforin family (MACPF) is a family of mammalian PFPs that function primarily in vertebrate immunity and defense mechanisms.

MACPF, on the other hand, share significant structural similarities with bacterial CDCs, forming giant -barrel pores of 300-350 diameter with distinct stoichiometry of 35-50%.

On the surface of pathogenic bacteria, the MAC forms trans-plasma membrane channels, causing cell lysis and death [34]. Antibodies that bind to specific bacteria-surface carbohydrates first identify and tag the bacteria.

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Drag and drop the labels to the appropriate docks to determine how population size changes. Each dock can receive multiple labels.

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The factors that stimulate an increase in the population size may include the birth rate and migration into the population or immigration.

The factors that stimulate a decrease in the population size may include the death rate and migration out of the population or emigration.

What is the population size?

The population size may be defined as the number of organisms of the same species that are found within a given habitat. The population size of organisms in a habitat area is affected by the following factors:

Birth rate: An increase in births results in an increase in population size whereas a decrease in births results in a decrease in population size. Death rate: An increase in deaths results in a decrease in population size whereas a decrease in deaths results in an increase in population size. Migration: migration into a habitat results in an increase in population size while migration out of a habitat results in a decrease in population size

Therefore, the factors for increasing or decreasing the population size are well described above.

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If you observed that the sperm of a bull could not fuse in a lab dish with the eggs of a cow, you would say that the bull and the cow showed
• hybrid inviability.
• gametic isolation.
• temporal isolation.
• hybrid infertility.
• ecological isolation.

Answers

The correct answer is gametic isolation. the sperm of a bull could not fuse in a lab dish with the eggs of a cow.

Prezygotic barriers come in the form of gametic isolation. When the egg and sperm are discharged but a zygote is not created, gametic isolation occurs. The cell formed when an egg and sperm combine is known as a zygote. The word "gamete" describes reproductive cells like sperm and eggs. The separation between white sage and black sage is among the most known instances of mechanical isolation in plants. The two sage species can't interbreed because they depend on distinct pollinators, although having a similar geographic area.Geographical, temporal, reproductive, and behavioural isolation are a few examples. Two sets of creatures must be incapable of conceiving viable offspring in order for them to be regarded as different species.

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If an allele is_____, only one copy of the allele is needed. if the allele is ____ , two copies are needed.

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If an allele is dominant, only one copy of the allele is needed for it to be expressed in an individual. If the allele is recessive, two copies are needed for it to be expressed in an individual.

A dominant allele is an allele that is expressed in an individual regardless of the presence of another allele on the same gene. This means that if an individual has one dominant allele and one recessive allele, the dominant allele will be expressed in the individual. An example of a dominant allele is the allele for having brown eyes. If an individual has one copy of the brown eye allele, they will have brown eyes regardless of whether they carry another allele for blue eyes or not.

A recessive allele is an allele that is only expressed in an individual when two copies of the allele are present. This means that if an individual has one dominant allele and one recessive allele, the dominant allele will be expressed in the individual and the recessive allele will not. An example of a recessive allele is the allele for having blue eyes. If an individual has one copy of the blue eye allele, they will have brown eyes unless they also have a second copy of the blue eye allele.

The presence of dominant and recessive alleles is the basis for genetic inheritance. Dominant alleles are usually more common than recessive alleles and therefore, the traits associated with dominant alleles are more likely to be expressed in individuals. This means that, in a population, an individual is more likely to have brown eyes than blue eyes.

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Consider your own personality and those of people you know. What traits do you enjoy in

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Some character traits reveal positive aspects of a person's underlying values or beliefs.

generosity.

integrity.

loyalty.

devoted.

loving.

kindness.

sincerity.

self-control.

What is the name of fossil 126

Answers

Answer:

Allosauras is the name of fossil 126

the person who answered this before is correct

Michael has excessively high blood level of ketone bodies, whereas Dave does not. Select all the reasonable explanations for Michael's excessive production of ketone bodies. O Michael's brain produces ketone bodies, which provides energy for his liver. Michael produces large amounts of ketone bodies because he has been severely hypoglycemic for most of the pas few weeks. Michael forms ketone bodies from the products of B-oxidation of fatty acids from stored triacylglycerides and the ingested fish oil. Michael forms ketone bodies from ketogenic amino acids released by protein catabolism.

Answers

So the correct options regarding this question are 2,3,4. As the ketone bodies can be utilized by brain, heart but not the liver despite being able to produce ketone bodies.

Ketone bodies, which are water-soluble molecules, contain the ketone groups produced by the liver from fatty acids (ketogenesis). In organs other than the liver, ketone bodies are transformed into acetyl-CoA (acetyl-Coenzyme A), which enters the Krebs cycle and is ultimately oxidized for energy. The ketone groups produced by the liver include acetoacetic acid (acetoacetate), beta-hydroxybutyrate, and acetone, a result of acetoacetate's spontaneous breakdown. In a number of calorie-restrictive situations, such as hunger, carbohydrate-restricted diets, prolonged intense exercise, and untreated (or inadequately treated) type 1 diabetes mellitus, the liver creates ketone bodies.

The complete question is:

Michael has an excessively high blood level of ketone bodies, whereas Dave does not. Select all the reasonable explanations for Michael's excessive production of ketone bodies.

a) O Michael's brain produces ketone bodies, which provides energy for his liver.

b) Michael produces large amounts of ketone bodies because he has been severely hypoglycemic for most of the past few weeks.

c) Michael forms ketone bodies from the products of B-oxidation of fatty acids from stored triacylglycerides and the ingested fish oil.

d) Michael forms ketone bodies from ketogenic amino acids released by protein catabolism.

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Which of the following activities would have the biggest positive impact on a person's cardiorespiratory fitness?
Select one: A. yoga B. walking C. weightlifting D. push-ups

Answers

A. yoga. Yoga practices outperform other aerobic exercises in some cardiorespiratory fitness metrics, according to current CVD preventive guidelines.

Which exercises strengthen the heart and lungs?

Exercises that are "pure" aerobic exercises include walking, jogging, running, cycling, swimming, aerobics, rowing, stair climbing, hiking, cross-country skiing, and many styles of dancing. Sports like tennis, basketball, and soccer can help you get better cardiovascular shape.

Does yoga increase your ability to run?

Yoga is equivalent to modest levels of physical activity, according to a clinical experiment that was published in 2007 in BMC Complementary and Alternative Medicine, and is insufficient to increase cardiovascular fitness.

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Match the type of receptor with the appropriate description.
A. chemoreceptors
B. touch receptors
C. thermoreceptors
D. nociceptors

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The type of receptor that activated by intense stimuli of any type that results in tissue damage is chemoreceptors (A).

What are the 5 types of sensory receptors?Receptor is a protein that can bind to a small molecule to receive a message from other cells. Sensory receptors are categorized into five types according to their sensitivities, are, chemoreceptors, pain receptors, thermoreceptors, mechanoreceptors, and photoreceptors.The intensity of the sensory input to the brain is referred to as stimulus intensity. A stimulus has a threshold, or the minimum degree of intensity required for detection and action. For example, there is a minimum threshold for being able to hear something. If it is too quiet, you would not realize that the stimulus is there.

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A stratified squamous epithelium is a stratified epithelium with squamous (flattened and scale-like) epithelial cells in the top layer.

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A single thin layer of flattened cells to irregular boundaries makes up simple squamous epithelium. Those who line the walls of blood vessels and the lungs' air sacs. They also participate in physiological processes such as osmosis and diffusion.

A stratified squamous epithelium is a stratified epithelium with squamous (flattened and scale-like) epithelial cells in the topmost layer. Cuboidal or columnar cells may be found in the deeper layers. Some stratified squamous epithelia are heavily keratinized, while others are barely or not at all.

Squamous cells are thin, flat cells that resemble fish scales and are found in the skin's surface, the lining of hollow organs, and the lining of a respiratory and digestive tracts.  Protective functions of stratified squamous epithelium include protection against microorganisms invading underlying tissue and/or protection against water loss. A single basal layer contains stem cells, 2-3 layers of proliferative basaloid cells in the suprabasal region, as well as larger keratinized cells near the surface.

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a temperature much higher than the optimal temperature for a particular enzyme is likely to the activity and reaction rate of the enzyme due to in the size and shape of the enzyme's active site.
a. true
b. false

Answers

False a temperature significantly higher than the ideal temperature for a specific enzyme is likely to affect the enzyme's activity & reaction rate due to differences in the active site's size and shape.

What does the word "enzyme" mean?

A component known as an enzyme works as a catalysts in living things to speed up chemical reactions without undergoing any changes. Enzymes manage the majority of the chemical reactions that make up the biological activities that take place inside of all living things.

How do enzymes operate?

Reduced activation energy, or the quantity of energy required for a reaction to start, is a crucial function of enzymes. In order to facilitate the bond-forming and bond-breaking processes in chemical reactions, reactant molecules must bind to enzymes in order for them to hold the reactant molecules.

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hich of the following statements regarding domestic dogs is false? dogs originated in east asia. dogs of different breeds can be identified through genetic analysis. shar-pei and akita are genetically very similar to the wolf. all dogs are descended from wolves. humans have bred dogs for thousands of years.

Answers

The following statement regarding domestic dogs that dogs of different breeds can be identified through genetic analysis is false.

Thus, the correct answer is B.

The correct statement is mаny genetic tests for dogs seаrch for pаtterns of SNPs.

What are domesticated animals?

Domesticаted аnimаls аre аnimаls thаt hаve been selectively bred аnd geneticаlly аdаpted over generаtions to live аlongside humаns. They аre geneticаlly distinct from their wild аncestors or cousins.

Domestic dogs аre dogs thаt hаve been tаmed аnd trаined by humаns. Аll domestic dogs аre relаted to wolves. Humаns begаn to tаme wolves аnd mаke them their compаnions аbout 12,000 yeаrs аgo. Over the yeаrs, dogs were kept аs hunting, herding, аnd guаrd dogs. They were аlso used in sport аnd for compаnionship, аs pets.

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genetically encoding luorosulfate-l-tyrosine to react with lysine, histidine, and tyrosine via sufex in proteins in vivo.

Answers

The SO2F2/borax technique produced an 88% yield when  luorosulfate-l-tyrosine to react with lysine, histidine, and tyrosine via sufex in proteins in vivo. FSY was synthesized.We developed a mutant PylRS (pyrrolysyl-tRNA synthetase specialized for FSY) to genetically encode FSY. Using the small-intelligent mutagenesis method16 and selection as outlined, a PylRS mutant library was created by altering the residues Ala302, Leu305, Tyr306, Leu309, Ile322, Asn346, Cys348, Tyr384, Val401, and Tyrosine  ,Trp417 of the Methanosarcina mazei PylRS. 17 There were six hits that demonstrated FSY-dependent phenotype;

A number of amino acids are combined to create any protein. This amino acid is positioned according to the DNA sequences; for every three sequences, an amino acid is generated, hence it is known as a triplet codon. Since there may be several sequences for a single amino acid, we refer to this as a degenerate codon.Tyrosine is a non-essential amino acid that the body creates from phenylalanine, another amino acid. It is a crucial ingredient in the synthesis of several significant neurotransmitters, such as epinephrine, norepinephrine, and dopamine.

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You are working as a marine scientist. When you arrive at work, you notice some new water samples that a colleague left on your desk. You notice the containers are unlabelled...arrgh!...so you decide to run some analyses to see if you can determine where the samples were taken. The tests reveal that all the samples are extremely low in nitrates and other nutrients. This leads you to conclude that the samples probably came from which of the following?

Answers

The tests revealing that all the samples are extremely low in nitrates and other nutrients lead marine scientist to conclude that these samples probably came from A: An area of the open ocean beyond the continental shelf.

Marine scientists undertake research into the sea and study its relationship with seafloors, animal life, plants, the earth's crust, the land, coastal areas, and the atmosphere.

In the given scenario where marine scientist finds some new water samples that extremely lack nitrates and other nutrients. This extreme lacking level of nitrates and nutrients in the samples makes the marine scientist build the opinion that these samples have been brought from the open ocean area away from the continental shelf. Because areas such as coral reefs, estuaries, areas of upwelling, and areas along the continental shelf all involve high nutrient and nitrates input and productivity.

"

Complete question is:

You are working as a marine scientist. When you arrive at work, you notice some new water samples that a colleague left on your desk. You notice the containers are unlabelled...arrgh!...so you decide to run some analyses to see if you can determine where the samples were taken. The tests reveal that all the samples are extremely low in nitrates and other nutrients. This leads you to conclude that the samples probably came from which of the following?

A. An area of open ocean beyond the continental shelf

B. An area of open ocean along with the continental shelf

C. The areas of coral reefs and estuaries

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Some antimicrobials are initially synthesized by a microorganism and then modified by pharmaceutical companies to improve their properties. These would be referred to as a)semisynthetics. b)antibiotics. c)chemosynthetic agents. d)synthetics.

Answers

The correct answer is  b)antibiotics. Some antimicrobials are initially synthesized by a microorganism and then modified by pharmaceutical companies to improve their properties.

Antibiotics are drugs used to treat bacterial illnesses in both people and animals. They do this by either killing the germs or by making it harder for them to develop and reproduce. Germs are bacteria. They are everywhere in our bodies, both inside and outside, and in the surroundings. The most common varieties of antibiotics are: Penicillins, such as flucloxacillin, amoxicillin, and phenoxymethylpenicillin. Cephalosporins, such as cefadroxil, cefalexin, and cefaclor. Tetracyclines, such as doxycycline, lymecycline, and tetracycline. One of the strongest antibiotics ever developed is vancomycin 3.0. It is used to treat illnesses like endocarditis, joint infections, bloodstream infections, and skin infections brought on by methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus.

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2. Which are the three main sources of water pollution?
O municipal, industrial, oil spills
O agricultural, thermal, domestic
O agricultural, municipal, industrial
agricultural, thermal, oil spills

Answers

While farms and fossil fuel power plants are the main causes of diffuse pollution, sewage and waste water treatment are the main point sources of pollution to water (via the air).

What are the top 3 pollutant kinds that have an impact on water quality?

Groundwater pollution, surface water pollution, suspended matter, oil spills, microbiological pollution, chemical water pollution, thermal pollution, and oxygen-depleting pollution are the main types of water pollution. All of them have the potential to introduce toxins and pollutants into our waterways.

What causes water contamination primarily?

Pollutants that contaminate water sources make the water unsafe for drinking, cooking, cleaning, swimming, and other uses. This is known as water contamination. All types of pollution inevitably have an impact.

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Answer:

C. agricultural, municipal, industrial

Explanation:

Hope this helps you

C is right I did the quiz

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