Answer:
he35
Explanation:
h
The following information is taken from the accounts of Latta Company. The entries in the T-accounts are summaries of the transactions that affected those accounts during the year. Manufacturing Overhead (a) 486,144 (b) 405,120 Bal. 81,024 Work in Process Bal. 10,880 (c) 754,000 298,500 90,500 (b) 405,120 Bal. 51,000 Finished Goods Bal. 39,000 (d) 662,000 (c) 754,000 Bal. 131,000 Cost of Goods Sold (d) 662,000 The overhead that had been applied to production during the year is distributed among Work in Process, Finished Goods, and Cost of Goods Sold as of the end of the year as follows: Work in Process, ending $ 24,480 Finished Goods, ending 62,880 Cost of Goods Sold 317,760 Overhead applied $ 405,120 For example, of the $51,000 ending balance in work in process, $24,480 was overhead that had been applied during the year. Required: 1. Identify reasons for entries (a) through (d). 2. Assume that the underapplied or overapplied overhead is closed to Cost of Goods Sold. Prepare the necessary journal entry. 3. Assume that the underapplied or overapplied overhead is closed proportionally to Work in Process, Finished Goods, and Cost of Goods Sold. Prepare the necessary journal entry.
Answer and Explanation:
As per the data given in the question,
1.
a) Cost of goods manufactured.
b) Cost of goods sold.
c) Overhead cost applied to work in process
d) Actual manufacturing overhead cost.
2. Journal Entry
Manufacturing overhead A/c Dr. 81,024
To cost of goods sold A/c. 81,024
3.
Work in process ending $24,480 =6.04%
Finished goods ending $62,880 =15.52%
Cost of goods sold $317,760 =78.44%
Total cost $405.120 =100%
To calculate overhead allocation :
Work in process ending = ($81,024× 6.04%) =$4,894
Finished goods ending = ($81,024 × 15.52%) =$12,575
Cost of goods sold = ($81,024 × 78.44%) = $63,355
Total cost = $81,024
Journal Entry
Manufacturing overhead A/c Dr. 81,024
To work in process A/c. $4,893
To finished goods A/c. $12,575
To cost of goods sold A/c. $63,555
Which of the following is the most likely negative consequence of excessive change in an organization? Group of answer choices Staff being asked to do too much Staff being restricted to a single activity The operation of the organization at less than capacity The establishment of a system for prioritizing projects
Answer:
Staff being asked to do too much.
Explanation:
Excessive change in an organization is defined as a process when organizations pursue several differing, unrelated and sometimes changes that are conflicting simultaneously. It can also be, when an organization involves in introducing new changes before previous changes are being accomplished.
Additionally, when staffs or employees perceives change as being excessive, they react in various ways. Some of their reactions to excessive change includes;
• They become overwhelmed.
• Lack of motivation.
• They're stressed out.
• Frustration and anger builds among them.
• Inadequacy, uncertainty
and incompetence.
The lower level staffs and middle managers are most likely to experience, the negative consequence of excessive change in an organization because they're being asked to do too much.
Brownley Company has two service departments and two operating (production) departments. The Payroll Department services all three of the other departments in proportion to the number of employees in each. The Maintenance Department costs are allocated to the two operating departments in proportion to the floor space used by each. Listed below are the operating data for the current period: Service Depts. Production Depts. Payroll Maintenance Cutting Assembly Direct costs $ 20,400 $ 25,500 $ 76,500 $ 105,400 No. of personnel 15 15 45 Sq. ft. of space 10,000 15,000 The total cost of operating the Maintenance Department for the current period is:
Answer:
The total cost of operating the Maintenance Department for the current period is $29,580
Explanation:
In order to calculate The total cost of operating the Maintenance Department for the current period we would have to calculate first the Overhead allocated to Maintenance from Payroll department as follows:
Overhead allocated=Payroll overhead×(Maintenance payroll personnel/Total personnel)
Overhead allocated=$ 20,400×(15/15+15+45)
Overhead allocated=$4,080
Therefore, to calculate the The total cost of operating the Maintenance Department for the current period we would have to use the following formula:
Total cost of operating Maintenance Department=Overhead allocated+Direct overhead incurred
Total cost of operating Maintenance Department=$4,080+$25,500
Total cost of operating Maintenance Department=$29,580
The total cost of operating the Maintenance Department for the current period is $29,580
Which of the following statement(s) is(are) true regarding municipal bonds? I) A municipal bond is a debt obligation issued by state or local governments. II) A municipal bond is a debt obligation issued by the federal government. III) The interest income from a municipal bond is exempt from federal income taxation. IV) The interest income from a municipal bond is exempt from state and local taxation in the issuing state.
Answer:
I, III and IV Only.
Explanation:
A municipal bond is explained to be a debt obligation issued by a nonprofit organization, a private-sector corporation or another public entity using the loan for public projects such as constructing schools, hospitals and highways.
A municipal bond is categorized based on the source of its interest payments and principal repayments. A bond can be structured in different ways offering various benefits, risks and tax treatments. Income generated by a municipal bond may be taxable.
Answer: I) A municipal bond is a debt obligation issued by state or local governments.
III) The interest income from a municipal bond is exempt from federal income taxation.
IV) The interest income from a municipal bond is exempt from state and local taxation in the issuing state.
Explanation:
A municipal bond is usually a debt security issued by a state, or local government to finance its capital expenditures, which usually includes the construction of Roads, Bridges or Institutions( schools ). They can be considered as loans that an investor gives to local governments. This kind of bonds are exempted from federal taxes and most state and local taxes, Which makes them very attractive to interested individuals who are on high income tax brackets.
Wicker Rockers, Inc. is planning to offer a defined contribution plan for its employees. The company would like to incorporate a "cliff" vesting schedule for the employer contributions into the plan. What is the minimum vesting period the company can choose for a "cliff" vesting schedule
Answer:3 years
Explanation:
Cliff vesting is when an employee of a company becomes fully vested on a specified date rather than the employee becoming partially vested in increasing amounts over extended period. Cliff Vesting is a process whereby the employees are entitled to full benefits from their firm’s pension policies and qualified retirement plans on a given date.
Upon the completion of the cliff period, employees receive full benefits. The Pension Protection Act of 2006 deduced a three-year cliff vesting schedule for the designated defined-contribution plans which includes 401Ks.
The predetermined overhead rate for Zane Company is $5, comprised of a variable overhead rate of $3 and a fixed rate of $2. The amount of budgeted overhead costs at normal capacity of $150000 was divided by normal capacity of 30000 direct labor hours, to arrive at the predetermined overhead rate of $5. Actual overhead for June was $9500 variable and $6050 fixed, and standard hours allowed for the product produced in June was 3000 hours. The total overhead variance is
Answer:
Total Overhead Variance= $500 unfavorable
Explanation:
The total overhead variance is the difference between actual overhead and the applied overhead.
Actual Overhead = Variable + Fixed= $9500 + $6050= $ 15,550
Budgeted Overhead for 30000 direct labor hours = $ 150,000
Applied Overhead for 3000 hours = 3000 *$5= $15000
Total Overhead Variance= Actual Overhead Less Applied Overhead
= $15,500- $ 15000= $500 unfavorable
As actual is greater than applied it is unfavorable.
Answer:
$550 unfavorable.
Explanation:
Total actual overhead = $9,500 + $6,050 = $15,550
Total predetermined overhead = Predetermined overhead rate * Standard hours = $5 * 3,000 = $15,000
Total overhead variance = $15,550 - $15,000 = $550 unfavorable.
Note: It is unfavorable because total actual is greater than total predetermined overhead.
Running Co. had an equity investment where it owned less than 20% of an investee, and therefore Running Co. was not able to exercise significant influence. Information about the investment is below: 20X1 20X2 Investment cost 170,000 170,000 Fair value 181,400 155,000 Total unrealized gain (loss) 11,400 (15,000) The company sold the investment during 20X3 for the below price: Sales price 192,400 What is the gain (loss) recorded in the income statement in the year of sale, in 20X3
Answer:
Gain or Loss to be reocrded in Financial Statement: 151600 - 155000= 3400 loss to be booked as Fair value recorded in the books as in year ended 20X2 is 155000.
Bob, Kara, and Mark are partners in the BKM Partnership. Bob is a 40% partner and has a June 30 tax yearminus−end. Kara owns a 40% interest in the partnership and has a September 30 tax yearminus−end, and Mark owns the remaining 20% interest and has an October 31 tax yearminus−end. The partnership does not have a natural business year. What is the required tax yearminus−end for the partnership (if no Sec. 444 election is made)? A. September 30 B. October 31 C. December 31 D. June 30
Answer:
D. June 30
Explanation:
Since no Sec. 444 election is made, the required tax yearmius-end for the partnership will be the tax yearminus−end of a partner with at least 40% interest.
Since Bob is a 40% partner and has a June 30 tax yearminus−end, therefore, the required tax yearminus−end for the partnership is June 30.
Crowl Corporation is investigating automating a process by purchasing a machine for $793,800 that would have a 9-year useful life and no salvage value. By automating the process, the company would save $133,000 per year in cash operating costs. The new machine would replace some old equipment that would be sold for scrap now, yielding $21,200. The annual depreciation on the new machine would be $88,200. The simple rate of return on the investment is closest to
a. 5.80%
b. 11.12%
c. 16.72%
d. 5.12%
Answer:
Simple rate of return is 5.8%
Therefore option (a) is correct option.
Explanation:
It is given that purchase cost = $793800
Company saving per year = $133000
Yielding = $21200
Annual depreciation = $88200
Annual profit = $133000 - $88200 = $44800
Net investment is equal to = $793800 - $21200 = $772600
Simple rate of return [tex]=\frac{44800}{772600}=0.0579[/tex]
= 5.8%
Therefore simple rate of return is 5.8 %
So option (a) is correct.
