BRAINLIEST FOR CORRECT ANSWER

Answer:

585 is the answer of your question.

Step-by-step explanation:

because formula is

Mp _ d% of mp

Answer:

I answered your question . Hope this helps.

Answer:

aslo bien jjjjjjj

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

answer is - 1

Step-by-step explanation:

- x + y = 3

x = 4

- ( - 4 ) + y = 3

4 + y = 3. take 4 to the right

y = 3 - 4

y = - 1

I hope this answers your question.

I am not understanding the language

Answer:

its Vietnamese

Step-by-step explanation:

I just dont understand what that type of math is? sorry ):

Answer:

Hello,

Step-by-step explanation:

n! + (n-1)!

=(n-1)! * n+ (n-1)!

=(n-1)! * (n+1)

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

As we know all primes but 2 are odd numbers.

It means sum of any 3 primes not including 2 is odd.

Since we have sum of 202, one of our primes is 2.

Sum of the other two primes is 200.

In order to have maximum value of p*(200 - p) these two numbers must be closer to each other. So we are looking for two primes around 100.

We can test all primes less than 200:

The 3 primes with max product are:

The value is:

Answer:

5n

Step-by-step explanation:

cost of one helmet = $5

let 'n' be the number of person that is n=1,2,3,4........

note that the value of n is always a natural number

therefore the expression = 5n

where 5 is the cost one helmet

n is the number of persons

Answer:

a2 – b2 = (a – b)(a + b)

(a + b)2 = a2 + 2ab + b2

a2 + b2 = (a + b)2 – 2ab

(a – b)2 = a2 – 2ab + b2

(a + b + c)2 = a2 + b2 + c2 + 2ab + 2bc + 2ca

(a – b – c)2 = a2 + b2 + c2 – 2ab + 2bc – 2ca

(a + b)3 = a3 + 3a2b + 3ab2 + b3 ; (a + b)3 = a3 + b3 + 3ab(a + b)

(a – b)3 = a3 – 3a2b + 3ab2 – b3 = a3 – b3 – 3ab(a – b)

a3 – b3 = (a – b)(a2 + ab + b2)

a3 + b3 = (a + b)(a2 – ab + b2)

(a + b)4 = a4 + 4a3b + 6a2b2 + 4ab3 + b4

(a – b)4 = a4 – 4a3b + 6a2b2 – 4ab3 + b4

a4 – b4 = (a – b)(a + b)(a2 + b2)

a5 – b5 = (a – b)(a4 + a3b + a2b2 + ab3 + b4

Answer:

a2 – b2 = (a – b)(a + b)

(a + b)2 = a2 + 2ab + b2

a2 + b2 = (a + b)2 – 2ab

(a – b)2 = a2 – 2ab + b2

(a + b + c)2 = a2 + b2 + c2 + 2ab + 2bc + 2ca

(a – b – c)2 = a2 + b2 + c2 – 2ab + 2bc – 2ca

(a + b)3 = a3 + 3a2b + 3ab2 + b3 ; (a + b)3 = a3 + b3 + 3ab(a + b)

(a – b)3 = a3 – 3a2b + 3ab2 – b3 = a3 – b3 – 3ab(a – b)

a3 – b3 = (a – b)(a2 + ab + b2)

a3 + b3 = (a + b)(a2 – ab + b2)

(a + b)4 = a4 + 4a3b + 6a2b2 + 4ab3 + b4

(a – b)4 = a4 – 4a3b + 6a2b2 – 4ab3 + b4

a4 – b4 = (a – b)(a + b)(a2 + b2)

a5 – b5 = (a – b)(a4 + a3b + a2b2 + ab3 + b4)

Answer:

-0.5 > -7/11

Step-by-step explanation:

-7/11 = -0.636

-0.5>0.6

Step-by-step explanation:

(2+3)(2-3)

=5×(-1)

= -5

good morning

have a great day

Answer:

6, 7

Step-by-step explanation:

6 x 7 = 42

Answer:

20

Step-by-step explanation:

(6x3=18)  (6x1/3=2)  (18+2=20)

First things first!

Multiply 6 by 3 (18).

Mulitply 6 by 1/3 (2).

Add 18 and 2, and ... *drum roll*, the final answer is 20!

Hope this helps :)

Answer:

5.9

Step-by-step explanation:

14 degrees dropped in 4 3/4, in one hour 56/19 degrees will drop. In two hours, 112/19=5.9 degrees will drop

Answer:

A. (Pay as you go) $120 B. (Regular deal) $90 C. (All-in-one price!) $100 D. The "Regular deal" option would be the least expensive for Carl.

Step-by-step explanation:

If Carl does the "Pay as you go" option he would be charged $6 each time. If he works out 20 times a month, we can multiply 20 by 6 to get a total of $120 for that option.

If Carl does the "Regular deal" option he would be charged $50 + an additional $2 for each time he works out. From there, we can get the equation 2x + 50 where x is the amount of time he works out. If we plug in 20 for x (as he works out 20 times a month), we get 2(20) + 50 which equals a total of $90 for that option.

If Carl does the "All-in-one Price!" option he would be charged $100 for the whole month meaning he has unlimited use of the gym with no extra charge besides the $100.

The cheapest option is the "Regular deal" option as it charges $90 compared to the $100 for the "All-in-one Price!" option & the $120 for the "Pay as you go" option.

Answer:

B

Step-by-step explanation:

Values of y are decreasing where x is in the range (-4;02)

Answer:

3x^2y^2

Step-by-step explanation:

I think:

3*2*x*x*x*y*y*y*y

3*3*x*x*y*y

3*6*x*x*x*y*y

They all have 3x^2y^2 in common.

Answer:

The bigger angle is 144 degrees and the smaller one is 36 degrees

Answer:

The ratio of senior members to junior members at the company is 1 : 3

Step-by-step explanation:

The given average number of years of experience of the senior employees, x = 16 years

The given average number of years of experience of the junior employees, y = 7 years

Let a represent the number of senior employees in the company, and let b represent the number of junior workers in the company, we have;

(16·a + 4·b)/(a + b) = 7

∴ (16·a + 4·b) = (a + b) × 7 = 7·a + 7·b

16·a - 7·a = 7·b - 4·b

9·a = 3·b

a/b = 3/9 = 1/3

a/b = 1/3

The above equation, expressed as a ratio is, a : b = 1 : 3

Therefore;

The ratio of senior members to junior members at the company, a : b = 1 : 3.

Answer:

Total = x+3 kg

Step-by-step explanation:

Green apples = x kg, Red apples = 3 kg

Answer:

The Constant is 9/2

In the equation for surface area the radius is squared ( r^2)

If the radius is doubled, the radius would be 2^2 more which equals 4

The surface area would be 4 times the old surface area.

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

Xét tam giác DAB có: P là trung điểm AD, M là trung điểm AB

=> MP là đường trung bình của tam giác DAB => MP//BD và MP=[tex]\frac{1}{2}[/tex]BD  (1)

Xét tam giác DBC có: N là trung điểm DC, Q là trung điểm BC

=> QN là đường trung bình của tam giác DBC => QN//BD và QN=[tex]\frac{1}{2}[/tex]BD  (2)

Từ (1) và (2) => vecto MP song song cùng chiều với vecto QN

và độ dài MP = độ dài QN = [tex]\frac{1}{2}[/tex]BD

=> vecto MP = vecto QN

Tương tự xét các tam giác DAC và tam giác ABC => vecto MQ = vecto PN

Answer:

2x^2 + 9x - 4

18x^2 - 3x - 10

Step-by-step explanation:

use foil method

Answer:

The essence of Mathematics lies in its freedom

Step-by-step explanation:

Soln

Given

Cp of 1 glass tumbler=80.1000

=Rs 80000

Number of broken glass tumbler=50

Number of remaining glass tumbler=1000-50

=950

Sp of one glass tumbler=96

Sp of 950 glass tumbler=96.950

=91200

Now

Sp > Cp so it is profit

Profit%=sp-cp/cp.100

=91200-80000/80000.100

=11200/80000.100

=14%

Answer:

14%profit

Step-by-step explanation:

Cost of 1000 tumblers=1000×80=80,000

50 of them were broken: 1000-50=950

: He sells 950 tumblers of rs.96 each= ( 950×96)

S.P=91200

We can clearly see he gains for rs.11200.

P%=gain/C.P×100

11200×80000×100

=14%

Answer:

LCM of 4 and 10 is 20

Step-by-step explanation:

yes that is the answer

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

Factor 4 and 10 into primes

4: 2 * 2

10:2 * 5

Number of 2s = 2 twos

Number of 5s = 1 five

LCM of 4 and 10 = 4 * 5 = 20

Answer:

Below

Step-by-step explanation:

To find the volume of a sphere you can use this formula!

     V = 4/3πr^3

Plugging in the values....

V = 4/3π(49.5)^3

V = 5.08047 × 10^5

V = 5.1 x 10^5 in^3

If you wanted to write this is standard form it would be

V = 508047 in^3

Hope this helps!

Answer: Third Choice. Thousandths

Step-by-step explanation:

Concept:

Here, we need to know the order and name of each place value.

Please refer to the attachment below for the specified names.

Solve:

STEP ONE: Orde and name each place

2 ⇒ One Thousands

4 ⇒ Hundreds

5 ⇒ Tens

6 ⇒ Ones

.

1 ⇒ Tenths

3 ⇒ Hundredths

8 ⇒ One Thousandths

7 ⇒ Ten Thousandths

STEP TWO: Find the number [8] in the number

As we can see from the list above, 8 is at the right of the decimal point, thus, the place value is Thousandths.

Hope this helps!! :)

Please let me know if you have any questions