Below are the account balances for Cowboy Law Firm at the end of December.
Accounts Balances
Cash $5,000
Salaries expense 2,000
Accounts payable 3,000
Retained earnings 4,000
Utilities expense 1,100
Supplies 13,400
Service revenue 8,900
Common stock 5,600
Required:
Use only the appropriate accounts to prepare an income statement.

Answer:

Correct Answer:

invest in the minimum standard deviation portfolio and, in addition, only in risky securities.

Explanation:

For an investor aiming to invest in a portfolio so that, his minimum standard deviation would lie towards the optimal right, he or she would need to invest in extremely risky securities. And, also, there will be need to maintain minimum standard deviation portfolio.

Answer:

Total future value= $408,334.38

Explanation:

Giving the following information:

A couple thinking about retirement decide to put aside $3,000 each year in a savings plan that earns 8% interest. In 5 years they will receive a gift of $10,000 that also can be invested.

First, we will determine the future value of the annual deposit investment. We need to use the following formula:

FV= {A*[(1+i)^n-1]}/i

A= annual deposit

FV= {3,000*[(1.08^30) - 1]} / 0.08

FV= $339,849.63

Now, for the $10,000:

FV= PV*(1+i)^n

FV= 10,000*(1.08^25)

FV= $68,484.75

Total future value= 339,849.63 + 68,484.75

Total future value= $408,334.38

Answer:

B. Project A

Explanation:

Coefficient of variation=standard deviation/expected return value

Project A:

Coefficient of variation=$173,000/$310,000= 0.558  

Project B:

Coefficient of variation=$413,000/$676,000=  0.611  

Project C:

Coefficient of variation=$120,000/$163,000=0.736

Project D:

Coefficient of variation=$101,000/$134,000=0.754

The Project A has the lowest rate of risk per unit of return, hence, it is the preferred choice of investment

Answer:

For   Countries (per capita)          United States of America (per capita)

Ethiopia:        

$380                                               $48,468

Mexico:                                          

$9,271                                             $48,468

India:

$1,358                                             $48,468

Japan:

$44,508                                          $48,468

Explanation:

Ratio per Capita also known as Gross Domestic Product per Capita (GDP Capita) is the monetary measure of the market value of all the final goods and services produced in a specific time period within the country in view. It is useful for comparing national economies of different countries on the international market.

Answer:

11.76%

Explanation:

The computation of the Weighted average cost of capital (WACC) is shown below:

= Weightage of debt × cost of debt × ( 1 - tax rate)+ (Weightage of  common stock) × (cost of common stock)

= (0.76 ÷ 1.76 × 9%) × ( 1 - 21%) +  (1 ÷ 1.76 × 15.3%)

= 3.07% + 8.69%

= 11.76%

Hence, the WACC is 11.76%

We simply multiplied the weight of capital stucture with its cost

Answer:

Firm J's margin= 8.3%

Firm J's turnover= 2

Firm J's ROI= 16.6%

Explanation:

Form J has a net income of $77,605

The sales is $935,000

The average total assets is $467,500

Firm J's margin can be calculated as follows

Margin= Net income/sales

= $77,605/$935,000

= 0.083×100

= 8.3%

Firm J's turnover can be calculated as follows

Turnover= Sales/Average Total assets

= $935,000/$467,500

= 2

Firm J's return on investment can be calculated as follows

ROI= Net income/Average Total assets

= $77,605/$467,500

= 0.166×100

= 16.6%

Hence Firm J's margin, turnover and return on investment is 8.3%, 2 and 16.6% respectively.

Answer:

The LOWEST acceptable transfer price is $18 the Tire Division's variable cost per tire.

The HIGHEST acceptable transfer price is $75the Tire Division's market price.

Explanation:

Calculation for the lowest acceptable transfer price and the highest acceptable transfer price

Variable Cost per tire:

Direct Material $15

Conversion cost $3

=$18 per tire

The LOWEST acceptable transfer price is $18 Tire division variable cost per tire

Based on the information we were told that the market price per tire is $75 which means that the HIGHEST transfer price is $75 tire division market price.

Therefore If Graham Motors has a negotiated transfer price policy The LOWEST acceptable transfer price is $18 the Tire Division's variable cost per tire While The HIGHEST acceptable transfer price is $75 the Tire Division's market price.

Answer:

Alternative depreciation system (ADS depreciation) per year:

Year                     %                     depreciation expense

1                           8.32%              $24,960

2                          16.67%             $50,010

3                          16.67%             $50,010

4                          16.67%             $50,010

5                          16.67%             $50,010

6                          16.67%             $50,010

7                           8.33%             $24,990

General depreciation system (GDS depreciation) or MACRS per year:

Year                     %                     depreciation expense

1                            20%                $60,000

2                           32%                $96,000

3                           19.20%            $57,600

4                           11.52%             $34,560

5                           11.52%             $34,560

6                           5.76%              $17,280

Answer:

The real exchange rates that would result from the two nominal exchange rates are:

For the first row in the table RER is 6.

For the second row in the table RER is 9.

Note: See the attached excel file for the table.

Explanation:

Note: The table in the question is merged together. It is therefore sorted before answering the question. See the attached excel file for the sorted table.

The answer to the explanation to the answer is now provided as follows:

The real exchange rate (RER) between the the currencies of two counties can be described as the multiplication of the nominal exchange and the ratio of baskets of goods between these two countries.

RER can can therefore be calculated using the following formula:

RER = (e * P*) / P ................................. (1)

Where, from the question;

e = Nominal exchange rate or Yuan per dollar

P* = Cost of Basket in U.S (Dollars)  

P = Cost of Basket in China (Yuan)

For the first row in the table:

e = Nominal exchange rate or Yuan per dollar = 7

P* = Cost of Basket in U.S (Dollars)  = $90

P = Cost of Basket in China (Yuan) = 105

Substituting the values into equation (1), we have:

RER = (7 * 90) / 105

RER = 630 / 105

RER = 6

For the second row in the table:

e = Nominal exchange rate or Yuan per dollar = 10.50

P* = Cost of Basket in U.S (Dollars)  = $90

P = Cost of Basket in China (Yuan) = 105

Substituting the values into equation (1), we have:

RER = (10.50 * 90) / 105

RER = 945 / 105

RER = 9

The real exchange rates that should lead from the two nominal exchange rates should be 6 and 9.

RER = (e * P*) / P ................................. (1)

Here,

e = Nominal exchange rate or Yuan per dollar

P* = Cost of Basket in U.S (Dollars)  

P = Cost of Basket in China (Yuan)

So,

e = Nominal exchange rate or Yuan per dollar = 7

P* = Cost of Basket in U.S (Dollars)  = $90

P = Cost of Basket in China (Yuan) = 105

Now

RER = (7 * 90) / 105

RER = 630 / 105

RER = 6

Now

e = Nominal exchange rate or Yuan per dollar = 10.50

P* = Cost of Basket in U.S (Dollars)  = $90

P = Cost of Basket in China (Yuan) = 105

So,

RER = (10.50 * 90) / 105

RER = 945 / 105

RER = 9

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Answer:

c. By using the Select Data button and the Select Data Source option

Explanation:

A scatter plot is a plot which is used to plot the points of the data on the horizontal and the vertical axis also it depicts how one variable is affected by the another.

After preparing the scatter plot to enter the data in the scatter plot we need to use the data button and then data source option so that the data could be entered in the scatter plot

hence, option c is correct

Answer:

12.38% decrease

Explanation:

Given the following parameters

6%

Number of years = 12

Market yield I= 6 === 4.5

Present Value = 916.16 == 1045.59

PMT (annuity payment) = 50 (5%x1000)

Future value = 1000

Therefore, to solve for the percentage change, we have in the price of this bond in this situation, we have (916.16-1045.59) / 1045.59 = -0.1238

Hence, 12.38% decrease is the percentage change in the price of this bond if the market yield rises to 6% from the current yield of 4.5%,

The percentage change in the price of this bond will be -12.38%.

The price of the bond at 4.5% is calculated thus:

The price of the bond at 6.0% is calculated thus:

The percentage change in price will be:

= (916.16 - 1045.59) / 1045.59

= -12.38%

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Answer:

Out the money.

Explanation:

A PHLX Jan 80 Swiss Franc Call contract is quoted at 2 when the Swiss Franc closes at 77. The contract is out the money.

An out the money ultimately implies that an option only has an extrinsic value but no intrinsic value. The extrinsic value of an option refers to the difference between its intrinsic value and the market value (premium). An extrinsic value is affected by the volatility in the market and its time value. The intrinsic value of an asset refers to the calculated, true or real value of an asset and is solely affected by internal factors.

A call is out the money when the strike price is greater than or above the underlying price of an asset. This simply means that, it's market value (price) has fallen below its strike price.

In this scenario, the market price of the call is 77 while its strike price is 80; thus, the call option is out the money by 3.

Answer:

1a. $2.67 cost per unit

1b. $0.3 cost per unit

1c. Yes

Explanation:

1a. Calculation for what will be the inspection cost per unit If an inspector is hired

The following details were given in the question.

Defective average =3/100= 0.03

inspection rate = 30 per hour

Cost of inspector = 8 per hour

Correction cost = $10 each

Using this formula

Hired inspector =Cost per hour/Current production rate per hour

Let plug in the formula

Hired inspector=8 per hour/30 rate per hour

Hired inspector =0.267×100

Hired inspector=$2.67 cost per unit

1b. Calculation for what will be the defective cost per unit If an inspector is not hired

Using this Formula

No inspector=Defect rate %/Cost per defective

Let plug in the formula

No inspector= 3/100×$10

No inspector= $0.3 cost per unit

1c. Based on the above calculation the inspector should be hired.

Answer:

I have to identify the risk factors in the project and then gauge the willingness of the company to take such risks.

Explanation:

Risk tolerance is the willingness of an organization or an individual to take certain risks. The risk tolerance level of a person or organization can be classified as either high or low. For a project manager who wants to determine the risk tolerances associated with his project, he has to first identify the risk factors, and then try to know the risk level and if indeed this level is acceptable within the organization's culture and standard.

The project manager would do well to plot a graph that would show the probability of a risky action happening or not. A risk tolerance line is now obtained from where the project manager can know if that risk is tolerable by organization standards. The extent of job security would also help in determining the amount of risk a manager can take. However, they are still expected to stay within the standards of the organization.

Answer:

Net operating income= $242,506.6

Explanation:

Giving the following information:

Earnings before interest and taxes= $237,884

Depreciation expense= $87,882.

Tax rate= 35%

To calculate the net operating profit, we need to use the following structure:

EBIT= 237,884

Tax= (237,884*0.35)= (83,259.4)

Depreciation= 87,882

Net operating income= 242,506.6

Answer:

Contribution margin ratio= 0.42

Explanation:

Giving the following information:

Bryce Co. sales are $801,000

Variable costs are $465,100

Operating income is $287,000.

To calculate the contribution margin ratio, we need to use the following formula:

contribution margin ratio= (sales - variable cost) / sales

contribution margin ratio= (801,000 - 465,100) / 801,000

contribution margin ratio= 0.42

Answer and Explanation:

The computation of composite score for each location is shown below:-

Composite score for A is

= 0.15 × 89 + .20 × 75 + 0.18 × 92 + 0.27 × 92 + 0.10 × 93 + 0.10 × 90

= 88.05

 Composite score for B is

= 0.15 × 78 + .20 × 93 + 0.18 × 90 + 0.27 × 93 + 0.10 × 97 + 0.10 × 96

= 90.91

Composite score for C is

= 0.15 × 84 + .20 × 98 + 0.18 × 87 + 0.27 × 82 + 0.10 × 84 + 0.10 × 95

= 87.90

Therefore for computing the composite score for each location we simply multiply weight with A location and in the same manner of A, B and C

b. The maximum composite score from A, B and C is B

Answer:

Amount paid for goodwill is $24,900

Explanation:

Note: The data in the question are merged and they first sorted before answering the question as follows:

                                                          Book Value            Fair Value

Current assets                                     $ 28,700               $ 22,300

Property, plant, and equipment             47,800                 52,600

Other assets                                             3,500                    5,800

Current liabilities                                      15,100                  14,900

Long-term liabilities                                 29,000                21,400

The explanation of the answer to the question are now provided as follows:

Generally, goodwill refers to an intangible asset of a company and it can be in different for such as intellectual property, brand, commercial secrets, and reputation.

Amount paid for goodwill of an acquired company can be estimated by deducting the fair value of  net identifiable assets acquired from the consideration paid.

For this question, fair value of net identifiable assets can be calculated as follows:

Particular                                                  Fair Value ($)  

Current assets                                               22,300

Property, plant, and equipment                   52,600

Other assets                                                    5,800

Current liabilities                                          (14,900)

Long-term liabilities                                      (21,400)  

Fair value of net asset                                44,400    

Therefore, we have:

Amount paid for goodwill = Cash consideration paid - Fair value of net asset =  $69,300 - $44,400 = $24,900

Answer:

So, the bonds will issue at par which means that they will issue at their face value of $58000

Explanation:

If the coupon rate paid by the bond and the market interest rates are same, the bonds are always issued at par. We can check this through the following.

To calculate the price of the bond, we need to first calculate the coupon payment per period. We assume that the interest rate provided is stated in annual terms. As the bond is a semi annual bond, the coupon payment, number of periods and semi annual YTM will be,

Coupon Payment (C) = 0.05 * 1/2 * 58000 = $1450

Total periods (n)= 15 * 2 = 30

r or YTM = 5% * 1/2 = 2.5% or 0.025

The formula to calculate the price of the bonds today is attached.

Bond Price = 1450 * [( 1 - (1+0.025)^-30) / 0.025]  +  58000 / (1+0.025)^30

Bond Price = $58000

Answer:

Explanation:

Given that:

A mail-order house uses 18,000 boxes a year.

Carrying costs are 60 cents per box a year =$0.60

and ordering costs are $96.

Determine:

A. The optimal order quantity.

The optimal order quantity can be calculated by using the formula:

[tex]Q_o = \sqrt{\dfrac{2DS}{H}}[/tex]

[tex]Q_o = \sqrt{\dfrac{2*18000*96}{0.60}}[/tex]

[tex]Q_o = \sqrt{\dfrac{3456000}{0.60}}[/tex]

[tex]Q_o = \sqrt{5760000}[/tex]

[tex]Q_o = 2400 \ boxes[/tex]

B. The number of orders per year.

of boxes: 1,000-1,999 Price per box: $1.25

of boxes: 2,000- 4,999 Price per box: $1.20

of boxes: 5,000- 9,999 Price per box : $1.15

of boxes: 10,000 or more Price per box : $1.10

SInce 2400 boxes lies within ''of boxes: 2,000- 4,999 Price per box: $1.20 ''

Total cost = Carrying cost + ordering cost + Purchasing cost

[tex]Total \ cost =(\dfrac{Q}{2} )H +(\dfrac{D}{Q}) S+PD[/tex]

[tex]Total \ cost =(\dfrac{2400}{2} )0.60 +(\dfrac{18000}{2400}) 96+1.20*18000[/tex]

Total cost  = ( 1200) 0.60 + 7.5(96) + 1.20(18000)

Total cost  = 720 + 720 + 21600

Total cost  =  $ 23040

If the order size is 5000, the price per box will be 1.15

[tex]Total \ cost =(\dfrac{Q}{2} )H +(\dfrac{D}{Q}) S+PD[/tex]

[tex]Total \ cost =(\dfrac{5000}{2} )0.60 +(\dfrac{18000}{5000}) 96+1.15*18000[/tex]

Total cost = 2500 (0.60) + 3.6 (96) + 20700

Total cost = 1500 + 345.6 + 20700

Total cost = $22545.6

If the order size is 10000 , the price per box will be 1.10

[tex]Total \ cost =(\dfrac{Q}{2} )H +(\dfrac{D}{Q}) S+PD[/tex]

[tex]Total \ cost =(\dfrac{10000}{2} )0.60 +(\dfrac{18000}{10000}) 96+1.10*18000[/tex]

Total cost = 5000 (0.60) + 1.8(96)  + 19800

Total cost =  3000 + 172.8 + 19800

Total cost = $22972.8

From the three total cost, the least minimum cost of ordering is: 5000

So; the number of orders per year = total number of boxes per year/ boxes per order

the number of orders per year = 18000/5000

the number of orders per year = 3.6 orders per year

Answer:

In a situation where the company established in a region or country is experiencing a labor shortage, the best action to be taken would be to employ labourers from other regions or countries and moved them towards their location. This approach is adopted mostly by construction and hospitality industries.

Explanation:

Answer:

d. Our workforce may be waiting on delayed arrivals of inputs needed to do the work.

Explanation:

There are two possible sources for 25% of the jobs not being delivered on time:

If we followed Juran's Law, we can simply assume that the problem here has to do with our productive system (like 85% of production errors). Two clear problems are obvious:

Obviously we cannot answer these questions just be reading two paragraphs, but that is what should be answered in order to solve the issues.

Answer: The answer is given below

Explanation:

It should be noted that M1 will be derived as Currency plus the Travelers check while M2 will be M1 plus the certificate of deposit plus the money market account.

a. Van has $2,500 in a savings account.

It should be noted that money in a savings account will have to be included in M2.

b. Paolo has a $10 bill in his wallet.

This fits into the description of both M1 and M2 forms of money.

c. Amy has $7,000 in a six-month certificate of deposit (CD)

The certificate of deposit is included in the M2.

Answer:

Option A is M2

Option B is M1

Option C is M2

Explanation:

The above classifications speak to various categories of money supply.

M1 refers to the supply of money that is composed of physical currency such as notes, coins, demand deposits other checkable deposits, etc.

Simply put, M1 would include forms of money that are liquid or easy to convert into cash.

M2 and M3 which are also known as "near money" and "near, near money,"  are money types which cannot be converted to currency as quickly as M1.

Another example of M2 is Money Market Mutual Funds. M1 is often included when calculating for M2.

Cheers!

Answer:

ROE will increase

Explanation:

This action will cause an increase in Baldwin's ROE

ROE is the same as return on Equity. The return on equity is equal to the net profit margin multiplied by asset turnover which is also multiplied by equity multiplier.

From the above, if asset turnover is being increased by measures taken by the management, the ROE will also have to increase too. Firms will have to be generating more sales per units of the assets that they own.

Answer:

The company's debt service coverage ratio is 5.

Explanation:

The debt service coverage ratio refers to the financial ratio that give a measure of the ability of a company to meet its current debts obligation.

The debt service coverage ratio therefore compares the operating income of the company with the company's total debt service obligations.

The total service obligation includes the current interest, principal repayment, and any other debt obligations.

The formula for calculating the debt service coverage ratio is given as follows:

Debt service coverage ratio = Operating income / Total debt service costs

Form the question, we have:

Operating income = $25,000,000

Total debt service costs = Interest expense + Principal payments on bonds = $4,000,000 + $1,000,000 = $5,000,000

Substituting the values into the formula, we have:

Debt service coverage ratio = $25,000,000 / $5,000,000 = 5

Therefore, the company's debt service coverage ratio is 5.

Since this is greater than 1, this iimplies that operating profits made by the company is more than enough to pay its current debt service costs.

Answer:

Option C (GANs) is the correct answer.

Explanation:

The other three alternatives are not related to the given instance. So that the above would be the appropriate one.

Answer:

Hello some parts of your question is missing attached below is the missing part

Answer : value added times : 30 minutes , 30 minutes

               non-value added times: 1210 minutes, 130 minutes

               Total lead times : 1240 minutes,  160 minutes

               value added time as a ratio: 2.4%, 18.8%

Explanation:

Given data:

production batch sizes = 40 units

process step 1 = 6 minutes

process step 2 = 10 minutes

process step 3 = 6 minutes

process step 4 = 8 minutes

Determining : The value added, non-value added , total lead times and value added ratio under the present and proposed production approaches

UNDER PRESENT PRODUCTION APPROACH

Th value added time:

= summation of all process times = (6+10+6+8) = 30 minutes

Non-value added time:

=  Value added time *(Batch size -1) + move time between each step

= 30*39+8*5

= 1170 +40 = 1210 minutes

total lead time :

= value added time + non-value added time

= 30 + 1210 = 1240 minutes

value added time as a percentage/ratio

(value added time / total lead time) * 100

= 30 / 1240 * 100 = 2.4%

UNDER PROPOSED PRODUCTION APPROACH

value added time :

= summation of all process times = (6+10+6+8) = 30 minutes

Non-value added time :

=  Value added time *(Batch size -1) +  time between each step

= 30*4+2*5 = 120 + 10 = 130 mins

total lead time :

= value added time + non-value added time  = 30 +130 = 160 mins

value added time as a percentage/ratio:

(value added time / total lead time ) * 100

= (30 / 160) * 100 = 18.8%

Answer: primarily cyclical deficit

Explanation:

Budget deficit occurs when the government expenditure for a certain year is more than the revenue the government makes.

Since the the United States economy was operating close to potential. The budget deficit experienced by the United States in 1969 was primarily cyclical deficit.

Answer:

a. What is the book value of the​ equipment?

b. If Jones sells the equipment today for $184,000 and its tax rate is 35%​, what is the​ after-tax cash flow from selling​ it?

c. Just before it is about to sell the​ equipment, Jones receives a new order. It can take the new order if it keeps the old equipment. Is there a cost to taking the order and if​ so, what is​ it?

Explanation:

MACRS depreciation rate:

Year             %              Depreciation expense             Carrying value

1                   20%            $60,400                                  $241,600

2                  32%            $96,640                                  $144,960

3                  19.20%        $57,984                                  $86,976

4                  11.52%         $34,790.40                             $52,185.60

5                  11.52%         $34,790.40                             $17,395.20

6                  5.76%          $17,395.20                              $0

Answer:

a. $478,450

b.Dr Construction in Process $165,500

Cr  Deferred tax liability  $49,650

Cr   Retained earnings  $115,850

Explanation:

A. Calculation for the amount of net income that would be reported in 2015 for Pam Erickson Construction Company

Using this formula

Net income =(Income before income tax ) Income before income tax-Tax rate

Let plug in the formula

Net income= $683,500 - (683,500 × 30%)

Net income= $683,500 - $205,050

Net income= $478,450

B. Preparation of the Journal entry(ies) that are necessary to adjust the accounting records

For Pam Erickson Construction Company

Dr Construction in Process $165,500

Cr  Deferred tax liability  $49,650

($165,500 × 30%)

Cr   Retained earnings  $115,850

($165,500 × (100%-30%)