Before the development of isotopic dating methods, scientist estimated the age of the Earth using each of the following except A. Determining the time it takes to create fossils like shark teeth
Before the invention of isotope dating techniques, scientists employed a number of techniques to ascertain the age of the Earth, but one of them did not include figuring out how long it takes for fossils like shark teeth to form. The cooling of the planet from its initial molten condition was one of the early ways used to calculate the age of Earth.
Another way involves figuring out how quickly salt builds up in the oceans. These techniques were eventually discovered to be unreliable, though, for a variety of reasons, including the Earth's inner composition's unknown nature and the impacts of internal heat sources like radioactive decay.
Complete Question:
Before the development of isotopic dating methods, scientist estimated the age of the Earth using each of the following except
A) Determining the time it takes to create fossils like shark teeth
B) Comparing rates of change of Earth's surface today with the geologic record
C) Estimating evolution rates from fossil records
D) Counting generations in the Bible
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which of the following is not a final product of the complete breakdown of glucose during cellular respiration
Pyruvate is not a final product of the complete breakdown of glucose during cellular respiration. Here option D is the correct answer.
The breakdown of glucose during cellular respiration occurs in three stages: glycolysis, the Krebs cycle, and the electron transport chain. In glycolysis, glucose is broken down into two molecules of pyruvate. Pyruvate then enters the Krebs cycle, where it is further broken down and ultimately produces ATP, carbon dioxide, and water.
The electron transport chain also produces ATP and water. Therefore, ATP, carbon dioxide, and water are the final products of the complete breakdown of glucose during cellular respiration. Pyruvate is an intermediate product and is further metabolized during the Krebs cycle.
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Complete question:
Which of the following is not a final product of the complete breakdown of glucose during cellular respiration?
A. ATP
B. Carbon dioxide
C. Water
D. Pyruvate
E. None of the above
Please help me solve the first question step by step
A. The concentration of algal cells at 0.08 absorbance would be 2 10E6 if we extrapolate the given graph.
How to check the absorbanceOur standard culture is this. A 0.5 10E6 concentration is what we need. Our stock will be diluted as a result.
we have 0.5 x 10⁶
the original stock is given as 2 x 10⁶
The df = 15 + 5 / 5
= 4
Final volume / initial volume
2 x 10⁶ / 4
= 0.5 x 10⁶
b. The number of microbial cells in a culture of microbes affects how much of it is absorbed.
The absorbance was lower at the beginning of the culture because there were fewer algal cells present. At the end of the culture, when enough algal cells had grown, the concentration of algal cells had also increased, making the absorbance value higher.
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events take place that contribute to genetic diversity during which of the following stages of meiosis?
The double-chromatid Stage of homologous pairs of chromosomes cross across and often swap chromosomal segments during prophase of meiosis I.
By enabling genes from each parent to mingle, this recombination generates genetic variety by resulting in chromosomes with various genetic compositions. The nuclear envelope degrades during prophase I. Chromosomes are formed by the chromatin compacting. The two chromatid-containing homologous chromosomes unite to generate tetrads by connecting at their centromeres (2n 4c).
This is when genetic diversity is produced by "crossing over." Only sister chromatids are still present after meiosis II, and homologous chromosomes have been transferred to other cells. Increasing genetic variety is the goal of crossing over, in case you forgot. Meiosis specifically produces novel genetic material combinations in each of the four daughter cells.
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Correct Question:
Events take place that contribute to genetic diversity during which stages of meiosis?
TRUE/FALSE. X-rays and gamma rays are examples of ionizing radiation and cause the formation of thymine dimers.
FALSE. X-rays and gamma rays are examples of ionizing radiation, but they do not cause the formation of thymine dimers.
What are thymine dimers?Thymine dimers are a type of DNA damage that occurs when two adjacent thymine bases in DNA become covalently linked to each other, forming a dimer. This can occur when DNA is exposed to ultraviolet (UV) radiation from the sun or other sources. The formation of thymine dimers distorts the normal structure of DNA, causing errors during DNA replication and transcription, which can lead to mutations, cell death, or cancer. Thymine dimers are one of the most common types of DNA damage caused by UV radiation, and they play a significant role in the development of skin cancer.
UV radiation has a shorter wavelength than X-rays and gamma rays and is non-ionizing, meaning it does not directly ionize molecules. Instead, UV radiation causes chemical reactions in molecules, including the formation of thymine dimers in DNA.
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a researcher who is trying to determine how many words for snow exist among the eskimo is practicing
The Sapir-Whorf hypothesis, commonly known as linguistic relativity. According to this theory, the language we use affects how we think and how we view the world.
What approach does linguistic anthropology take?To get local interpretive glosses of the communicative material they capture, linguistic anthropologists collaborate with native speakers and use conventional ethnographic techniques like participant-observation.
Which of the following best describes the notion that how people think and say has an impact on how they perceive?The idea that the language one speaks affects how one perceives reality is referred to as the Sapir Whorf hypothesis, sometimes known as the linguistic relativity hypothesis.
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Just need help with the chart, don’t know if what I have is correct.
Skeletal muscle fibres are widely classified into two different types, "slow-twitch" muscles (type 1) and "fast-twitch" muscles (type 2). Each one has different characteristics and functions.
Most of the answers you have entered are correct, except for the following:
Type I fibres are oxidative fibresExamples of activities that use type 1 muscle fibres include endurance activities such as long-distance running, cycling, and swimming.Type IIa muscle fibres are oxidative fibres.Type IIa muscle fibres are lighter than type I fibres but darker than type IIx fibers. Examples of activities that use type IIa muscle fibers include middle-distance running, swimming, and cycling, as well as sports that require repeated bouts of high-intensity activity such as basketball, soccer, and tennis.Type IIx fibers are also known as type IIb fibers.Type IIx fibers are predominantly glycolyticExample activity: Type IIx fibers are primarily used during high-intensity, short-duration activities such as sprinting, powerlifting, and jumping.To know more about muscle fibres, visit:
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Which is an adaptation that helped plants survive on land ?
A. Photosynthesis
B. Development of backbones
C. Production of seeds
D. Diploid forms
theorists who attribute some of the causes of deviant behavior to biology are employing ___ theories.
Those that use biological theories to explain some of the biological factors that contribute to abnormal behaviour do so.
What are biological explanations for abnormal behaviour?According to a biological hypothesis of deviance, a person's deviation from social standards is mostly a result of their biological make-up. Although it can be extended to informal deviance, the theory focuses primarily on formal deviance and uses biological explanations for criminality.
Which biological theories are there?With a focus on the conceptual unification provided by evolutionary and developmental approaches, the journal Biological Theory is devoted to theoretical developments in the disciplines of evolution and cognition.
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which of the following is the correct sequence when tracing the path of air from the nose to the lungs?
The correct order to follow when tracing the air's path from the nose to the lungs is the Nasal cavity, Pharynx, Larynx, Trachea, Bronchi, and Bronchioles. The correct answer is (D).
Air travels down your pharynx (the back of your throat), through your larynx (the voice box), and into your trachea (the windpipe) when you inhale through your nose or mouth. The bronchial tubes divide your trachea into two sections. The left lung is served by one bronchial tube, while the right lung is served by the other.
Your mouth and nose are where air enters your body. The trachea and larynx then carry air down the throat. Main-stem bronchi are the tubes through which air enters the lungs.
Air enters your lungs when you inhale, and oxygen from that air moves into your blood. Simultaneously, carbon dioxide, a waste gas, moves from your blood to the lungs and is breathed out (inhaled). This cycle called the gas trade, is crucial for life.
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Q-which of the following is the correct sequence when tracing the air path from the nose to the lungs?
A. nasal cavity, larynx, pharynx, bronchi, bronchioles, trachea
B. nasal cavity, bronchi, bronchioles, trachea pharynx, larynx
C. nasal cavity, pharynx, larynx, trachea, bronchioles, bronchi
D. nasal cavity, pharynx, larynx, trachea, bronchi, bronchioles
) the process called by which molecules move across a barrier,
Answer:
Diffusion is the movement of molecules from an area of high concentration of the molecules to an area with a lower concentration. For cell transport, diffusion is the movement of small molecules across the cell membrane.
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what do microbiologists do? why are their contributions so important to science?
Answer: they try to understand how organisms live, grow and interact with their environments
I need help finding this answers, this paper is DUE TOMORROW!!
Answer:
Explanation:
Alright, buckle up, since this isn't your average "the answer is C" explanation. Sorry beforehand for this upcoming essay. To make this easier, I'll give out the answers to start and then leave a "Why?" portion in case you want an in-depth explanation. I recommend getting the answers first since I can tell you're in a hurry, but if you get the chance look over a thing or two I said. Now:
To start, the 4 genotypes for the Dark Gray Rabbit are DD, Dd[tex]^{ch}[/tex], Dd[tex]^h[/tex], and Dd.
Why? Well, we know Dark Gray is dominant to all other alleles, so a Dark Gray allele with any other allele will produce a Dark Gray Rabbit.
The same concept above applies to the other rabbits:
The Chinchilla rabbit is d[tex]^{ch}[/tex]d[tex]^{ch}[/tex], d[tex]^{ch}[/tex]d[tex]^h[/tex], and d[tex]^{ch}[/tex]d.
The Himalayan rabbit is d[tex]^h[/tex]d[tex]^h[/tex] and d[tex]^h[/tex]d.
The Albino rabbit is dd.
Part 2:
Chinchilla Rabbit
Why? Because you have 2 Chinchilla alleles, and since they don't dominate and aren't dominated by any other allele, the rabbit will be a Chinchilla Rabbit.
Dark Gray Rabbit
Why? Same rule of dominance, and plus, it was one of the phenotypes listed in the first question.
For the table, look at the help image.
And finally, for the plan, the first set of rabbits with have a 50% chance of producing a dd[tex]^h[/tex] rabbit, which is a Himalayan rabbit. Then, breeding two of these will ALWAYS give you a Himalayan rabbit.
Why? Because the only alleles are d and d[tex]^h[/tex], and since d[tex]^h[/tex] is always dominant of d, there will never be a case where that rabbit is albino (thus always Himalayan)
Hope you got it all down, and glad I could be of any service.
Photosynthesis is the process through which plants produce sugar and oxygen. Photosynthesis can also take place in single-celled organisms like phytoplankton and other microorganisms.
The process of photosynthesis occurs differently from one organism to the next, but several features remain the same. In short, photosynthesis takes in water and carbon dioxide, uses sunlight as a catalyst, and produces oxygen and sugar. The plants release the oxygen through respiration. They digest or store the sugar.
Although the process seems simple, it is the most important event on the planet as far as animal life is concerned. Oxygen is a byproduct of photosynthesis. Animals would not be able to breathe if it was not for this process. Herbivores live off these fruits and vegetables and form the basis of any food chain. Carnivores and omnivores would not be able to find food if it were not for these sugars. Were it not for the simple process of photosynthesis, the Earth would be an uninhabited planet.
1
Select the correct answer.
Read the following sentence from the passage.
Animals would not be able to breathe if it was not for this process.
How does this sentence help to develop the idea that photosynthesis is essential to animal life?
A.
It suggests that photosynthesis takes place in the lungs.
B.
It suggests that photosynthesis occurs in all animals.
C.
It shows that animals depend on this process for food.
D.
It shows that animals depend on this process for oxygen.
Reset Next
Structure of an Informational Text: Mastery
Answer: D. It shows that animals depend on this process for oxygen
Explanation:
Animals need oxygen. And photosynthesis produces glucose and oxygen. Oxygen is a waste product for plants, therefore, they release it into the air.
However, animals and us, we do need oxygen, to survive, so we breathe for oxygen. We need oxygen to respire.
In conclusion, if plants didn't do photosynthesis, they won't produce oxygen, so we won't have a supply of oxygen, therefore we would die.
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To which side of the kidney does the ureter connect?
A. Proximal
B. Superior
C. Medial
D. Axial
The ureter connects to the C.) medial side of each kidney.
What is the function of kidney?Kidneys' primary function is to remove toxins from the blood and convert waste products into urine. The average kidney weighs 160 grammes and excretes 1.5 litres of urine every day. Every 24 hours, two kidneys work together to filter 200 litres of fluid.
The kidneys aid to maintain the body's chemical balance by excreting waste and excess water from the blood as urine and removing excess salt, potassium, and calcium. Additionally, they produce hormones that encourage bone marrow to produce red blood cells, which is referred to as renal function. They also assist manage blood pressure.
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Rotenone (An Insecticide) Blocks The Protein That Accepts Electrons From NADH. Rotenone Blocks ATP Synthesis By:
Rotenone (an insecticide) blocks the protein that accepts ele
Rotenone inhibits the electron transport chain (ETC) in the mitochondria, which is how it prevents ATP generation.
Rotenone specifically binds to the protein complex known as complex I (NADH dehydrogenase), which is responsible for transferring electrons from NADH to ubiquinone, a mobile electron carrier in the ETC. Rotenone blocks the flow of electrons through the ETC by interacting with complex I and preventing the transfer of electrons from NADH to ubiquinone. As a result, the proton motive force (PMF), which is typically produced by the passage of electrons through the ETC across the mitochondrial inner membrane, decreases.
The PMF is required for ATP synthase, a protein complex that harnesses the PMF's energy to drive the phosphorylation of ADP to ATP, to produce ATP. Rotenone's suppression of the ETC consequently causes a reduction in ATP synthesis.
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complete question -
"Rotenone is an insecticide that is known to block the protein that accepts electrons from NADH. What is the mechanism by which rotenone blocks ATP synthesis?"
if conjugation was succesful and you produced a strain of bacteria that was resistant to both antibiotics, would this
If conjugation was successful and you produced a new strain of bacteria that was resistant to both antibiotics, the new strain would most likely be F+ (F-positive).
The F factor, also known as the fertility factor, is a plasmid that contains genes that enable bacterial conjugation. Bacteria that contain the F plasmid are called F+ (F-positive), while bacteria that lack the F plasmid are called F- (F-negative).
During conjugation, the F plasmid is transferred from the donor F+ bacterium to the recipient F- bacterium, converting it into an F+ bacterium. The transferred F plasmid also carries the antibiotic resistance genes that confer resistance to the two antibiotics. Therefore, the new strain of bacteria that is resistant to both antibiotics would most likely be an F+ bacterium that acquired the F plasmid and the antibiotic resistance genes through conjugation.
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Full Question: If conjunction was successful and you produced a new strain of bacteria that was resistant to both antibiotics, would the new strand by F+ or F-? Why?
Critically discuss why a school leavers might decide to pursue work directly after school instead of applying for higher education
fill in the blank. ___ an example of a place in the tree where a speciation event occurred is represented by the shaded area numbered
Gene g is an example of a place in the tree where a speciation event occurred is represented by the shaded area numbered.
Phylogenetic methods are affected in a number of significant ways by the idea of incomplete lineage sorting. Inadequate lineage sorting may result from the persistence of polymorphisms throughout various speciation episodes.
Consider two successive speciation occurrences where an ancestor species produces species A first and species B and C second. While examining a single gene, it is possible to find various variations (alleles) that result in the appearance of various features (polymorphisms).
We can observe that where the gene G contains two variations (alleles), G0 and G1. Gene G initially only existed in one form, G0, in the ancestor of A, B, and C. The ancestral population became polymorphic at some point due to a mutation, with some individuals having G0 and others G1.
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What does receiver bee stand over???
Answer:
The flower.
Explanation:
It eats the nectar and the pollen sticks onto its fur, so that it can pollinate other flowers.
please help need this soon
Frequency of dominant allele: 0.99
Frequency of recessive allele: 0.01
% homozygous dominant: 98.01%
% homozygous recessive: 0.01%
% heterozygous: 1.98%
What is Hardy -Weinberg equation?The Hardy-Weinberg equation is a mathematical model that describes the relationship between the frequencies of alleles and genotypes in a population. It is based on the assumptions of a large population size, random mating, no migration, no mutation, and no natural selection.
The equation is:
p² + 2pq + q² = 1
where:
p = frequency of the dominant allele
q = frequency of the recessive allele
p² = frequency of the homozygous dominant genotype
q² = frequency of the homozygous recessive genotype
2pq = frequency of the heterozygous genotype.
Given that cystic fibrosis is a homozygous recessive condition that affects 1 in 10,000 of the Hispanic population in the US, we can assume that the frequency of the recessive allele is q = √(1/10000) = 0.01.
To calculate the frequency of the dominant allele, we can use p = 1 - q = 1 - 0.01 = 0.99.
Now we can use the Hardy-Weinberg equation to calculate the frequencies of the different genotypes:
p² = (0.99)² = 0.9801 = 98.01% homozygous dominant
2pq = 2(0.99)(0.01) = 0.0198 = 1.98% heterozygous
q² = (0.01)² = 0.0001 = 0.01% homozygous recessive
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Assignment sports leadership news paper article
Scenario You are working in a small, but developing, coaching company. You have contacted a local newspaper to discuss how to develop interest in volunteering in sports leadership. The editor has asked you to write an article that explores the requirements of becoming a successful sports leader, using examples of successful sports leaders to demonstrate attributes and responsibilities required.
Task 1
Carry out research into successful sports leaders using textbooks, the internet and journals. You may also consider sports leaders who have led sporting events that you have taken part in and/or sports leaders who coach professional or national sports teams.
Prepare a two-page article for the newspaper about the attributes and responsibilities of sports leaders. (2A.P1, 2A.P2, 2A.M1, 2A.M2)
Within the feature you should compare and contrast the attributes of two successful sports leaders. (2A.D1)
Checklist of evidence required
Article for a newspaper or web article.
Criteria covered by this task:
Unit/Criteria reference
To achieve the criteria you must show that you are able to:
6/2A.P1
Describe, using relevant examples, the attributes required for, and responsibilities of, sports leadership.
6/2A.P2
Describe the attributes of two selected successful sports leaders.
6/2A.M1
Explain the attributes required for, and responsibilities of, sports leadership.
6/2A.M2
Evaluate the attributes of two successful sports leaders.
6/2A.D1
Compare and contrast the attributes of two successful sports leaders.
In which cell is the water potential the least negative ,using a diagram of the xylem vessel from a vascular bundle in a root and four adjacent parenchyma cells
The water potential is the least negative in the xylem cell, which is located at the center of the vascular bundle. This is because the xylem cell is responsible for transporting water and minerals from the roots to the rest of the plant.
What is the xylem?The xylem is a type of plant tissue that is responsible for transporting water and dissolved minerals from the roots to the rest of the plant. It is composed of specialized cells called tracheids and vessel elements, which are connected end-to-end to form long tubes or vessels.
The xylem vessels are reinforced with lignin, which provides structural support and prevents collapse of the tubes under the pressure of water transport. The movement of water through the xylem is driven by transpiration, which is the loss of water from the leaves through tiny openings called stomata. As water evaporates from the leaves, it creates a negative pressure, or tension, that pulls water up from the roots and through the xylem.
The water potential is the least negative in the xylem cell, which is located at the center of the vascular bundle. This is because the xylem cell is responsible for transporting water and minerals from the roots to the rest of the plant, and therefore it must maintain a high water potential to facilitate this process. The adjacent parenchyma cells have lower water potential compared to the xylem cell, as they are involved in storage of nutrients and water, and do not play a major role in water transport.
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Why is the alignment of chromosomes at the center of the cell important
Answer: The alignment of chromosomes at the center of the cell, also known as the metaphase plate, is a critical step during cell division. Here are some reasons why:
Explanation: Ensuring equal distribution of genetic material: During cell division, the chromosomes need to be evenly distributed between the two daughter cells to ensure that each cell receives the correct number of chromosomes. When the chromosomes align at the metaphase plate, it allows the spindle fibers to attach to each chromatid and pull them apart in a coordinated manner, resulting in equal distribution of genetic material.
Facilitating proper spindle fiber attachment: The spindle fibers that attach to the chromosomes are crucial for separating the chromosomes and pulling them to opposite ends of the cell during cell division. When the chromosomes are aligned at the center of the cell, it ensures that the spindle fibers from both ends of the cell have equal access to each chromosome, facilitating proper attachment and segregation.
Regulating the cell cycle: The proper alignment of chromosomes at the metaphase plate is critical for the cell cycle checkpoint that ensures proper cell division. If there are any errors or abnormalities in chromosome alignment, it can trigger the cell to stop dividing and repair the mistakes before continuing with division. This checkpoint is important for preventing the formation of abnormal cells that can lead to genetic diseases or cancer.
In summary, the alignment of chromosomes at the center of the cell is important for ensuring proper distribution of genetic material, facilitating proper spindle fiber attachment, and regulating the cell cycle.
Suppose that a potential blood donor has type B+ blood. Classify the following recipient's blood types as compatible or incompatible. Able to receive type B+ blood Unable to receive type B+ blood type O- type B+ type B- type A+ type AB+
A recipient with type B+ blood can receive blood from donors with type B+ and type O+. Therefore, the following blood types are compatible:
Type B+ (same blood type)Type O- (universal donor, compatible with all blood types)The following blood types are incompatible:
Type B- (lacks Rh factor)Type A+ (contains the A antigen, which can cause a transfusion reaction)Type AB+ (contains both A and B antigens, which can cause a transfusion reaction)What are the blood types?
Blood types are classifications of blood that depend on the presence or absence of certain proteins on the surface of red blood cells. The most well-known blood type classification system is the ABO system, which categorizes blood into four types: A, B, AB, and O. The presence or absence of the A and B antigens on the surface of red blood cells determines the blood type.
Another important blood type classification system is the Rh system, which is named after the Rhesus monkey. People who have the Rh protein on the surface of their red blood cells are Rh-positive (Rh+), while people who do not have the protein are Rh-negative (Rh-).
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In mammals, which of the following vessels transports oxygenated blood from the lung back to the heart?
A. pulmonary artery
B. superior vena cava
C. coronary artery
D. pulmonary vein
(d) is the correct option. The pulmonary veins enter the left atrium and re-circulate the oxygenated blood back to the heart. Blood is pumped into the left ventricle from the left atrium.
The aorta, which carries the oxygenated blood to every area of the body, receives blood from the left ventricle. Only one type of vein carries oxygenated blood, which is the pulmonary vein. Oxygenated blood is transported from the lungs by the pulmonary veins. The heart's major artery (aorta), which supplies blood to the entire body, is directly used in coronary circulation. Deoxygenated blood travels from tissue capillaries back to the right atrium of the heart through a network of veins.
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identify the cell organelle that performs this cellular function: synthesis of lipids and carbohydrates
ER is the cell organelle that performs this cellular function: synthesis of lipids and carbohydrates
The ER is also where most protein synthesis and transport, protein folding, steroid and lipid production, glucose metabolism, and calcium storage occurs.
It is a cytoplasmic sac that is membrane-bound in eukaryotic cells. Producing proteins, carbohydrates, and lipids requires the endoplasmic reticulum, or ER. The endoplasmic reticulum produces membrane carbohydrates, but these are modified and developed into complex carbohydrate molecules in the Golgi complex by the addition of several additional monomers.
The ER, which aids in regulating cell development and differentiation, is frequently present in cells that are not dividing. By supporting ion homeostasis, the ER also contributes to the control of calcium levels in cells. Also involved is the endoplasmic reticulum.
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Look at the following diagram of the carbon cycle. An image of carbon cycle is shown. The sun, a cloud, two trees, one on the left and the other on the right, an animal, lake, and a factory are shown in the image. An arrow is shown from the sun towards the left tree marked A. The sun is marked B. There is an arrow from the air above the clouds, marked C, towards the left tree. An arrow from a location close to the ground marked D points towards Dead Organisms, which is a label under the animal. An arrow marked E points from the right tree straight up to the clouds. An arrow marked F points from the animal straight up to the clouds. An arrow marked G points from the factory towards the air above the clouds, C. There is an arrow pointing from the air to the lake labeled Carbonates in Water, an arrow pointing down from dead organisms to Fossils and Fossil Fuels, and an arrow from Fossils to the factory. Which of the following facts is best represented by the arrows pointing down from F? The energy stored in atmospheric carbon dioxide is conserved because it is transformed to energy present in decomposed plants. The energy consumed by animals in the form of glucose is conserved because it is used to create new forms of energy present in decomposed animals. The energy stored in decomposed plants and animals is conserved because it is used to create new forms of energy present in decomposed plants and animals. The energy stored in decomposed plants and animals is conserved because it is converted into chemical energy present in fossil fuels.
None of the above facts is best represented by the arrows pointing down from F. The arrow pointing down from Dead Organisms to Fossils and Fossil Fuels represents the fact that the organic matter from dead organisms can be transformed into fossil fuels over millions .
What is an Organism ?An organism is any living entity that can carry out the basic functions of life such as reproduction, growth, and adaptation to its environment. This can range from a single-celled bacteria to complex multicellular organisms such as plants, animals, and humans. Organisms can exist in different ecosystems and can interact with each other to form communities and food webs.
What is a multicellular ?Multicellular organisms are organisms that consist of more than one cell, in contrast to unicellular organisms that consist of a single cell. Multicellular organisms can range in size from microscopic to large and complex, such as humans and other animals, plants, and fungi. The cells of multicellular organisms are specialized to perform different functions, and they work together to form tissues, organs, and organ systems that carry out specific functions within the organism.
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which of the following must be true in order for a specific allele in a population to remain in a state of equilibrium?
The following conditions must be met for a particular allele to remain in a state equilibrium in a population: large population, random mating, no natural selection, and no immigration. Therefore, options (a), (b), (d), and (e) are correct answer choices.
Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium is the principle that genetic variation in a population will remain constant from generation to generation in the absence of confounding factors. Five conditions are required for a population to maintain Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium:
1. A large breeding population
2. Random mating
3. No change in allele frequency due to mutation
4. No immigration or emigration
5. No natural selection
Therefore, the answer to this question indicates that the correct choice is a late population, no natural selection, no immigration and random mating.
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Complete question:
Which of the following conditions must be true in order for a population to be at genetic equilibrium? (Choose all that apply)
a) large population
b)Random mating
c)mutations must occur
d)no natural selection
e)no immigration.
How does acid rain affect plants and animals?
Answer:
Dead or dying trees are a common sight in areas effected by acid rain. Acid rain leaches aluminum from the soil. That aluminum may be harmful to plants as well as animals. Acid rain also removes minerals and nutrients from the soil that trees need to grow.
which of the following statements is not accurate regarding the placement of biosafety cabinets inside a laboratory?
This is untrue since biosafety cabinets should be installed in low-traffic areas to reduce airflow disruption and lower the danger of contamination.
The use of a biological safety cabinet should not involve which of the following procedures?A blockage of the air intake grills at the front and back of the work surface could impede airflow. Storage containers are not BSCs! Keep anything out of the hood that might obstruct airflow.
Which of the following characteristics does every biosafety cabinet share?The high efficiency particulate air (HEPA) filter is a component that all BSCs have in common. Most germs and viruses are captured by HEPA filters, which can remove particles as small as 0.3 microns with a 99.97% efficiency.
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