Angles tell you how far something has turned from a fix point. The bigger the angle, the bigger the turn. Angles are measured in degrees. Name the four turn

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

Mean: sum of terms/ number of terms

4 + 2 + 3 + 1 + 1 + 5  = 16

Numbr of terms = 6

16/6 = 2.66

Answered by g a u t h m a th

Answer:

2 2/3

Step-by-step explanation:

The mean is the average of the values

The values on the graph are 4, 2, 3, 1, 1, and 5

Average is sum/number of values

4+2+3+1+1+5=16

16/6=2 2/3

Answer:

A

Step-by-step explanation:

By completing the square, y = 2x^2 + 2x +1 will be y=2(x+1/2)^2+(1/2) the minimum point is the vertex of the parabola which is (-1/2, 1/2)

Answer:

I'm not 100% on the interoperation of this question...

are the two red cars out of a 52 card deck and you can try all the combinations of two red and black cards ????

for this answer i will assume that you have 4 coins two nickels and 2 quarters

and the question is " how many ways can you arrange the four coins given that the nickels can not be next to the quarters"

in that case I think the answer is 8

Step-by-step explanation:

1- N1 Q1 N2 Q2

2- N1 Q2 N2 Q1

3- N2 Q1 N1 Q2

4- N2 Q2 N1 Q1

5- Q1 N2 Q2 N1

6- Q2 N2 Q1 N1

7- Q1 N1 Q2 N2

8- Q2 N1 Q1 N2

[tex]2\cdot \left(\left(2\:choose\:1\right)\:\cdot \:\left(2\:choose\:1\right)\right)[/tex]

9514 1404 393

Answer:

  C

Step-by-step explanation:

The graph shows two vertical asymptotes, so the relevant function will be zero in the denominator for two different x-values. The only possibility is ...

  [tex]F(x)=\dfrac{1}{(x-1)(x+1)}[/tex]

Answer:

I believe it is 2/5 fraction

Answer:

-2/5

Step-by-step explanation:

We can use the slope formula

m = ( y2-y1)/(x2-x1)

   = ( 18-8)/(-15-10)

    = 10/-25

   = -2/5

Answer:

The ocean absorbs heat energy from the sun

Step-by-step explanation:

Yw :)

Answer:

The ocean absorbs heat energy from the sun.

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

option c f(x)=-10and g(x)=2410

Answer:

c

Step-by-step explanation:

cheese is rotten milk

Answer:

yall do school right now???and i forgot how to do these sorry

Answer:

18 = 2x-14

or, 2x =18+14

or, 2x =32

or, x=32/2

x=16

2(6x-7)=10

or, 12x-14=10

or, 12x=10+14

or, x=24/12

x=2

Answer:

what is the sum.

Step-by-step explanation:

Take the sum - 11 =x

Answer:

2 hours

Remember that time = distance/rate

The distance you need to cover is 56 miles, while you go 28 miles per hour. Using these, we get this:

time=56/28

time=2

So it will take two hours to go across a 56 mile wide bay at 28 mph.

Step-by-step explanation:

d=6ft

According to formula A=πr²

first we need 'r'

Hence,

as, r=d/2

r=6ft/2

r=3ft

A=πr²

A=3.14(3ft)²

A=3.14×9ft²

A=28.26ft²

Here we have the quadratic function:

f(x) = -16*x^2 + 60*x + 16

We can see that it is in standard form:

y = a*x^2 + b*x + c

a) First we want to completely factorize the function f(x).

To do it, we first need to find the roots of f(x).

Remember that for a generic quadratic equation:

a*x^2 + b*x + c = 0

whit roots x₁ and x₂, the factorized form is:

a*(x - x₁)*(x - x₂)

And the roots are given by:

[tex]x = \frac{-b \pm \sqrt{b^2 - 4*a*c} }{2*a}[/tex]

Then for the case of f(x) = -16*x^2 + 60*x + 16, the roots are:

[tex]x = \frac{-60 \pm \sqrt{60^2 - 4*(-16)*16} }{2*(-16)} = \frac{-60 \pm 68}{-32}[/tex]

So the two roots are:

x₁ = (-60 + 68)/-32 = -0.25

x₂ = (-60 - 68)/-32 = 4

Then the factorized form is:

f(x) = -16*(x - 4)*(x + 0.25)

B) We already found the roots, which are:

x₁ =  -0.25

x₂ =  4

These are the x-intercepts:

(-0.25, 0) and (4, 0)

C) We can see that the leading coefficient is negative.

This means that the arms of the graph go downwards, so as |x| increases, the value of f(x) tends to negative infinity.

D) To graph f(x) we can find some of the points of the graph (like the x-intercepts and some more of them) and then connect them with a parabola curve, the graph that you will get is the one that you can see below.

If you want to learn more about this topic, you can read:

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Answer:

327680

Step-by-step explanation:

The general formula of the formula for the sequence is 5*(-4)^(n-1). The 9th term will be 5*(-4)^8=327680

Answer:

Median =7

Mean = 9

Mode = 6

Step-by-step explanation:

Have a gr8 day!

Answer:

the median is 7

Step-by-step explanation:

6,6,6,7,8,11,19

7 is the middle number

Answer:

0.25 = 25% probability that the two brothers will end up in the starting line up

Step-by-step explanation:

A probability is the number of desired outcomes divided by the number of total outcomes.

The order in which the players are chosen is not important, which means that the combinations formula is used to solve this question.

Combinations formula:

[tex]C_{n,x}[/tex] is the number of different combinations of x objects from a set of n elements, given by the following formula.

[tex]C_{n,x} = \frac{n!}{x!(n-x)!}[/tex]

Desired outcomes:

Matthew plus another forward from a set of 3.

Tony plus another two guards from a set of 5.

So

[tex]D = C_{3,1}C_{5,2} = \frac{3!}{1!2!} \times \frac{5!}{2!3!} = 3*10 = 30[/tex]

Total outcomes:

Two forwards from a set of 4.

Three guards from a set of 6.

So

[tex]T = C_{4,2}C_{6,3} = \frac{4!}{2!2!} \times \frac{6!}{3!3!} = 6*20 = 120[/tex]

What is the probability that the two brothers will end up in the starting line up?

[tex]p = \frac{D}{T} = \frac{30}{120} = 0.25[/tex]

0.25 = 25% probability that the two brothers will end up in the starting line up

Answer:

348 m^2

Step-by-step explanation:

The figure is made up of a rectangle 24 m by 12 m, and a triangle with a 24 m base and a 5 m height.

A = LW + bh/2

A = 24 m * 12 m + (24 m)(5 m)/2

A = 288 m^2 + 60 m^2

A = 348 m^2

Answer:

((c)).g(x) = 3 × 2^x +2..

The actual labor cost is $600 over the targeted labor cost.

Given that,

Work done by each person per week = 40 hours

Required labor hours per week = 600 hours

No. of workers in the team = 13

To find,

Actual weekly labor cost = ?

Procedure:

Actual weekly labor cost = No. of workers * no. of hours performed by them

[tex]= 13 * 40[/tex]

[tex]= 520 hours[/tex]

Given that,

[tex]Regular rate = $ 15.00 per hour[/tex]

[tex]Overtime rate = $ 22.50 per hour[/tex]

Thus,

Actual labor cost = (regular hours worked * regular rate) + (overtime * overtime rate)

[tex]= (520 * 15) + ([600 - 520] * 22.50)[/tex]

[tex]= $ 7,800 + $ 1,800[/tex]

[tex]= $ 9600[/tex]

Targeted Labor cost = $ 9,000 per week

Thus, option C i.e. the actual labor cost is $ 600 over the targeted labor cost.

Learn more about 'Labor Cost' here:

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Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

22

Step-by-step explanation:

(5x2) + (3x2) + (3x2)

22 square units

Answer from Gauthmath

Answer:

B

Step-by-step explanation:

The function given is f(n) = n-3. Plug in n=0 and you will get an output - 3. Plug in n=2 and you will get an output - 1. Hence table B is the answer .

The first, second, third and fourth order Maclaurin polynomials of f(x)=arctan(x) are:

So let's start by finding the first order maclaurin polynomial:

f(x)=f(0)+f'(0)x

so let's find each part of the function:

f(0)=arctan(0)

f(0)=0

now, let's find the first derivative of f(x)

f(x)=arctan(x)

This is a usual derivative so there is a rule we can use here:

[tex]f'(x)=\frac{1}{x^{2}+1}[/tex]

so now we can find f'(0)

[tex]f'(0)=\frac{1}{(0)^{2}+1}[/tex]

f'(0)=1

So we can now complete the first order Maclaurin Polynomial:

f(x)=0+1x

which simplifies to:

f(x)=x

Now let's find the second order polynomial, for which we will need to get the second derivative of the function:

[tex]f(x)=f(0)+f'(0)x+\frac{f''(0)}{2!}x^{2}[/tex]

so:

[tex]f'(x)=\frac{1}{x^{2}+1}[/tex]

we can rewrite this derivative as:

[tex]f'(x)=(x^{2}+1)^{-1}[/tex]

and use the chain rule to get:

[tex]f''(x)=-1(x^{2}+1)^{-2}(2x)[/tex]

which simplifies to:

[tex]f''(x)=-\frac{2x}{(x^{2}+1)^{2}}[/tex]

now, we can find f''(0):

[tex]f''(0)=-\frac{2(0)}{((0)^{2}+1)^{2}}[/tex]

which yields:

f''(0)=0

so now we can complete the second order Maclaurin polynomial:

[tex]f(x)=0+1x+\frac{0}{2!}x^{2}[/tex]

which simplifies to:

f(x)=x

Now let's find the third order polynomial, for which we will need to get the third derivative of the function:

[tex]f(x)=f(0)+f'(0)x+\frac{f''(0)}{2!}x^{2}+\frac{f'''(0)}{3!}x^{3}[/tex]

so:

[tex]f''(x)=-\frac{2x}{(x^{2}+1)^{2}}[/tex]

In this case we can use the quotient rule to solve this:

Quotient rule: Whenever you have a function in the form , then it's derivative is:

[tex]f'(x)=\frac{p'q-pq'}{q^{2}}[/tex]

in this case:

p=2x

p'=2

[tex]q=(x^{2}+1)^{2}[/tex]

[tex]q'=2(x^{2}+1)(2x)[/tex]

[tex]q'=4x(x^{2}+1)[/tex]

So when using the quotient rule we get:

[tex]f'(x)=\frac{p'q-pq'}{q^{2}}[/tex]

[tex]f'''(x)=\frac{(2)(x^{2}+1)^{2}-(2x)(4x)(x^{2}+1)}{((x^{2}+1)^{2})^{2}}[/tex]

which simplifies to:

[tex]f'''(x)=\frac{-2x^{2}-2+8x^{2}}{(x^{2}+1)^{3}}[/tex]

[tex]f'''(x)=\frac{6x^{2}-2}{(x^{2}+1)^{3}}[/tex]

now, we can find f'''(0):

[tex]f'''(0)=\frac{6(0)^{2}-2}{((0)^{2}+1)^{3}}[/tex]

which yields:

f'''(0)=-2

so now we can complete the third order Maclaurin polynomial:

[tex]f(x)=0+1x+\frac{0}{2!}x^{2}-\frac{2}{3!}x^{3}[/tex]

which simplifies to:

[tex]f(x)=x-\frac{1}{3}x^{3}[/tex]

Now let's find the fourth order polynomial, for which we will need to get the fourth derivative of the function:

[tex]f(x)=f(0)+f'(0)x+\frac{f''(0)}{2!}x^{2}+\frac{f'''(0)}{3!}x^{3}+\frac{f^{(4)}(0)}{4!}x^{4}[/tex]

so:

[tex]f'''(x)=\frac{6x^{2}-2}{(x^{2}+1)^{3}}[/tex]

In this case we can use the quotient rule to solve this:

[tex]f'(x)=\frac{p'q-pq'}{q^{2}}[/tex]

in this case:

[tex]p=6x^{2}-2[/tex]

p'=12x

[tex]q=(x^{2}+1)^{3}[/tex]

[tex]q'=3(x^{2}+1)^{2}(2x)[/tex]

[tex]q'=6x(x^{2}+1)^{2}[/tex]

So when using the quotient rule we get:

[tex]f'(x)=\frac{p'q-pq'}{q^{2}}[/tex]

[tex]f^{4}(x)=\frac{(12x)(x^{2}+1)^{3}-(6x^{2}-2)(6x)(x^{2}+1)^{2}}{((x^{2}+1)^{3})^{2}}[/tex]

which simplifies to:

[tex]f^{4}(x)=\frac{12x^{3}+12x-6x^{3}+12x}{(x^{2}+1)^{4}}[/tex]

[tex]f^{4}(x)=\frac{6x^{3}+24x}{(x^{2}+1)^{4}}[/tex]

now, we can find f^{4}(0):

[tex]f^{4}(x)=\frac{6(0)^{3}+24(0)}{((0)^{2}+1)^{4}}[/tex]

which yields:

[tex]f^{4}(0)=0[/tex]

so now we can complete the fourth order Maclaurin polynomial:

[tex]f(x)=0+1x+\frac{0}{2!}x^{2}-\frac{2}{3!}x^{3}+\frac{0}{4!}x^{4}[/tex]

which simplifies to:

[tex]f(x)=x-\frac{1}{3}x^{3}[/tex]

you can find the graph of the four polynomials in the attached picture.

So the first, second, third and fourth order Maclaurin polynomials of f(x)=arctan(x) are:

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Answer:

28462.5

Step-by-step explanation:

During the first year it gained 10% and during his second year he gained 15% so you first add those and you get 25%.

Then you multiply 25% with 37,950.

25/100 * 37950 = 948,750/100

= 9487.5

To get the original amount you subtract 9487.5 from 37,950

37,950 - 9487.5 = 28462.5

So the original amount was 28462.5

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

x² + 7x + 10 = 0

x = [-7 ± √(7² - 4·1·10)]/(2·1) = [-7 ± √9[/2 = [-7 ± 3]/2 = -2, -5

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

Suppose the radius is 1. The parametric equations for the circle are

x = cosθ

y = sinθ

x:y = 3:1

tanθ = ⅓

cosθ = 3/√(1²+3²) =  3/√10

sinθ = 1/√10

The solutions are (3/√10, 1/√10) and (-3/√10, -1/√10).

Answer:

5 is the answer to your question

Step-by-step explanation:

the numbers are increasing by +5

Answer:

A'(0,-8) B'(5,-7) C'(3,0) D'(2,-5)

A''(0,8) B''(-5,7) C''(-3,0) D''(-2,5)

Step-by-step explanation:

first everything is shifted down 8 units (x,y-8), so we get A'(0,-8) B'(5,-7) C'(3,0) D'(2,-5)

then you multiply by -1 A''(0,8) B''(-5,7) C''(-3,0) D''(-2,5)

Answer:

By the Empirical Rule, approximately 68% of the bulbs have lifetimes that lie within 1 standard deviation to either side of the mean.

Step-by-step explanation:

The Empirical Rule states that, for a normally distributed random variable:

Approximately 68% of the measures are within 1 standard deviation of the mean.

Approximately 95% of the measures are within 2 standard deviations of the mean.

Approximately 99.7% of the measures are within 3 standard deviations of the mean.

What percentage of the bulbs have lifetimes that lie within 1 standard deviation to either side of the mean?

By the Empirical Rule, approximately 68% of the bulbs have lifetimes that lie within 1 standard deviation to either side of the mean.