Add the matrices to find the answer.

(0,8)+(7,-52) eso es la problema

Answer:

parallel lines

Step-by-step explanation:

Lines IJ and KL are parallel. Since in a dilation there is no rotation, a line becomes either the same line or a parallel line.

Answer:

1.015

Step-by-step explanation:

just find their average, which is adding them up and dividing by 2

(1.01 + 1.02)/2 = 1.015

The decimal number exactly halfway between 1.01 and 1.02 is 1.015.

A decimal numeral system is the standard system for denoting integer and non-integer numbers. The way of denoting numbers in the decimal system is often referred to as decimal notation.

The given numbers are,

1.01 and 1.02

Now to find the halfway between the number we need to find their sum first and then the half of the sum.

So, the sum of number,

1.01 + 1.02 = 1.03

Now for half way divide the sum by 2

1.03/2 = 1.015

Hence, The decimal number exactly halfway between 1.01 and 1.02 is 1.015.

More about decimal :

https://brainly.com/question/825223

#SPJ2

Answer:

To make only 12% profit, the discount should be increased to 16%

Step-by-step explanation:

The given information are;

The percentage discount on goods = 10%

The profit made from the sale of the watch = 20%

The amount the watch was sold = Rs.10,710

The percentage VAT included = 13%

Let the recommended selling price of the watch = X

Therefore, we have;

The price after 10% discount = 0.9×X

Which gives;

The amount the watch was sold = Price after 10% discount + Price after 10% discount ×VAT

The amount the watch was sold = 0.9×X + 0.9×X×13% = 0.9×X + 0.9×X×0.13

Rs.10,710 = 0.9×X + 0.9×X×0.13 = 1.017×X

X = Rs.10,170/1.017 = Rs. 10,000

The recommended selling price of the watch = Rs. 10,000

The profit was 20% of selling price which gives;

Profit = Selling price - Cost price = Rs. 9,000  - Rs. X = 0.2 × Rs. X

9000 - X = 0.2×X

9000 = X + 0.2×X  = 1.2×X

X = 9000/1.2 = Rs. 7,500

To make only 12% profit, we have;

12% of Rs. 7,500 = 0.12 × Rs.7,500 = Rs. 900

Selling price = Cost price + Profit = Rs. 7,500 + Rs. 900 = Rs. 8,400

Percentage discount from Rs.10,000 to get Rs. 8,400 is given as follows;

Percentage discount = Y%

Therefore;

Y = (10,000 - 8,400)/10000 × 100 = 0.16 × 100 = 16%

Y = 16%

Therefore, to make only 12% profit, the discount should be increased to 16%.

Answer:

38.5 miles

Step-by-step explanation:

Proportions:

4 inches ⇔ 10 miles

15.4 inches ⇔ M miles

M = 15.4*10/4

M = 38.5 miles

Answer:  38.5    

Step-by-step explanation: cuz im smart

45125|5

9025|5

1805|5

361|19

19|19

1

[tex]45125=5^3\cdot 19^2=5^2\cdot 5\cdot19^2[/tex]

It's 5

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

Let the price of the item = Rs x

13% of x = 390

[tex]\frac{13}{100}*x=390\\\\\\x = 390*\frac{100}{13}\\\\\\[/tex]

x = Rs. 3000

The point shown on g(x) is (1,3)

If x = 1 and y = 3, this means x is multiplied by 3 ( 1 x 3 = 3)

This makes g(x) 3x^2

The answer is A.

Answer:

B

Step-by-step explanation:

B sqrtb is right in front of 2, so 2 squared is 4, so a little bit more than 2 squared will be a little more than four.

Answer:

C) C < 4

Step-by-step explanation:

because c is on the right side of four on the number line

Answer:

d. [tex]\angle BIJ \cong \angle CGJ\ and\ \angle BJI \cong \angle CJG[/tex]

Step-by-step explanation:

Here, we are given a diagram in which there are two triangles to be considered:

[tex]\triangle CJG \ and\ \triangle BJI[/tex].

We can consider the whole diagram in the form as attached in the answer area.

To find:

The conditions to prove [tex]\triangle CJG \sim \triangle BJI[/tex].

Solution:

First of all, let us learn about AAA similarity.

AAA stands for Angle Angle Angle.

i.e. when we prove that the all the three corresponding angles of two triangles are equal ,the triangles are similar.

There is one more property of the triangles, that if two angles of two triangles are equal then the third angle of the triangles will also be equal to each other.

So, actually, to prove that [tex]\triangle CJG \sim \triangle BJI[/tex], we need the conditions that two corresponding angles of the triangles are equal to each other, then we can say that third angle will also be equal. Therefore the triangles will be similar to each other.

Let us consider the corresponding angles:

[tex]\angle BIJ \ and \ \angle CGJ\ ,\ \angle BJI \ and \ \angle CJG\ , \ \angle IBJ\ and \ \angle GCJ[/tex]

So, if we are given that any of the two above three pairs are equal/congruent to each other, we can prove [tex]\triangle CJG \sim \triangle BJI[/tex].

Therefore, the correct answer is:

d. [tex]\angle BIJ \cong \angle CGJ\ and\ \angle BJI \cong \angle CJG[/tex]

Answer:

3 or at least i think

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

a= 138/59 - 8√5b B=69√5/1180 - a√5/40

Step-by-step explanation:

yuh

Answer:

[tex]\huge\boxed{x = 8}[/tex]

Step-by-step explanation:

[tex]\sf -18 = -3x+6\\Subtracting \ 6 \ to \ both \ sides\\-18-6 = -3x\\-24 = -3x\\Dividing \ both \ sides \ by \ -3\\8 = x\\OR\\x = 8[/tex]

Answer:

x = 8

Step-by-step explanation:

Here, -3x = -24

x = 8

hope that helps you

Answer:

the slope is 60

Step-by-step explanation:

the slope is the number multiplying the x value, or t in this case.

Answer:

The slope is 60, and create the graph by dragging one point to (0,0) and one point to (1,60).

Step-by-step explanation:

If we have the proportional relationship [tex]d=60t[/tex], then the slope will be what we multiply t by to get d, therefore the slope is 60.

Since there is no y-intercept, the line WILL pass through the origin (0,0), so a point goes there.

If we make t 1, then d will be at point (1,60) because  [tex]60\cdot1=60[/tex].

Hope this helped!

Answer:

the result is 4.5 minutes.

- Erica runs 1/6 km in a minute.

- The school is 3/1 km away from her home.

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

well just do area, and since it's the same in each side 12×4= 144

Answer:

[tex] x = \sqrt {40}[/tex]

Step-by-step explanation:

Given is an isosceles triangle, dotted line is the bisector of top angle which is also perpendicular bisector of the base of the triangle. Hence, by Pythagoras theorem:

[tex] {x}^{2} = {6}^{2} + ({ \frac{4}{2} })^{2} \\ = 36 + 4 \\ = 40 \\ \therefore \: x = \sqrt{40} \\ [/tex]

Answer:

D. x = sqrt(52).

Step-by-step explanation:

Since the line measuring 6 units bisects the top angle, there are two right angles. We can use the Pythagorean Theorem to solve for x.

a^2 + b^2 = x^2

4^2 + 6^2 = x^2

16 + 36 = x^2

52 = x^2

x = sqrt(52)

x = sqrt(2 * 2 * 13)

x = 2sqrt(13)

x = 7.211102551.

Hope this helps!

[tex](x+3)(x+1)(x-2)=\\(x^2+x+3x+3)(x-2)=\\(x^2+4x+3)(x-2)=\\x^3-2x^2+4x^2-8x+3x-6=\\x^3+2x^2-5x-6[/tex]

Answer:

x =  2 units

Step-by-step explanation:

Diagonals of rectangle are congruent and bisect each other

Therefore, OB = OA

   5x + 4 =  3x + 8

    5x = 3x + 8 -4

    5x = 3x + 4

5x - 3x = 4

      2x =  4

      x = 4/2

      x =2

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

1/20 of 700:  1/20•700 = 35

700 + n•35 = 1050

n•35 = 350

n = 10

Answer:

17 quarters

Step-by-step explanation:

Let q = quarters

n = nickels

.25q + .05n = 5.90

we have 16 more nickels than quarters so add 16 quarters to make them equal

n = q+16

Substitute

.25q + .05( q+16) = 5.90

Distribute

.25q+.5q+.80=5.90

Combine like terms

.30q +.8 = 5.90

Subtract .8 from each side

.30q = 5.10

Divide each side by .3

.3q/.3 = 5.1/.3

q = 17

Answer:

Gisel have:

17

quarters

Step-by-step explanation:

1 nickel = 5 cents

1 quarter = 25 cents

1 dollar = 100 cents

5,90 dollars = 5,9*100 = 590 cents

then:

n = t + 16

5n + 25t = 590

n = quantity of nickels

t = quantity of quarters

5(t+16) + 25t = 590

5*t + 5*16 + 25t = 590

5t + 80 + 25t = 590

30 t = 590 - 80

30 t = 510

t = 510 / 30

t = 17

n = t + 16

n = 17 + 16

n = 33

Check:

5n + 25t = 590

5*33 + 25*17 = 590

165 + 425 = 590

The equation of the line is y = 3x - 4, so the inequality is y <= 3x - 4.

Answer:

y <= 3x - 4

Standard form: [tex]3x-y-4\geq 0[/tex]

Copy-paste: 3x-y-4>=0

Hey there! I'm happy to help!

To find the surface area of a sphere, here is what you do.

You square the radius.

4²=16

You multiply by 4.

16×4=64

And you multiply by pi!

64×π=64π

Therefore, the surface area of the sphere is A. 64π units². It's that easy!

Now you can find the surface area of a sphere! Have a wonderful day! :D

Question :-

Answer :-

[tex] \rule{180pt}{3pt}[/tex]

Diagram :-

[tex]\setlength{\unitlength}{1.2cm}\begin{picture}(0,0)\thicklines\qbezier(2.3,0)(2.121,2.121)(0,2.3)\qbezier(-2.3,0)(-2.121,2.121)(0,2.3)\qbezier(-2.3,0)(-2.121,-2.121)(0,-2.3)\qbezier(2.3,0)(2.121,-2.121)(-0,-2.3)\qbezier(-2.3,0)(0,-1)(2.3,0)\qbezier(-2.3,0)(0,1)(2.3,0)\thinlines\qbezier (0,0)(0,0)(0.2,0.3)\qbezier (0.3,0.4)(0.3,0.4)(0.5,0.7)\qbezier (0.6,0.8)(0.6,0.8)(0.8,1.1)\qbezier (0.9,1.2)(0.9,1.2)(1.1,1.5)\qbezier (1.2,1.6)(1.2,1.6)(1.38,1.9)\put(0.2,1){\bold{4 \: units}}\end{picture}[/tex]

Solution :-

As per the provided information in the given question, we have been given that the radius of the sphere is 4 units. We have been asked to find or calculate the surface area of the sphere.

To calculate the surface area of the sphere, we will use the formula below :-

[tex]\bigstar \:\:\:\boxed{\sf{\:\:Surface \: Area_{(Sphere)} = 4\pi r^2 \:\:}}[/tex]

Substitute the given values into the above formula and solve for surface area:

[tex]\sf:\implies Surface \: Area_{(Sphere)} = 4\pi r^2[/tex]

[tex]\sf:\implies Surface \: Area_{(Sphere)} = 4 \times \pi \times (4 \: units)^2[/tex]

[tex]\sf:\implies Surface \: Area_{(Sphere)} = (4 \: units)^2 \times 4 \times \pi[/tex]

[tex]\sf:\implies Surface \: Area_{(Sphere)} = 16 \: units^2 \times 4 \times \pi[/tex]

[tex]\sf:\implies \bold{Surface \: Area_{(Sphere)} = 64\pi \: units^2}[/tex]

Therefore :-

[tex]\\[/tex]

Learn more about the surface area of the sphere at https://brainly.com/question/28988747

Have a great day! <33

Answer:

50%

Step-by-step explanation:

its 50% it will land on head and 50% it will land on tails since there is only two sides on a coin

Answer:

1/2 or .5

p(1/2)

Step-by-step explanation:

its simple, there are 2 sides to a coin, so there are 2 possible outcomes. and the question asks what is the probability of the coin landing on one or in other wrds, its asking what is te probilitity of one of the two heads to be up. SO the probility is 1/2

Answer:

25,886.01 in²

Step-by-step explanation:

The area of shaded region = Area of the outter circle (the larger circle) - area of the inner circle (the smaller circle)

Area of a circle = πr²

Radius of larger circle = PO = 93.4 in

Area of the larger circle = 3.14*93.4² = 27,391.98 in²

Radius of smaller circle = PO - RQ = 93.4 - 71.5 = 21.9

Area of smaller circle = 3.14*21.9² = 1,505.97 in²

Area of shaded region = 27,391.98 - 1,505.97 = 25,886.01 in²

Answer: 7√2

Step-by-step explanation: To simplify a square root where the number inside the radical is not a perfect square like the square root of 98, we start by making a factor tree for the number inside.

98 factors as 2 · 49 and if you know your perfect squares,

you should be able to recognize 49 as 7 · 7.

What we are looking for in our factor tree

are pairs of factors that are the same.

If a factor pairs up, it will come out of the radical.

If a factor does not pair up, then it stays inside the radical.

So here, since our 7's pair up, a 7 will come out of the radical.

Since the 2 does not pair up, it stays inside the radical.

So our answer is 7√2.

Answer:

the value of angle A is 82.819°

Answer:

10

Step-by-step explanation:

(-1 - 3i)(-1 + 3i) = 1 - 3i + 3i -9i²

1 - 9i²; i² = -1, therefore 1 - 9(-1) = 1 + 9 = 10

Answer:

18 inches

Step-by-step explanation:

To to this you would just divide 54 by 3 and you would get how far away from the endpoint which is 18 inches

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

Firstly, we will use the formula π × d

Which will be 22\7 × 28 (this is the radius multiplied by 2)

After multiplying you will get 88 cm as your perimeter

=88 cm