A rectangle’s perimeter is equal to 27 plus its width. The length of the rectangle is four times its width. What is the width of the rectangle in units?

Answer:

4

Step-by-step explanation:

There are 4 reflectional symmetry

Answer:

(B) -4

Step-by-step explanation:

so, do the multiplications and see :

(a - 1/a)² = a² - 2×a/a + 1/a² = a² - 2 + 1/a²

(a + 1/a)² = a² + 2×a/a + 1/a² = a² + 2 + 1/a²

now we need to subtract the second from the first :

(a² - 2 + 1/a²) - (a² + 2 + 1/a²) =

= a² - 2 + 1/a² - a² - 2 - 1/a² = -4

and that's it !

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Answer:

  (e) f′(x)=2xg(x)+x²g′(x)

Step-by-step explanation:

The product rule applies.

  (uv)' = u'v +uv'

__

Here, we have u=x² and v=g(x). Then u'=2x and v'=g'(x).

  f(x) = x²·g(x)

  f'(x) = 2x·g(x) +x²·g'(x)

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

The steps and their reasons for the equation 8(y - 3) = - 40 are given below.

The allocation of weights to the important variables that produce the calculation's optimum is referred to as a direct consequence.

The equation is given below.

8(y - 3) = - 40

            Steps                                               Reason

       8(y - 3) = - 40                                          Given

       8y - 24 = - 40                                Distributive property

8y - 24 + 24 = - 24 + 24                 Addition Property of Equality

               8y = - 16                                      Simplifying

          8y / 8 = - 16/8                       Division property of equality

                  y = - 2                                       Simplifying

More about the solution of the equation link is given below.

https://brainly.com/question/545403

#SPJ2

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

(1 + 2i) / (1 + i)                            Rationalize the denominator.

(1 + 2i)(1+i) / (1 + i)(1-i)                  Remove the brarckets

(1 + i + 2i - 2) / (1 - i + i  - i^2)     Combine

-1 + 3i / (2)                                i^2 = - 1 in the denominator

Answer:

A 6 Packages of buns and 5 packages of wieners.

Step-by-step explanation:

Because if you multiply 6x10 you get 60 and if you multiply 5x12 you get 60 exactly 1 wieners per bun

Answer:

B) 1 unit to the left

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

-6

Step-by-step explanation:

27-3/2x=36

53-3x=72

3x=-18

x=-6

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Answer:

  B B C C A A

Step-by-step explanation:

If we number the equations 1 to 6 left to right, then we have ...

Let

ATQ

[tex]\\ \sf \longmapsto Area=Length\times Width[/tex]

[tex]\\ \sf \longmapsto x(x+3)=28[/tex]

[tex]\\ \sf \longmapsto x^2+3x=28[/tex]

[tex]\\ \sf \longmapsto x^2+3x-28=0[/tex]

[tex]\\ \sf \longmapsto x^2+7x-4x-28=0[/tex]

[tex]\\ \sf \longmapsto x(x+7)-4(x+7)=0[/tex]

[tex]\\ \sf \longmapsto (x-4)(x+7)=0[/tex]

[tex]\\ \sf \longmapsto x=4\:or\:x=-7[/tex]

[tex]\\ \sf \longmapsto Width=4units[/tex]

[tex]\\ \sf \longmapsto Length=4+3=7units[/tex]

Let W be the random variable representing your winnings from playing the game. Then

[tex]P(W=w)=\begin{cases}\text{prob. of rolling an even number}=\frac12&\text{if }w=\$0.50-\$1=-\$0.50\\\text{prob. of rolling a 1}=\frac16&\text{if }w=\$2-\$1=\$1\\\text{prob. of rolling 3 or 5}=\frac13&\text{if }w=\$1-\$1=\$0\\0&\text{otherwise}\end{cases}[/tex]

In short, you have a 1/6 chance of profiting from the game, and a 5/6 chance of losing money. So the odds of winning are (1/6)/(5/6) = 1/5 or 1 to 5.

Answer:

H0: µd = 0 (claim)

H1: µd ≠ 0

This is a two-tail t-test for µd

Step-by-step explanation:

This is a paired (dependent) sample test, with its hypothesis is written as :

H0: µd = 0

H1: µd ≠ 0

From the equality sign used in the hypothesis declaration, a not equal to ≠ sign in the alternative hypothesis is used for a two tailed t test

The data isn't attached, however bce the test statistic cannot be obtained. However, the test statistic formular for a paired sample is given as :

T = dbar / (Sd/√n)

dbar = mean of the difference ; Sd = standard deviation of the difference.

Answers:

The boxplot is shown below.

=========================================

Explanation:

What your teacher wants is the five number summary.

This consists of:

Given in that exact order.

The given data set is  { 8, 19, 11, 20, 2, 14, 17, 9, 15}

This sorts to  {2, 8, 9, 11, 14, 15, 17, 19, 20}

From this sorted set, we see that 2 is the smallest item. So this is the min value. This is data point 1.

The max is the largest item, which in this case is 20, so this value goes in the box for data point 5.

---------------------

Count out the number of values in the sorted set. You should count out n = 9 items.

Because n is odd, this means the median is in slot n/2 = 9/2 = 4.5 = 5

The value in the 5th slot is 14 which is the median (data point 3).

-----------------------

Once you determine the median, break the sorted set up like so

L = {2, 8, 9, 11}

U = {15, 17, 19, 20}

L is the lower set of values smaller than the median

U is the upper set of values larger than the median

The median itself is not part of set L and not part of set U either. It's ignored entirely from this point on.

From here, we find the middle values of L and U

You should find that the middle value of L is (8+9)/2 = 17/2 = 8.5 which is the value of Q1 (data point 2)

And also, the middle value of set U is (17+19)/2 = 36/2 = 18 which is the value of Q3 (data point 4)

-----------------------

To wrap everything up, we have this five number summary

These will determine the features of the boxplot as shown below.

In this case, there are no outliers.

Answer:

1

Step-by-step explanation:

the maximum of f(X)=sin(X) is 1

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Answer:

  21.  D

  22.  C

Step-by-step explanation:

21. The expansion of the given expression is ...

  [tex]\displaystyle -\frac{1}{2}\left(-\frac{3}{2}x+6x+1\right)-3x=\frac{3}{4}x-3x-\frac{1}{2}-3x\\\\=\left(\frac{3}{4}-3-3\right)x-\frac{1}{2}=\boxed{-5\frac{1}{4}x-\frac{1}{2}}[/tex]

__

22. The least likely team to make the championship game is the one with the lowest probability.

  3/8 < 1/2 < 2/3 < 4/5

The Bulldogs are least likely to play in the championship game.

First, I'll make f(x) = sin(px) + cos(px) because this expression shows up quite a lot, and such a substitution makes life a bit easier for us.

Let's apply the first derivative of this f(x) function.

[tex]f(x) = \sin(px)+\cos(px)\\\\f'(x) = \frac{d}{dx}[f(x)]\\\\f'(x) = \frac{d}{dx}[\sin(px)+\cos(px)]\\\\f'(x) = \frac{d}{dx}[\sin(px)]+\frac{d}{dx}[\cos(px)]\\\\f'(x) = p\cos(px)-p\sin(px)\\\\ f'(x) = p(\cos(px)-\sin(px))\\\\[/tex]

Now apply the derivative to that to get the second derivative

[tex]f''(x) = \frac{d}{dx}[f'(x)]\\\\f''(x) = \frac{d}{dx}[p(\cos(px)-\sin(px))]\\\\ f''(x) = p*\left(\frac{d}{dx}[\cos(px)]-\frac{d}{dx}[\sin(px)]\right)\\\\ f''(x) = p*\left(-p\sin(px)-p\cos(px)\right)\\\\ f''(x) = -p^2*\left(\sin(px)+\cos(px)\right)\\\\ f''(x) = -p^2*f(x)\\\\[/tex]

We can see that f '' (x) is just a scalar multiple of f(x). That multiple of course being -p^2.

Keep in mind that we haven't actually found dy/dx yet, or its second derivative counterpart either.

-----------------------------------

Let's compute dy/dx. We'll use f(x) as defined earlier.

[tex]y = \ln\left(\sin(px)+\cos(px)\right)\\\\y = \ln\left(f(x)\right)\\\\\frac{dy}{dx} = \frac{d}{dx}\left[y\right]\\\\\frac{dy}{dx} = \frac{d}{dx}\left[\ln\left(f(x)\right)\right]\\\\\frac{dy}{dx} = \frac{1}{f(x)}*\frac{d}{dx}\left[f(x)\right]\\\\\frac{dy}{dx} = \frac{f'(x)}{f(x)}\\\\[/tex]

Use the chain rule here.

There's no need to plug in the expressions f(x) or f ' (x) as you'll see in the last section below.

Now use the quotient rule to find the second derivative of y

[tex]\frac{d^2y}{dx^2} = \frac{d}{dx}\left[\frac{dy}{dx}\right]\\\\\frac{d^2y}{dx^2} = \frac{d}{dx}\left[\frac{f'(x)}{f(x)}\right]\\\\\frac{d^2y}{dx^2} = \frac{f''(x)*f(x)-f'(x)*f'(x)}{(f(x))^2}\\\\\frac{d^2y}{dx^2} = \frac{f''(x)*f(x)-(f'(x))^2}{(f(x))^2}\\\\[/tex]

If you need a refresher on the quotient rule, then

[tex]\frac{d}{dx}\left[\frac{P}{Q}\right] = \frac{P'*Q - P*Q'}{Q^2}\\\\[/tex]

where P and Q are functions of x.

-----------------------------------

This then means

[tex]\frac{d^2y}{dx^2} + \left(\frac{dy}{dx}\right)^2 + p^2\\\\\frac{f''(x)*f(x)-(f'(x))^2}{(f(x))^2} + \left(\frac{f'(x)}{f(x)}\right)^2 + p^2\\\\\frac{f''(x)*f(x)-(f'(x))^2}{(f(x))^2} +\frac{(f'(x))^2}{(f(x))^2} + p^2\\\\\frac{f''(x)*f(x)-(f'(x))^2+(f'(x))^2}{(f(x))^2} + p^2\\\\\frac{f''(x)*f(x)}{(f(x))^2} + p^2\\\\[/tex]

Note the cancellation of -(f ' (x))^2 with (f ' (x))^2

------------------------------------

Let's then replace f '' (x) with -p^2*f(x)

This allows us to form  ( f(x) )^2 in the numerator to cancel out with the denominator.

[tex]\frac{f''(x)*f(x)}{(f(x))^2} + p^2\\\\\frac{-p^2*f(x)*f(x)}{(f(x))^2} + p^2\\\\\frac{-p^2*(f(x))^2}{(f(x))^2} + p^2\\\\-p^2 + p^2\\\\0\\\\[/tex]

So this concludes the proof that [tex]\frac{d^2y}{dx^2} + \left(\frac{dy}{dx}\right)^2 + p^2 = 0\\\\[/tex] when [tex]y = \ln\left(\sin(px)+\cos(px)\right)\\\\[/tex]

Side note: This is an example of showing that the given y function is a solution to the given second order linear differential equation.

Step-by-step explanation:

Many factors would be used to assess the effectiveness of a human rights campaign, including the following:

Social Influence. Direct Interpersonal Reach. Participant Observation. Reputation. Volume of Search & Interest. Website Traffic.

National Research.

Answer:

Hello,

Just using the theorem of Thalès,

Step-by-step explanation:

Let say h the hight of the building

[tex]\dfrac{h}{3} =\dfrac{42.75}{1.23}\\\\h=104.268296...\approx{104(m)}[/tex]

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Answer:

  B)  K′ = (–2,2), L′ = (1,2), M′ = (1,–1), N′ = (–2,–1)

Step-by-step explanation:

Translation 2 units right adds 2 to the x-coordinate.

Translation 4 units upward adds 4 to the y-coordinate.

The translation can be represented by the relation ...

  (x, y) ⇒ (x +2, y +4)

__

You can choose the correct answer by looking at the translation of K.

  K(-4, -2) ⇒ K'(-4+2, -2+4) = K'(-2, 2) . . . . . matches choice B

Answer:

D ) none of these .. i think this help you

Answer:

4 scoops of ice cream

Step-by-step explanation:

Plug in the total cost, number of scoops of nuts, and number of liquid toppings into the formula. Then, solve for s:

C = 0.50s + 0.35n + 0.25t

3.55 = 0.50s + 0.35(3) + 0.25(2)

3.55 = 0.50s + 1.05 + 0.5

3.55 = 0.50s + 1.55

2 = 0.50s

4 = s

So, the sundae had 4 scoops of ice cream.

Answer:

Pvalue

Step-by-step explanation:

The Pvalue measure which takes up a value in the range 0 - 1 is a statistical measure used on hypothesis testing to measure the likelihood of obtaining result atleast as extreme as the outcome of the statistical hypothesis test, The Pvalue is used in hypothesis testing to make a case for the alternative hypothesis, which involves being compared with the α - value.

Lower p values favors the adoption of alternative depending on how extreme th α-value is. The Pvalue is dependent on the value if the test statistic.

Answer:

586 cm^3 and 486 in^2

Step-by-step explanation:

4) The volume of the triangular prims is (1/2)*(a*c*h) = 0.5*(8*9*16)=586 cm^3

5) Wrapping paper needed is equal to the surface area of the cube, 6s^2=486 in^2

Answer:

The equation of the line is y = -2/3x - 29/3

Step-by-step explanation:

The slope of these points (-7,-5) and (-1,-9) is m = -2/3

Once you plug that into the y = mx + b equation, you can see that the y-intercept is -29/3.

Put all of that into the y = mx + b equation and you'll get -->  y = -2/3x - 29/3

Answer:

1/4 cup each

Step-by-step explanation:

Take the amount of ice cream and divide by 3

3/4÷ 3

Copy dot flip

3/4 * 1/3

Rewriting

3/3 * 1/4

1/4 cup each

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

1500(1.055)^7= 2182.02