Answer:
autoethnography
Explanation:
you have been a carrier of hsv-2 for many years, with sporadic outbreaks perhaps once a year. you are pregnant and about to deliver your baby. what does your doctor suggest, now that you currently have an outbreak of herpes lesions?
Doctor will suggest cesarean section. Neonatal herpes is most likely to affect newborns if the mother contracts it late in pregnancy.
This is because a pregnant mother who has recently contracted the virus does not yet have antibodies against it, so the baby is not naturally protected during birth. The likelihood of the virus being present in the birth canal during delivery is also increased because a new herpes infection is frequently active. The risk of passing the virus to the foetus in women who have genital herpes prior to conception is extremely low. The reason for this is that their immune systems produce antibodies that are momentarily transferred to the foetus through the placenta. The antibodies aid in the baby's protection even if herpes is present in the birth canal during delivery.
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which anesthetic solution, no longer used in dentistry, is still available in multidose vials and is used in medicine as an antiarrhythmic agent? group of answer choices mepivacaine bupivacaine carbocaine procaine
An anesthetic solution, no longer used in dentistry, is still available in multidose vials and is used in medicine as an antiarrhythmic agent is Procaine.
The anti-arrhythmic medication procaine is still offered in multi-dose vials in the medical field. Combining an injectable antibiotic with a local anesthetic, we have procaine penicillin. The list of indications for use is quite diverse, but some of them include the treatment of syphilis in all stages, the management of mild to moderate pneumococcal pneumonia, and the use of an adjunctive medication in the management of diphtheria when combined with intramuscular (IM) antitoxin.
Drugs called "antiarrhythmics" are used to both prevent and cure irregular or rapid heartbeats. They can help lessen symptoms and prevent potentially fatal consequences. These medications stop some of the irregular and excess electrical impulses.
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A patient with BLANK a in place does not want any emergency procedure including BLANK
A patient with cardiac arrest, a in place does not want any emergency procedure including surgery.
What is emergency?Emergency is an unpredictable event that requires immediate action to protect lives or property. It can be a natural disaster such as an earthquake, flood, or tornado, or a man-made disaster such as a building fire or hazardous material accident. In an emergency, quick and effective response is essential. That's why it's important to have an emergency plan in place and to be aware of ways to protect yourself and your family. Emergency preparedness includes having a plan in place and the necessary supplies on hand to respond to and recover from an emergency. It also includes staying informed about potential dangers and knowing what to do when an emergency arises.
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the client with bipolar disorder, manic phase, appears at the nurse's station wearing a transparent shirt, miniskirt, high heels, 10 bracelets, and eight necklaces. her makeup is overdone and she is not wearing underwear. the nurse should:
prior to providing an injection, the topical agent should remain at the site of penetration for about 4 minutes. anesthesia should be achieved to a depth of approximately 5 to 6 mm into the tissue. group of answer choices both statements are true. both statements are false. the first statement is true; the second statement is false. the first statement is false; the second statement is true.
Both the given statements about providing the anesthesia are false.
Anesthesia is a medical or veterinary term for a controlled, temporary loss of sensation or awareness. Some or all of the following symptoms may be present: analgesia, paralysis, amnesia, and unconsciousness. An individual who is anesthetized is one who is under the influence of anesthetic drugs.
Anesthesia is a medical treatment that alleviates pain during procedures such as surgery, certain screening and diagnostic tests, tissue sample removal (for example, skin biopsies), and dental work. It makes it possible for people to have procedures that allow them to live healthier and longer lives. A cocktail of medications that puts you to sleep in preparation for surgery or another medical procedure is known as general anesthesia.
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The focus of________ prevention programs is avoiding additional medical problems; the focus of_______prevention programs is functioning.
The focus of tertiary prevention programs is avoiding additional medical problems; the focus of quaternary prevention programs is functioning.
It is used on patients who are exhibiting symptoms and tries to lessen the intensity of the illness as well as any potential aftereffects. Tertiary prevention aims to lessen the impact of the disease once it has been established in a person, whereas secondary prevention attempts to stop the beginning of illness. tertiary prevention involve efforts to reduce side effects, stop future disease or disorder-related consequences, stop relapse, and restore the best level of physical or psychological functioning possible. Interventions for rehabilitation following illness, injury, or disability are blood flow included in tertiary prevention as well as those for preventing more morbidity, limiting impairment, and avoiding mortality. Primary care is provided by the patients' primary healthcare providers, secondary care is provided by specialists, and tertiary care is more advanced specialised care provided within a hospital.
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many people are aware of the health hazards of being overweight, and yet many people have difficulty resisting an extra dessert. that is because:
the overall significance of the effects of a single such action.
the effects—whether positive or negative, long-term or short-term—that result from a variety of activities that take place throughout a region or area, where each consequence may not have much of an influence when considered alone.
These effects can be brought on by increasing traffic volumes, the cumulative effect of a number of agricultural practices leading to more extensive chemical use and output, etc.
Cumulative impacts take into account time since they should estimate the toll that actions taken in the past, present, and reasonably foreseeable future will have on environmental resources.
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Complete Question :-
many people are aware of the health hazards of being overweight, and yet many people have difficulty resisting an extra dessert. that is because:
A. the consequences of a single such action are of cumulative significance
B. the consequences for doing so are highly probable
C. there are no consequences for doing so
D. the consequences for doing so are very delayed
the nursing student is learning how to care for clients whose death is expected within a limited period of time. which statement makes the faculty member believe the student has mastered this topic?
Inferring from the fact that the student has mastered this subject that many patients are aware they have a terminal through interpreting nonverbal communication.
A terminal sickness is one in which death is predicted to occur in a short amount of time. Discussions with these clients and their families are held with the nurse and other healthcare experts present. Many patients learn they have a terminal medicine by nonverbal cues from their loved ones and medical staff, rather than being explicitly told. Competent patients have the option to agree or object to any medical treatment, including life-sustaining procedures. Culture may have an impact on how much information is sought as well as which family members should be told.
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when a patient becomes dizzy when attempting to stand, due to changes in blood vessels, what are the most appropriate instructions to give?
when a patient becomes dizzy when attempting to stand, due to changes in blood vessels, you should give instructions of get up slowly.
Veins, capillaries, and arteries are the three different types of blood vessels. Every one of these contributes to the circulation process in a very distinct way. Oxygenated blood leaves the heart through arteries. Although they have a robust exterior, they also have an inside that is smooth and lined with epithelial cells, which allows blood to circulate freely. Blood vessels move waste away from organs and tissues and deliver nutrients to those areas. The vasculature's contribution to the body's oxygenation is one of the system's main goals and most important functions. The inferior vena cava and superior vena cava are the diabetes mellitus two major veins that carry blood from the legs and abdomen to the heart, respectively.
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Which of the following pathways would be activated in the liver? A) gluconeogenesis. B) TCA cycle. C) ketone body synthesis. D) Both A and C
Gluconeogenesis pathway would be activated in the liver. Non-carbohydrate substrates undergo a process called glucoseneogenesis, which results in the production of glucose.
Gluconeogenesis (GNG) is a metabolic process by which some carbon substrates that aren't carbohydrates are converted into glucose. In addition to bacteria, fungi, and other microbes, it occurs in all living things. In vertebrates, the liver and the cortex of the kidneys are the primary locations for gluconeogenesis to take place. One of the two main methods that humans and many other animals employ to regulate blood sugar levels and prevent low levels is the breakdown of glycogen. Gluconeogenesis happens in ruminants regardless of fasting, low-carb diets, exercise, etc. because dietary carbs frequently get digested chest tube by rumen microbes. During fasting, famine, low-carb diets, or periods of strenuous exercise, the procedure takes place in a lot of other animals.
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on the first postoperative day. the nurse finds an older male client disoriented and trying to climb over the bed railing. previously he was oriented to person place and time on admission. which intervention should the nurse implement first? assess the client for pain.
The nurse should review with the client that he is in the hospital.
Postoperative care is the treatment you receive following a surgical procedure. The type of postoperative care you require is determined by the type of surgery you had as well as your medical history. Pain management and wound care are frequently included. Postoperative care begins immediately after surgery.
Postoperative fever, atelectasis, wound infection, embolism, and deep vein thrombosis are all common general postoperative complications (DVT). Postoperative complications are most common between one and three days after surgery. Proper hydration is crucial for adequate wound healing. Dehydration can contribute to poor oxygen perfusion and prevent necessary nutrients from reaching the wound. Furthermore, staying hydrated can help to prevent complications like deep vein thrombosis and pulmonary embolism.
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the nutrition facts panel on a package of margarine shows that one serving provides 0.4 grams of fat. based on this information, under which nutrient-claim category will the margarine fall?
It will fall in the Fat-free category as it says 0.4grams of fat which is negligible.
Carbohydrates and proteins provide 4 calories per gram, and fats provide 9 calories per gram. Fat is the most energy-dense nutrient, because it provides the most calories per gram (more than double carbohydrates and protein).Each gram of carbohydrate and protein yield 4 calories/gram. Each gram of fat yields 9 calories. A calorie is a measurement, just like a teaspoon or an inch. Calories are the amount of energy released when your body breaks down (digests and absorbs) food.Proteins provide 4 calories of energy per gram; however providing energy is not protein's most important function. Proteins provide structure to bones, muscles, and skin; support tissue growth, repair, and maintenance; and play a role in conducting most of the chemical reactions that take place in the body.Carbohydrates and proteins provide the same amount of energy per gram. Carbohydrates burn fastest in metabolism.
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a patient needs 0.300 g of a solid drug preparation per day. how many 10.0 mg tablets must be given to the patient per day?
30 tablets must be given to the patient per day for 0.300 g of solid drug preparation. In the realm of medicine, a tablet, often known as a pill, is referred to as an oral solid dosage or solid unit dose form.
A tablet is a solid unit dosage form of a drug or combination of pharmaceuticals that include the appropriate excipients. It is made up of a mixture of excipients and active chemicals, which are frequently in powder form and are crushed or pressed into a solid dosage. Tablets can be made using either compression or molding. For effective tableting, excipients include diluents, binders or granulating agents, glidants (flow aids), and lubricants; disintegrants to assist tablet break-up in the digestive tract; sweeteners or flavors to improve taste; and pigments to make the tablets visually appealing or to help.
The complete question is:
A patient needs 0.300 g of solid drug preparation per day. How many 10.0 mg tablets must be given to the patient per day?
A ) 3 tablets B ) 30 tablets C ) 33 tablets D ) 300 tablets E ) 330 tablets
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Decompression diving involves more risk than no-decompression diving, and without the proper precautions can become extremely hazardous.TRUE OR FALSE
michael finds that getting away from the office at lunchtime to take a long walk helps him control his stress. michael is using as a stress management technique. a. time management b. nutrition c. exercise d. relaxation
Michael is using as a stress management technique Exercise is the correct option for the given question so option C is correct
Stress management technique Mindfulness Meditation. Mindfulness meditation is a form of meditation that teaches individuals to be mindful and aware of their thoughts, feelings, and physical sensations in the present moment. This technique is designed to help individuals learn to observe their thoughts and feelings without judgment and to cultivate a sense of acceptance and compassion for themselves. Mindfulness meditation can be practiced for just a few minutes at a time and can be done anywhere, such as at home or in the workplace. During a mindfulness meditation session, individuals can focus their attention on their breath or on an object or phrase. This can help them to become more aware of their thoughts and feelings while allowing them to practice being non-judgmental and accepting of their experiences. Additionally, mindfulness meditation can help individuals recognize and manage stress triggers, allowing them to respond to challenging situations with greater composure.
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Drugs like paxil, prozac, and zoloft are ____ that alter levels of neurotransmitters such as serotonin and norepinephrine.
Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs)
Paxil and Prozac are select serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) meaning that these drugs bind to presynaptic serotonin reuptake transporter proteins and prevent them from removing serotonin from the synapse and is therefore denoted as option A.
What is a Drug?This is also known as medication and it consists of chemical compounds which are used to treat different forms of diseases and illnesses in the body system.
Drugs such as Paxil and Prozac are select serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) and have a mechanism of action which involves binding to presynaptic serotonin reuptake transporter proteins and prevent them from removing serotonin from the synapse.
This thereby makes it to be able to treat different health conditions such as depression and anxiety and is therefore the reason why option A was chosen as the correct choice.
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The full question is:
Drugs like Paxil and Prozac are used to treat depression and anxiety. Paxil and Prozac are select serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) meaning that these drugs ___.
a. bind to presynaptic serotonin reuptake transporter proteins and prevent them from removing serotonin from the synapse
b. bind to postsynaptic serotonin receptors and prevent serotonin molecules from activating the receptors
c. bind to presynaptic dopamine reuptake transporter proteins and prevent them from removing dopamine from the synapse and recycling them for reuse
d. bind to postsynaptic dopamine receptors and prevent dopamine molecules from activating the receptors
e. none of the answers are correct
to help decrease the threat of melanoma in a blonde-haired, fair-skinned patient at risk, which recommendations should the nurse provide? (select all that apply.)
To help decrease the threat of melanoma in a blonde-haired, fair-skinned patient at risk, the nurse should provide wear sunglass, Apply sunscreen 30 minutes prior to exposure and Consume fish oil and vitamin E.
The National Cancer Institute advises sun protection measures include wearing sunglasses and applying sunscreen. Water consumption won't stop melanoma from developing, but it will aid with heat exhaustion. The risk of getting melanoma is supposed to be reduced by green tea, fish oil, soy products, and vitamin E; vitamin K, on the other hand, can promote blood clotting and has not been proven to be effective.
Complete question:
To help decrease the threat of melanoma in a blonde-haired, fair-skinned patient at risk, which recommendations should the nurse provide? (Select all that apply.)
A. Wear sunglasses.
B. Drink plenty of water.
C. Eat plenty of foods high in vitamin K.
D. Apply sunscreen 30 minutes prior to exposure.
E. Consume fish oil and vitamin E.
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a nurse is preparing to suction a patient. the pulse is 65 and pulse oximetry is 94%. which finding will cause the nurse to stop suctioning?
Pulse oximetry reads 94% and the pulse is 65. Which discovery will prompt the nurse to halt suctioning? When oxygen saturation reaches 88%, stop.
A technique called pulse oximetry is performed to determine the blood's oxygen saturation level. It is a simple, painless test to determine how well oxygen is being delivered to the body parts that are farthest from the heart, such the arms and legs.A typical oximetry reading is what?
95% or more oxygen is considered to be a normal level. 90% of patients with sleep apnea or chronic lung illness may have normal levels. The "SpO2" value on a pulse oximeter displays the blood's oxygen content as a percentage. Call your healthcare practitioner if the SpO2 level you take at home is less than 95%.
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the nurse is preparing to delegate tasks to an unlicensed assistive personnel (uap) for a client who recently had a stroke and is suffering from mil hemiplegia. which task would be inappropriate for the nurse to delegate to the uap?
The task that is most inappropriate for the nurse to delegate to the unlicensed assistive personnel will be Initiating intravenous therapy.
Who is an unlicensed assistive personnel?An unlicensed assistive personnel is known as the individual that is unlicensed and is trained to offer an assistive role to nurses in the care for patients in the hospital.
The roles and responsibilities of an unlicensed assistive personnel include the following:
Observing, documenting and reporting clinical and treatment information, including patients' behavioral changes.Assisting with motion exercises and other rehabilitative measures.Taking and recording vital signs.The initial of intravenous therapy is an invasive procedure that requires the licensed medical professional to carry out and not an unlicensed assistive personnel.
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a disadvantage of using alfred binet’s concept of mental age in assessing intelligence is that
Adisadvantage of using alfred binet’s concept of mental age in assessing intelligence is that (A) it is inappropriate for adults.
What was Alfred Binet's theory?Alfred Binet's theory can be desceibed as the intelligence which can be defined by the comparison of the performance of children at the same idea however this concept stressed that there are certain tasks that most six-year-olds can complete however the Binet asserted that children who could not complete those tasks were below average.
It should be noted that this concept comes in term of intelligence in that focus on judgment, practical sense, initiative, as well as adaptability even though it is not appropriate for adults.
Therefore, option A is correct.
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missing options:
(A) it is inappropriate for adults
(B) it is based on a negatively skewed distribution
(C) its norms are no longer appropriate
(D) it has a gender bias
(E) it produces unreliable test results among rural children
how to detect a fetus? the speed of ultrasound in human body is 1540 m/s. a procedure is performed with a frequency of 2 mhz is used. to monitor the heart rate of a fetus: the maximum speed of a beating heart is 10 cm/s. find the maximum frequency of doppler shift.
The maximum frequency of doppler shift is 4.0002078 Hz.
Frequency is the quantity of occurrences of a repeating event according to unit of time. it's also once in a while known as temporal frequency for clarity, and is wonderful from angular frequency. Frequency is measured in hertz which is identical to at least one occasion per second.
Frequency received by the person from fetus is
V' = (v + v')/(v + v') v
V = (v + 0) +0 (u – 0) 1
Frequency received is
v' = (1540+0.08)/(1540-0.08) 2 = 2.0002078 Hz
So beat frequency will be 4.0002078 Hz
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A 20-year-old male (Ht.: 5'10" Wt.: 165 lbs.) is a college student who spent part of his summer semester in South America. He was volunteering with an organization that was helping to establish safe drinking water in an area of very poor resources. Residents in the area previous used the local river for all of their water needs (e.g., drinking, cooking, bathing, and washing clothes). During his journey home, he began to feel ill. He had little energy, no appetite, and severe headaches, and nothing he ate seemed to agree with him. He felt nauseated, he began to have diarrhea, and he soon developed a fever. He began to show evidence of jaundice.
The signs and symptoms related to hepatitis A are primary symptoms related to hepatitis include anorexia, jaundice, and malnutrition
Diarrhoea is a loose, watery, and perhaps more frequent form of constipation. It could coexist with other symptoms like weight loss, nausea, vomiting, or stomach pain or it might be the sole symptom present. Fortunately, diarrhoea typically lasts no longer than a few days.
Hepatitis A does not harm the liver permanently and does not develop into a persistent (chronic) infection, in contrast to other types of viral hepatitis. Rarely, especially in older adults or those with chronic liver problems, hepatitis A can result in an abrupt (acute) loss of liver function.
Inflammation of the liver is brought on by the hepatitis A virus, which causes hepatitis A. (HAV). When an uninfected (and unvaccinated) individual consumes food or water that has been tainted by an infected person's faeces, the virus is most commonly disseminated.
Complete question:
A 20-year-old male (Ht.: 5'10" Wt.: 165 lbs.) is a college student who spent part of his summer semester in South America. He was volunteering with an organization that was helping to establish safe drinking water in an area of very poor resources. Residents in the area previously used the local river for all of their water needs (e.g., drinking, cooking, bathing, and washing clothes). During his journey home, he began to feel ill. He had little energy, no appetite, and severe headaches, and nothing he ate seemed to agree with him. He felt nauseated, he began to have diarrhea, and he soon developed a fever. He began to show evidence of jaundice.What are the signs and symptoms related to hepatitis?
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a client admitted to the nursing unit with bipolar disorder, manic phase, is accompanied by his wife. the wife states that her husband has been overly energetic and happy, talking constantly, purchasing many unneeded items, and sleeping about 4 hours a night for the past 5 days. when completing the client's daily assessment, the nurse should be especially alert for which finding?
the chandra x-ray observatory has detected x rays from a star system that contains a main-sequence star of spectral type b6. the x-ray emission is strong and fairly steady, and no sudden bursts have been observed. which of the following statements are reasonable conclusions about this system?
Both a neutron star and a black hole are orbited by the main-sequence star. An accretion disc is created around another object by the main-sequence star's gas.
(Since the pair of main-sequence stars in the system is an X-ray binary, they might either be neutron stars or black holes as companions. The heated accretion disc of gas, which the compact object's gravity is pushing away from the main-sequence star, is where the X rays originate.) A neutron star is the collapsing core of a large supergiant star with a total mass of 10 to 25 solar masses, possibly even more if the star was particularly metal-rich. Other than black holes and certain fictitious items (e.g. white holes, quark stars, and strange stars).
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The complete question is -
The Chandra X-Ray Observatory has detected X rays from a star system that contains a main-sequence star of spectral type B6. The X-ray emission is strong and fairly steady, and no sudden bursts have been observed. Which of the following statements are reasonable conclusions about this system? The main-sequence star orbits either a white dwarf or a neutron star. Some time in the next few decades, this system will undergo a nova explosion. The main-sequence star must orbit a neutron star.
the nurse responds to the call light of a client who has had a cervical discectomy earlier in the day. the client states that she is having severe pain that had a sudden onset. what is the nurse's most appropriate action?
The most appropriate action for the nurse to do to treat a client that is experiencing severe pain after having a cervical discectomy is to call the patient's surgeon to report the patient's experience of pain.
Cervical discectomy is a surgical procedure that is done to remove a damaged intervertebral disc from the spine in the neck or damaged tissue in that area. This surgery took the pressure off the nerves. When one just got this surgery performed on them, they must get enough rest and avoid lifting heavy things, as well as follow other instructions that were given by their doctor.
If one feels pain that doesn't get better even after taking pain medicine or experiencing numbness, tingling, shortness of breath, and other worrying symptoms, they must contact their medical provider immediately. In the case in the question above, the nurse should report the patient's condition to her surgeon as soon as possible, so the surgeon can figure out what is happening and treat her accordingly.
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select the true statement about centenarians: a. in developed countries, the number of centenarians is decreasing at a rate of approximately 7 percent each year. b. chronic high-mortality diseases are markedly delayed for many years in centenarians. c. the level of education is unrelated to the life span of centenarians. d. china has the most centenarians, followed by brazil, canada, and australia.
The true statement about centenarians is that chronic high-mortality diseases are markedly delayed for many years in centenarians which is therefore denoted as option B.
Who is a Centenarian?
This is referred to as an individual that is one hundred years old or older and is often characterized by slow metabolism etc.
According to the cellular clock theory of aging,aging is a result of cells hitting their programmed reproductive limit which results in the wearing out of different cells in the body and we are aware that they are involved in in our daily activities and functioning.
This is therefore the reason why centenarians are most likely to have a chronic high-mortality diseases which are markedly delayed for many years there by making it the correct choice.
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according to hospital protocol, after a client is restrained, the staff meet and discuss the restraint situation. in addition to sharing feelings and offering support, what should the nurse identify as the long-term goal for the debriefing?
The nurse should consider improving the staff's use of restraint procedures. That is option D.
Who is a restrained client?A restrained client is the client that is placed in a confined environment that limits their movement without being supervised. Some of the client's that may require being restrained include the following:
when the patient is exhibiting a harmful behaviourduring a surgical procedurewhen a patient is agitating beyond controla psychotic patient that is uncooperative.The long-term goal of the debriefing after restraining a client is to improve aggression management procedures so that prevention of aggression improves and the frequency of restraint use decreases.
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Complete question:
According to hospital protocol, after a client is restrained, the staff meet and discuss the restraint situation. In addition to sharing feelings and offering support, what should the nurse identify as the long-term goal for the debriefing?
a) deciding when to release the client from restraints
b) comparing the perceptions of the various staff members
c) providing feedback to each other on how procedures were handled
d) improving the staff's use of restraint procedures
Which of the following is MOST significant factor in determining whether a person will become ill from certain germs?O ImmunityO ExposureO AcceptanceO Booster
Answer: A) Immunity
Explanation: For an infection to occur, germs must enter a susceptible person's body and invade tissues, multiply, and cause a reaction. If the person/you have a good immunity system, the less likely the germs/infection will cause harm and make the person/you become sick, as your body would fight off the germs.
Answer:
gender
Explanation:
kim claims that elder mistreatment is more likely to happen at old age homes and care centers as opposed to within households. however, carla disagrees and claims that most cases of elder mistreatment occur at the hands of family members. which of the following is an accurate statement that weakens kim's claim?
Non-family members are determined to be responsible for less than one-third of elder abuse.
Elder mistreatment can be discovered through the following methods: (1) agency record reviews; (2) sentinel reports (trained observers in organisations that assist senior citizens but fail to record abuse in official adult protective service [APS] records); (3) translation of criminal justice statistics using age and perpetrator data fields; (4) caretaker/family member interviews (in person or over the phone); and (5) interviews with the elderly respondents themselves (in person or via telephone).
The cognitive status of a mistreated senior is significant because the social context of abuse or assault of non-demented older individuals by family members resembles domestic violence, but the social environment of abuse of cognitively impaired older adults resembles child abuse more.
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why is it believed that by restricting caloric intake by 30% (compared to normal levels) that a higher quality of life may be achieved by reducing the risk of many diseases and cancers? how is this possible?
It is believed that by restricting caloric intake by 30% that a higher quality of life may be achieved by reducing the risk of many diseases and cancers because of reduction of metabolic rate.
Nowadays, diets with low calories that fill the stomach quickly are favored to diets with high calories. Low-calorie diets have a number of benefits, including greater physical activity, a reduction in age-related brain deterioration, and better reproductive efficiency. Limiting food intake lengthens life by reducing the creation of free radicals, which are created when food is transformed into energy and cause damage to DNA and other cells.
Additionally, because calorie restriction typically causes weight loss, less energy is required overall to sustain the lower body mass. It is believed that calorie restriction may lengthen lifespans by lowering the rate of free radical damage as a result of this decrease in metabolic rate.
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