"A light beam incident on a diffraction grating consists of waves with two different wavelengths. The separation of the two first order lines is great if"

Answer

76200meters

Explanation:

we know that 1km=1000meters

to convert km into meters we we divide km by meters

=76.2/1000

=76200meters

Answer:

7.86×10⁻⁷ m

Explanation:

Using,

v = λf.................. Equation 1

Where v = velocity of electromagnetic wave, λ = wave length, f = frequency.

make λ the subject of the equation

λ = v/f............... Equation 2

Note: All electromagnetic  wave have the same speed which is 3×10⁸ m/s.

Given: f = 3.818×10¹⁴ Hz

Constant: v = 3×10⁸ m/s

Substitute these values into equation 2

λ  =  3×10⁸/3.818×10¹⁴

λ  = 7.86×10⁻⁷ m

Hence the wavelength of the electromagnetic radiation is  7.86×10⁻⁷ m

The wavelength of this electromagnetic radiation is equal to [tex]7.86 \times 10^{-7} \;meters[/tex]

Given the following data:

Scientific data:

Velocity of an electromagnetic radiation = [tex]3 \times 10^8\;m/s[/tex]

To determine the wavelength of this electromagnetic radiation:

Mathematically, the wavelength of an electromagnetic radiation is calculated by using the formula;

[tex]Wavelength = \frac{Speed }{frequency}[/tex]

Substituting the given parameters into the formula, we have;

[tex]Wavelength = \frac{3 \times 10^8}{3.818\times 10^{14}}[/tex]

Wavelength = [tex]7.86 \times 10^{-7} \;meters[/tex]

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Answer:

μ = 1

F = P√2

Explanation:

The parabola equation is: y = ½ x².

The slope of the tangent is dy/dx = x.

The angle between the tangent and the x-axis is θ = tan⁻¹(x).

At x = 1, θ = 45°.

Draw a free body diagram of the block.  There are three forces:

Weight force P pulling down,

Normal force N pushing perpendicular to the surface,

and friction force Nμ pushing up tangential to the surface.

Sum of forces in the perpendicular direction:

∑F = ma

N − P cos 45° = 0

N = P cos 45°

Sum of forces in the tangential direction:

∑F = ma

Nμ − P sin 45° = 0

Nμ = P sin 45°

μ = P sin 45° / N

μ = tan 45°

μ = 1

Draw a new free body diagram.  This time, friction force points down tangential to the surface, and applied force F pushes up tangential to the surface.

Sum of forces in the tangential direction:

∑F = ma

F − Nμ − P sin 45° = 0

F = Nμ + P sin 45°

F = (P cos 45°) μ + P sin 45°

F = P√2

Answer:

A. largest: (4000 kg, 5 m/s; 1000 kg, 20 m/s)

medium: (2000 kg, 5 m/s; 500 kg, 20 m/s; 1000 kg, 10 m/s)

smallest: (500 kg, 10 m/s)

B. largest: (4000 kg, 5 m/s; 1000 kg, 20 m/s)

medium: (2000 kg, 5 m/s; 500 kg, 20 m/s; 1000 kg, 10 m/s)

smallest: (500 kg, 10 m/s)

C. You can't say anything about the forces required until we know about the time frames required for each one to stop. So If they all stopped in the same time interval, then the rankings are the same.

Answer:

-50N

Explanation:

F=ma=m(Vf-Vi)/t

F=(10)(-10)/(2)=-50N

So the force acting on the block is -50N, where the negative sign simply tells us that the force is opposite to the direction of movement.

Answer:

A. 990v/m

B.330x10^-8T

C.2.19x10^-6J/m³

D.1.45x10^-11J

Explanation:

See attached file

Answer:

The uncertainty in momentum is 5.25x 10^25Jsm

Explanation:

We know that

h bar = h/2π

So

1.05x 10^34=h/2pπ

h=1.05x 10^ 34(2π)=6.597x 10^-34Js

dp=(6.597x10^-34/4pπ)/(1x10^-10)

=5.25x10^-25 Jsm

Answer:

-0.73mA

Explanation:

Using amphere's Law

ε =−dΦB/ dt

=−(2.6T)·(7.30·10−4 m2)/ 1.00 s

=−1.9 mV

Using ohms law

ε=V =IR

I = ε/ R =−1.9mV/ 2.60Ω =−0.73mA

Complete question is;

The place you get your hair cut has two nearly parallel mirrors 6.50 m apart. As you sit in the chair, your head is 3.00 m from the nearer mirror. Looking toward this mirror, you first see your face and then, farther away, the back of your head. (The mirrors need to be slightly nonparallel for you to be able to see the back of your head, but you can treat them as parallel in this problem.) How far away does the back of your head appear to be?

Answer:

13 m

Explanation:

We are given;

Distance between two nearly parallel mirrors; d = 6.5 m

Distance between the face and the nearer mirror; x = 3 m

Thus, the distance between the back-head and the mirror = 6.5 - 3 = 3.5m

Now, From the given values above and using the law of reflection, we can find the distance of the first reflection of the back of the head of the person in the rear mirror.

Thus;

Distance of the first reflection of the back of the head in the rear mirror from the object head is;

y' = 2y

y' = 2 × 3.5

y' = 7

The total distance of this image from the front mirror would be calculated as;

z = y' + x

z = 7 + 3

z = 10

Finally, the second reflection of this image will be 10 meters inside in the front mirror.

Thus, the total distance of the image of the back of the head in the front mirror from the person will be:

T.D = x + z

T.D = 3 + 10

T.D = 13m

Explanation:

Consider a loop of wire, which has an area of [tex]A=14 \mathrm{cm}^{2}[/tex] and [tex]N=250[/tex] turns, it is initially placed perpendicularly in the earth magnetic field. Then it is rotated from this position to a position where its plane is parallel to the field as shown in the following figure in [tex]\Delta t=0.030[/tex] s. Given that the earth's magnetic field at the position of the loop is [tex]B=5.0 \times 10^{-5} \mathrm{T}[/tex], the flux through the loop before it is rotated is,

[tex]\Phi_{B, i} &=B A \cos \left(\phi_{i}\right)=B A \cos \left(0^{\circ}\right[/tex]

[tex]=\left(5.0 \times 10^{-5} \mathrm{T}\right)\left(14 \times 10^{-4} \mathrm{m}^{2}\right)(1)[/tex]

[tex]=7.0 \times 10^{-8} \mathrm{Wb}[/tex]

[tex]\quad\left[\Phi_{B, i}=7.0 \times 10^{-8} \mathrm{Wb}\right[/tex]

after it is rotated, the angle between the area and the magnetic field is [tex]\phi=90^{\circ}[/tex] thus,

[tex]\Phi_{B, f}=B A \cos \left(\phi_{f}\right)=B A \cos \left(90^{\circ}\right)=0[/tex]

[tex]\qquad \Phi_{B, f}=0[/tex]

(b) The average magnitude of the emf induced in the coil equals the change in the flux divided by the time of this change, and multiplied by the number of turns, that is,

[tex]{\left|\mathcal{E}_{\mathrm{av}}\right|=N\left|\frac{\Phi_{B, f}-\Phi_{B, i}}{\Delta t}\right|}{=} & \frac{1.40 \times 10^{-5} \mathrm{Wb}}{0.030 \mathrm{s}}[/tex]

[tex]& 3.6 \times 10^{-4} \mathrm{V}=0.36 \mathrm{mV}[/tex]

[tex]\mathbb{E}=0.36 \mathrm{mV}[/tex]

(a) The initial and final flux through the coil is 1.75 × 10⁻⁵ Wb and 0 Wb

(b) The induced EMF in the coil is 0.583 mV

Given that the coil has N = 250 turns

and an area of A = 14cm² = 1.4×10⁻³m².

It is rotated for a time period of Δt = 0.030s such that it is parallel with the earth's magnetic field that is B = 5×10⁻⁵T

(a) The flux passing through the coil is given by:

Ф = NBAcosθ

where θ is the angle between area vector and the magnetic field

The area vector is perpendicular to the plane of the coil.

So, initially, θ = 0°, as area vector and earth's magnetic field both are perpendicular to the plane of the coil

So the initial flux is:

Φ = NABcos0° = NAB

Ф = 250×1.4×10⁻³×5×10⁻⁵ Wb

Ф = 1.75 × 10⁻⁵ Wb

Finally, θ = 90°, and since cos90°, the final flux through the coil is 0

(b) The EMF induced is given by:

E = -ΔФ/Δt

E = -(0 - 1.75 × 10⁻⁵)/0.030

E = 0.583 × 10⁻³ V

E = 0.583 mV

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Answer:

Will be equal to alpha x r; less than UsN

Answer:

1.94cm³/s

Explanation:

1L = 1000cm³

Ihr = 3600s

So

Using

Average flow rate

Fr= 1L/100Km x 700Km/1hr x 1hr/3600s x 1000cm³/ 1L

= 1.94cm³/s

Answer:

The movement of energy and matter in a system differs from one system to another. On the other hand, in open system both the matter and energy move into and out of the system. Therefore, matter and energy in a system naturally change over time will decrease in entropy.

Explanation:

Answer:

Decrease in entropy

Explanation:

Various systems which exist in nature possess energy and matter that move through these system continuously. The movement of energy and matter in a system differs from one system to another.

In a closed system for example, only energy flows in and out of the system while matter does not enter or leave the system.

On the other hand, in open system both the matter and energy move into and out of the system.

Answer:

Explanation:

Using the Continuity equation

v X A = v' xA'

so if A is 1/2of A' then A velocity must be 2 times the A'

after-contraction v = 2 x 5.0m/s = 10m/s

Using the Bernoulli equation

p₁ + ½ρv₁² + ρgh₁ = p₂ + ½ρv₂² + ρgh₂

, the "h" terms cancel

3.5 x 10^ 5Pa + ½ x 1000kg/m³x (5.0m/s)² = p₂ + ½ x 1000kg/m³ x (10m/s)²

p₂ = 342500pa

Answer:

1) a block going down a slope

2) a) W = ΔU + ΔK + ΔE, b) W = ΔE, c)  W = ΔK, d) ΔU = ΔK

Explanation:

In this exercise you are asked to give an example of various types of systems

1) a system where work is transformed into internal energy is a system with friction, for example a block going down a slope in this case work is done during the descent, which is transformed in part kinetic energy, in part power energy and partly internal energy that is represented by an increase in the temperature of the block.

2)

a) rolling a ball uphill

In this case we have an increase in potential energy, if there is a change in speed, the kinetic energy also increases, if the change in speed is zero, there is no change in kinetic energy and there is a change in internal energy due to the stationary rec in the point of contact

 W = ΔU + ΔK + ΔE

b) in this system work is transformed into internal energy

      W = ΔE

c) There is no friction here, therefore the work is transformed into kinetic energy

    W = ΔK

d) if you assume that there is no friction with the air, the potential energy is transformed into kinetic energy

      ΔU = ΔK

Answer:

your question answer is 22°

Answer:

Explanation:

According to Equations of Projectile motion :

[tex]Time\ of\ Flight = \frac{2vsin(x)}{g}[/tex]

vsin(x) = 11 * 9.8 / 2 = 53.9 m/sec

(A) v (Initial velocity) = 11 * 9.8 / 2 * sin(35) = 94.56 m/sec

[tex]Maximum Height = \frac{(vsinx)^{2} }{2g}[/tex]

(B) Maximum Height = 53.9 * 53.9 / 2 * 9.8 = 142.2 m

[tex]Horizontal Range = vcosx * t[/tex]

(C) Horizontal Range = 94.56 * 0.81 * 11 = 842.52 m

Answer:

A. 30.38°

B 5.04N

Explanation:

Using

F= ILBsin theta

2 .55N= 8.4Ax 0.5mx 1.2T x sintheta

Theta = 30.38°

B. If theta is 90°

Then

F= 8.4Ax 0.5mx 1.2x sin 90°

F= 5.04N

Answer:

b. The current in the loop always flows in a counterclockwise direction.

Explanation:

When a magnet falls through a loop of wire, it induces an induced current on the loop of wire. This induced current is due to the motion of the magnet through the loop, which cause a change in the flux linkage of the magnet. According to Lenz law, the induced current acts in such a way as to repel the force or action that produces it. For this magnet, the only opposition possible is to stop its fall by inducing a like pole on the wire loop to repel its motion down. An induced current that flows counterclockwise in the wire loop has a polarity that is equivalent to a north pole on a magnet, and this will try to repel the motion of the magnet through the coil. Also, when the magnet goes pass the wire loop, this induced north pole will try to attract the south end of the magnet, all in a bid to stop its motion downwards.

The current in the loop always flows in a counterclockwise direction. Hence, option (b) is correct.

The given problem is based on the concept and fundamentals of magnetic bars. When a magnet falls through a loop of wire, it induces an induced current on the loop of wire. There is some magnitude of current induced in the wire.

Thus, we can say that the current in the loop always flows in a counterclockwise direction. Hence, option (b) is correct.

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Answer:

A) it transforms a small force acting over a large distance into a large force acting over a small distance.

Explanation:

The hydraulic lever works based on Pascal's law of transmission of pressure through a fluid. In the hydraulic lever, the pressure transmitted is the same.

Pressure transmitted P = F/A

where F is the force applied

and A is the area over which the force is applied.

This pressure can be manipulated on the input end as a small force applied over a small area, and then be transmitted to the output end as a large force over a large area.

F/A = f/a

where the left side of the equation is for the output, and the right side is for the input.

The volume of the displaced fluid will be the same on both ends of the hydraulic lever. Since we know that

volume V = (area A) x (distance d)

this means that the the piston on the input smaller area of the hydraulic lever will travel a greater distance, while the piston on the larger output area of the lever will travel a small distance.

From all these, we can see that the advantage of a hydraulic lever is that it transforms a small force acting over a large distance into a large force acting over a small distance.

Answer:

Apparent depth (Da) = 60.15 cm (Approx)

Explanation:

Given:

Distance from fish (D) = 80 cm

Find:

Apparent depth (Da)

Computation:

We know that,

Refractive index of water (n2) = 1.33

So,

Apparent depth (Da) = D(n1/n2)

Apparent depth (Da) = 80 (1/1.33)

Apparent depth (Da) = 60.15 cm (Approx)

The apparent depth of the fish is 60 cm.

To calculate the apparent depth of the fish, we use the formula below.

Formula:

Where:

Make D' The subject of the equation.

From the question,

Given:

Substitute these values into equation 2

Hence, the apparent depth of the fish is 60 cm

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Answer:

The speed of the proton is 4059.39 m/s

Explanation:

The centripetal force on the particle is given by;

[tex]F = \frac{mv^2}{r}[/tex]

The magnetic force on the particle is given by;

[tex]F = qvB[/tex]

The centripetal force on the particle must equal the magnetic force on the particle, for the particle to remain in the circular path.

[tex]\frac{mv^2}{r} = qvB\\\\r = \frac{mv^2}{qvB} \\\\r = \frac{mv}{qB}[/tex]

where;

r is the radius of the circular path moved by both electron and proton;

⇒For electron;

[tex]r = \frac{(9.1*10^{-31})(7.45*10^6)}{(1.602*10^{-19})(1.1*10^{-5})}\\\\r = 3.847 \ m[/tex]

⇒For proton

The speed of the proton is given by;

[tex]r = \frac{mv}{qB}\\\\mv = qBr\\\\v = \frac{qBr}{m} \\\\v = \frac{(1.602*10^{-19})(1.1*10^{-5})(3.847)}{1.67*10^{-27}} \\\\v = 4059.39 \ m/s[/tex]

Therefore, the speed of the proton is 4059.39 m/s

Answer:

covalent

Explanation:

covalent bonds share electrons

Answer:

1.6×10²⁰

Explanation:

An ampere is a Coulomb per second.

1 A = 1 C / s

The amount of charge after 5 seconds is:

5.0 A × 5 s = 25 C

The number of electrons is:

25 C × (1 electron / 1.6×10⁻¹⁹ C) = 1.6×10²⁰ electrons

B. A chemical change

Explanation:

I'm guessing ?

Answer:

Upper plate Q/3

Lower plate 2Q/3

Explanation:

See attached file

Answer:

A. magnetic field

Explanation:

The magnetic field is produced around a wire when an electrical current is in the wire because of the magnetic effect of the electric current therefore the correct answer is option A .

A magnetic field could be understood as an area around a magnet, magnetic material, or an electric charge in which magnetic force is exerted.

As given in the problem statement we have to find out what is produced around a wire when an electrical current is in the wire.

The magnetic field is produced as a result when an electrical current is passed through the conducting wire .

Option A is the appropriate response because a wire's magnetic field is created when an electrical current flows through it due to the magnetic influence of the electric current .

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Answer:

A)     K / K₀ = 4   b)     v / v₀ = 4

Explanation:

A) For this exercise we can use the conservation of mechanical energy

in the problem it indicates that the displacement was doubled (x = 2xo)

starting point. At the position of maximum displacement

      Em₀ = Ke = ½ k (2x₀)²

final point. In the equilibrium position

      [tex]Em_{f}[/tex] = K = ½ m v²

        Em₀ = Em_{f}

        ½ k 4 x₀² = K

        (½ K x₀²) = K₀

         K = 4 K₀

          K / K₀ = 4

B) the speed value

          ½ k 4 x₀² = ½ m v²

          v = 4 (k / m) x₀

if we call

           v₀ = k / m x₀

          v = 4 v₀

         v / v₀ = 4