The statement by the client indicates an understanding of the instructions Ibuprofen taken 30 minutes before the nicotinic acid should decrease the flushing.
Spironolactone is used to treat high blood pressure and control edema in patients with heart failure or liver dysfunction. This drug can cause hyperkalemia. Monitor urine output and report if less than 30 mL per hour. Use with caution in patients with impaired renal function due to increased risk of hyperkalemia.
Before administering a diuretic such as furosemide the nurse will assess the patient's potassium level with recent laboratory results. If the potassium level is below the normal range, the nurse will withhold medication and notify the prescriber. Avoid eating large amounts of leafy greens and certain vegetable oils that are high in vitamin K.
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a newborn's head circumference is 12 inches (30.5cm), and his chest measurement is 13 inches (33cm). the nurse notes that this infant has no molding, and was at breech presentation delivery by c section. what action should the nurse take based on these data?
The action the nurse should take based on these data is to record the finding on the chart since they are within normal limits.
What is nursing action?Nursing actions are described as those interventions a nurse takes to implement their patient care plan, including any treatments, procedures, or teaching moments intended to improve the patient's comfort and health.
There are typically three different categories for nursing actions and they include:
independent actionsdependent actions and interdependent actionsA newborn's head circumference is 12 inches (30.5cm), and his chest measurement is 13 inches (33cm) which is the normal limits. The nurse notes that this infant has no molding, and was at breech presentation delivery by c section. It is expected that the nurse to record the finding on the chart since they are within normal limits.
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based on the report that the admitting nurse received and a diagnosis of gastroenteritis and dehydration, what is the priority nursing action in caring for matthew? provide a rationale for the priority action.
The priority nursing action is to initiate IV access. The main objective for a dehydrated client who is dehydrated is rehydration. Due to the client's vomiting, oral replacement is not an option.
What nursing issue is most important for a patient with gastroenteritis?The main nursing diagnoses are based on the assessment data, and they are Infection risks connected to poor secondary defenses or inadequate knowledge to prevent pathogen exposure. Constantly having diarrheal stools is associated with impaired skin integrity. inadequate fluid intake caused by diarrheal feces.
How can dehydration affect the body?Your cardiovascular system has to work harder to efficiently pump blood when you lose fluid because your blood is more concentrated. You urinate less as a result of a high blood concentration because it causes your kidneys to retain more water.
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which of the following characterizes chronic malnutrition in children? a. rapid weight loss b. low weight for height c. short height for age d. hyperactivity e. shrunken liver
The chronic malnutrition in children is short height for age which means option c is the correct choice.
This is a condition that develops when children do not eat the correct balance of nutrients in the first 1,000 days of life (from conception to the age of two), resulting in the irreversible stunting of their cognitive and physical development. It is caused by a lack of nutrients, either as a result of a poor diet or problems absorbing nutrients from food. Estimates indicate that starving people become weak in 30 to 50 days and die in 43 to 70 days.
Therefore, option c is the correct choice.
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you are assessing a middle-aged man with chest pain that you suspect is caused by a cardiac problem. the patient tells you that he does not want to go to the hospital and insists that you leave him alone. you should:
The cardiac problem is a buildup of fatty plaques withinside the arteries (atherosclerosis) is the maximum not unusual place reason of coronary artery disease.
Risk elements consist of a negative diet, loss of exercise, weight problems and smoking. Healthy life-style selections can assist decrease the hazard of atherosclerosis. Coronary artery disease, arrhythmia, heart valve disease and heart failure are the four most common types of heart disease. Heart disease refers to several types of conditions that affect the heart. It can be treated by a Healthy lifestyle habits — such as eating a low-fat, low-salt diet, getting regular exercise and good sleep, and not smoking — are an important part of treatment.
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a patient develops a tumor in one of their parathyroid glands, causing an increase in the release of parathyroid hormone into the blood. what would be the result?
Answer:
Hypercalcemia
Explanation:
Parathyroid tumors may increase the levels of parathyroid hormones. This leads to more calcium in your blood. This is called hypercalcemia.
In conducting a primary survey on a trauma patient, which of the following is considered one of the priority elements of the primary survey?
A. Initiation of pulse oximetry.
B. Complete set of vital signs.
C. Client’s allergy history.
D. Brief neurologic assessment.
In conducting a primary survey on a trauma patient, the following which is considered one of the priority elements of the primary survey is brief neurologic assessment and is therefore denoted as option D.
What is a Trauma?This is referred to as an incident that causes physical, emotional, spiritual, or psychological harm to an individual.
This could cause different types of negative effect which is why a brief neurologic assessment which helps to determine the level of consciousness is needed as part of the primary survey and is therefore the reason why option D was chosen as the correct choice in this scenario.
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the nurse is caring for a client who is scheduled for the creation of an ileal conduit. which statement by the client provides evidence that client teaching was effective?
The statement by the client provides evidence that client teaching was effective is "I will not need to worry about being incontinent of urine."
An ileal conduit is one of the numerous surgical techniques for urinary diversion. It's typically been named because of the Bricker ileal conduit after its inventor, Eugene M. Bricker. During the procedure, a MD creates a replacement tube from a chunk of bowel that permits the kidneys to empty and urine to exit the body through atiny low gap known as a stoma.
Incontinent of urine is a common and infrequently embarrassing problem. The severity ranges from sometimes leaking urine once you cough or sneeze to having an urge to urinate that is therefore sharp and powerful you do not get to a rest room in time.
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a patient is sent to a general surgeon by her family physician for an opinion and recommendation for surgical repair of a recurrent femoral hernia, right. a brief problem focused history and exam are performed. the mdm complexity was straightforward. what is the correct e/m service code?
The correct e/m service code is CPT Code: 99241
ICD-10-CM:
K41.91
A femoral hernia occurs when fatty tissue or a portion of your bowel protrudes through the top of your inner thigh into your groin. It pushes through a weak spot in the surrounding muscle wall (abdominal wall) into an area called the femoral canal. Femoral hernias are generally not life-threatening medical conditions. Strangulation of the hernia can become life-threatening, however, and must be treated through emergency surgery.
Femoral hernias are frequently confused with inguinal hernias due to their proximity. Femoral hernias are relatively uncommon. If the hernia is not repaired, the intestine can become trapped inside. This is referred to as an incarcerated or strangulated hernia. It has the potential to cut off blood supply to the intestines.
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on the first postoperative day. the nurse finds an older male client disoriented and trying to climb over the bed railing. previously he was oriented to person place and time on admission. which intervention should the nurse implement first? assess the client for pain.
The nurse should review with the client that he is in the hospital.
Postoperative care is the treatment you receive following a surgical procedure. The type of postoperative care you require is determined by the type of surgery you had as well as your medical history. Pain management and wound care are frequently included. Postoperative care begins immediately after surgery.
Postoperative fever, atelectasis, wound infection, embolism, and deep vein thrombosis are all common general postoperative complications (DVT). Postoperative complications are most common between one and three days after surgery. Proper hydration is crucial for adequate wound healing. Dehydration can contribute to poor oxygen perfusion and prevent necessary nutrients from reaching the wound. Furthermore, staying hydrated can help to prevent complications like deep vein thrombosis and pulmonary embolism.
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the parents of a child admitted with rheumatic fever (rf) ask why the child has been placed on bedrest. the nurse explains that bedrest serves what primary purpose for the client?
Bedrest serves primary purpose for the client with rheumatic fever to restrict the inflammation and pain.
Rheumatic fever (acute rheumatic fever) is a condition that may have an effect on the guts, joints, brain, and skin. infectious disease will develop if infection, contagion, and strep skin infections aren't treated properly. Symptoms embody fever and painful, tender joints. Treatment involves medication, typically for keeps.
Rheumatic fever causes inflammation, particularly of the guts, blood vessels and joints. The heart valves may be inflamed and become scarred over time. Rheumatic fever will cause long complications in sure things. It primarily affects youngsters between the ages of six and sixteen.
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hank has alzheimer's disease and has recently become unresponsive, recognizing no one, and having no idea who he is. he is most likely in which stage of the disease?
Hank is in the third stage of Alzheimer's disease as he is having symptoms of recently becoming unresponsive, recognizing no one, and having no idea who he is.
Over 65-year-olds are primarily affected by Alzheimer's disease. It's normal to experience minor functional issues like forgetfulness at this age. However, this loss will occur more quickly in people with stage 2 Alzheimer's than it will in people of comparable age who do not have the disease. For instance, a person might forget well-known words, a relative's name, or where they put something.
Caregiver assistance: Stage 2 symptoms are not disruptive to work or social life. Memory issues are still extremely moderate, so friends and relatives might not notice them.
mild deterioration or impairment
In stage 3, the signs of Alzheimer's are less distinct.
The symptoms will gradually become better over the course of 2 to 4 years, although the full stage lasts roughly 7 years. The symptoms may only be noticeable to those close to the person in this stage. The standard of their work will drop, and they can struggle to pick up new abilities.
Finding it difficult to remember the appropriate words or names forgetting what you just read forgetting new names or individuals misplacing or losing a valuable object losing focus when taking a test are further instances of stage 3 symptoms and indicators.
To find cases of memory loss, a doctor or clinician may need to perform a more thorough interview than usual.
Support for the caregiver: At this point, someone with Alzheimer's may require counseling, particularly if they have demanding job duties. Denial and mild to moderate anxiety are possible.
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you are dispatched to a residence for a 4-year-old girl who is sick. your assessment reveals that she has increased work of breathing and is making a high-pitched sound during inhalation. her mother tells you that she has been running a high fever for the past 24 hours. your most immediate concern should be:
Her mother tells you that she has been running a high fever for the past 24 hours. Our most immediate concern should be assessing the need for ventilation assistance.
Patients who are unable to breathe sufficiently on their own may benefit from ventilation assistance, which consists of a range of techniques. These treatments range from mechanical ventilation for patients with abrupt respiratory failure to at-home oxygen therapy for people with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD).
When an illness or accident produces immediate or progressive respiratory failure, ventilation support is used. Additionally, it could be utilized following surgery until the patient is well enough to breathe properly on their own. The kind and stage of the illness process, as well as the results of blood and pulmonary function tests that show the patient's level of oxygenation, are all taken into consideration by doctors when selecting the appropriate medication.
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how to detect a fetus? the speed of ultrasound in human body is 1540 m/s. a procedure is performed with a frequency of 2 mhz is used. to monitor the heart rate of a fetus: the maximum speed of a beating heart is 10 cm/s. find the maximum frequency of doppler shift.
The maximum frequency of doppler shift is 4.0002078 Hz.
Frequency is the quantity of occurrences of a repeating event according to unit of time. it's also once in a while known as temporal frequency for clarity, and is wonderful from angular frequency. Frequency is measured in hertz which is identical to at least one occasion per second.
Frequency received by the person from fetus is
V' = (v + v')/(v + v') v
V = (v + 0) +0 (u – 0) 1
Frequency received is
v' = (1540+0.08)/(1540-0.08) 2 = 2.0002078 Hz
So beat frequency will be 4.0002078 Hz
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1. A medical order states that a patient is to receive 500 mL of 0.9% sodium chloride IV over two
hours. How fast is the IV running in ml/hr?
Hello,
I hope you and your family are doing well!
To find the rate at which the IV is running in ml/hr, you can use the formula:
rate = volume/time
In this case, the volume of the IV is 500 mL and the time it is to be infused is 2 hours. Substituting these values into the formula gives us:
rate = 500 mL / 2 hours = 250 mL/hr
Therefore, the IV is running at a rate of 250 mL/hr.
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Best,
The focus of________ prevention programs is avoiding additional medical problems; the focus of_______prevention programs is functioning.
The focus of tertiary prevention programs is avoiding additional medical problems; the focus of quaternary prevention programs is functioning.
It is used on patients who are exhibiting symptoms and tries to lessen the intensity of the illness as well as any potential aftereffects. Tertiary prevention aims to lessen the impact of the disease once it has been established in a person, whereas secondary prevention attempts to stop the beginning of illness. tertiary prevention involve efforts to reduce side effects, stop future disease or disorder-related consequences, stop relapse, and restore the best level of physical or psychological functioning possible. Interventions for rehabilitation following illness, injury, or disability are blood flow included in tertiary prevention as well as those for preventing more morbidity, limiting impairment, and avoiding mortality. Primary care is provided by the patients' primary healthcare providers, secondary care is provided by specialists, and tertiary care is more advanced specialised care provided within a hospital.
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TRUE/FALSE. continuous improvement in the context of a hospital organization entails maintaining profitability, even if some quality measures have to be traded off.
Continuous improvement in the context of a hospital organization entails maintaining profitability, even if some quality measures have to be traded off. The given statement is false.
A group of people who cooperate is known as an organisation. Examples of such groups include unions, corporations, charities, and neighbourhood associations. The term "organisation" can be used to describe a person, a company, a group, or the process of creating something. A club, corporation, charity, or political party are all examples of official groups of individuals. These specialty schools are chronic illness primarily offered by nonprofit institutions. Functional, departmental, and matrix organisations are the three types of organisations that best reflect the organisational structures currently used by the majority of businesses. Owners must weigh the benefits and drawbacks of each of these formats before picking which to use for their particular firm.
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the nurse is caring for a patient who admits to having taken anabolic steroids to enhance his cycling ability. what schedule medication was this patient abusing?
Technically referred to as anabolic-androgenic steroids (AASs), steroids are a form of synthetic testosterone. The natural amounts of testosterone can be increased with them by taking as a supplement.
One hormone that is frequently connected to the male body is testosterone (T). In the body of the typical male, this hormone ranges from 300 to 1,000 nanograms per deciliter (ng/dL). The changes to the male body that occur during puberty, including the deeper voice and increased body hair, are primarily attributed to testosterone. Additionally, it boosts the testicles' capacity to produce sperm. Additionally, Trusted Source is produced by the female body. The use of steroids substance is to maintain healthy bones and sexual function, but it is typically found in lesser concentrations.
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15.
Why do you think developing nations in Africa or Asia might report a high number of deaths from diseases that can be controlled in the United States? What factors prevent access to prevention and treatment?
The absence of good health care causes people to die of preventable diseases in Africa and Asia. Poor enlightenment and lack of health care support could prevent access to prevention and treatment.
Why do people die of ailments in Africa and Asia?We know that health care infrastructure is not yet so much developed in Africa and Asia. As such, it is usual to see that a large number of people bow in death to preventable and even treatable illness in the Americas.
The only way that this stem could be curbed is that The United States and other bigger countries should initial coordinated efforts so as to be able to develop the health care infrastructure in Africa and Asia.
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a patient presents with heatstroke. the nurse uses cool packs, cooling blanket, and a fan. which technique is the nurse using when the fan produces heat loss?
Your physician may perform the following to do this on heatstroke: Put cold water on you. It has been demonstrated that the fastest way to drop your core body temperature is to take a cold or ice bath.
There is a lower chance of death in heatstroke and organ damage the sooner you can be submerged in cold water. Use cooling methods that involve evaporation. Health care professionals may use evaporation to try to lower your body temperature if cold water immersion is not an option. Warm air is blown over you as cool water is misted on your body, evaporating as it cools your skin. Provide cooling blankets and ice for you. Applying ice packs to your groin is another technique, which involves wrapping you in a special cooling blanket.
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Decompression diving involves more risk than no-decompression diving, and without the proper precautions can become extremely hazardous.TRUE OR FALSE
at a very large incident, the ____ section is responsible for managing the tactical operations usually handled by the IC on routine EMS calls.
At a very large incident, the operations section is responsible for managing the tactical operations usually handled by the IC on routine EMS calls.
Emergency Medical Service (EMS) is a branch of emergency services dedicated to providing out-of-hospital acute medical aid and/or transport to definitive care, to patients with diseases and injuries that the patient, or the caregiver, believes constitutes a medical emergency.
The purpose of the Operations Section is to hold out the response activities delineate within the Incident. Action arrange. Operations Section objectives include: to offer disease info to responders, clinicians, the public, and other. They support the event of the Incident Action decide to guarantee it accurately reflects current operations.
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TRUE/FALSE. the medical record must meet the standards defined by the centers for medicare and medicaid services conditions of participation, any other federal regulations, state laws, and accrediting agencies such as the joint commission on accreditation of healthcare organizations.
The medical record must meet the standards defined by the Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services Conditions of Participation, any other federal regulations, state laws, and accrediting agencies such as the Joint Commission on Accreditation of Healthcare Organizations. This statement is True.
The Centers for Medicare & Medicaid Services (CMS) is a federal agency within the United States Department of Health and Human Services (HHS) that administers the Medicare program as well as Medicaid, the Children's Health Insurance Program (CHIP), and health insurance portability standards in collaboration with state governments.
CMS also has administrative simplification standards from the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act of 1996 (HIPAA), quality standards in long-term care facilities (more commonly known as nursing homes) through its survey and certification process, clinical laboratory quality standards under the Clinical Laboratory Improvement Amendments, and oversight of HealthCare.gov. Until 2001, CMS was known as the Health Care Financing Administration (HCFA).
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Digestive health is affected by age. Determine whether each of the digestive processes increases or decreases with age.- Hydrochloric acid production- Intrinsic factor production- Lactase production- Gallbladder function- Constipation
age-related declines : - The synthesis of hydrochloric acid - The creation of intrinsic factors - Lactase synthesis Function of the gallbladder Constipation
age-related increases : - transit period in the intestines
This review article attempts to close the information gap between the effects of malnutrition on senior patients' health condition and the functional deterioration of the aging gastrointestinal tract (GIT). The mechanical disintegration of food, gastrointestinal motor function, food transit, chemical food digestion, and intestinal wall functionality are all affected by aging in the GIT.
These changes gradually reduce the GIT's capacity to supply the aging organism with proper levels of nutrients, which aids in the emergence of malnutrition. The development of a variety of illnesses linked to most organ systems, in particular the neurological, muscoskeletal, cardiovascular, immunological, and skin systems, is increased by malnutrition as a result.
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you are dispatched emergent to a possible carbon monoxide poisoning in a family residence. as you are questioning your patient, your partner is about to apply the pulse oximetry. you quickly remember in school you learned that cos affinity for hemoglobin compared to oxygen is times greater?
I quickly remember in school I learned that CO's affinity for hemoglobin compared to oxygen is 200 times greater.
Carbon monoxide has a 200-fold higher affinity for hemoglobin than oxygen does. As soon as one molecule of carbon monoxide binds to hemoglobin, the hemoglobin-oxygen dissociation curve changes to the left, further increasing its affinity and significantly reducing the release of oxygen to the tissues.
The pH of tissue decreases and hydrogen ion concentration rises in carbon dioxide. Because of this, oxygen release to tissues is enhanced and hemoglobin's affinity for oxygen decreases. The lung experiences opposite changes.
Hemoglobin-bound carbon monoxide reduces the amount of oxygen carried to bodily tissues and essential organs like the brain and heart. The link between oxygen and hemoglobin is around 200 times weaker than the bond between carbon monoxide and hemoglobin.
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a 23-year-old man presents with 2 days of rice water diarrhea after a recent trip to india. what is the appropriate pharmacologic treatment for his condition?
Doxycycline (cholera). Doxycycline is currently advised as the first-line treatment for adults, including pregnant women, and children for rice water diarrhea.
Assuming that the cholera strain is sensitive, several antibiotics, including doxycycline, ciprofloxacin, and azithromycin, are useful in the treatment of cholera causing diarrhea. The WHO recommends only administering antibiotics to cholera patients whose condition is deemed "serious." According to this suggestion, antibiotics should only be administered to individuals who have "severe dehydration" (10% dehydration) at the time of their diagnosis. In terms of transmission, one litre of rice-water stools contains V. cholerae germs. 105 to 108 organisms constitute an infectious dosage.
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according to quality and safety education for nurses (qsen), what intervention will best help reduce the risk of medication errors?
Alerting other staff to not bother the nurse when preparing medications to administer help reduce the risk of medication errors.
A substance used to treat, diagnose, or prevent disease is known as a medication. A significant area of medicine is drug therapy, which depends on the growth of pharmacology science blood pH and the administration of pharmacy. Pharmaceutical corporations, academia scientists, and governments all engage in complicated and expensive initiatives related to drug research and development. Because of the complicated process involved in moving a medication candidate from discovery to commercialization, partnering is now considered best practise. Governments typically control how pharmaceuticals are promoted, what drugs can be marketed, and in some places, how much drugs cost. Disposal of old medications and drug pricing have become contentious issues.
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4700/87the health care provider orders the following interventions for a 67-kg patient who has septic shock with abp of 70/42 mm hg and oxygen saturation of 90% on room air. in which order will the nurse implement theactions?
Eating a healthier diet with less salt, exercising regularly, and taking medications can help lower blood pressure.
Blood pressure is the force of your blood pushing against the walls of your arteries. Each time your heart beats, it pumps blood into the arteries. Your blood pressure is highest when your heart beats, pumping the blood. A condition in which the force of the blood against the artery walls is too high. Usually hypertension is defined as blood pressure above 140/90, and is considered severe if the pressure is above 180/120. High blood pressure often has no symptoms. Over time, if untreated, it can cause health conditions, such as heart disease and stroke.
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a 31-year-old man has a large, yellow, soft mass deeply infiltrating the gluteus maximus muscle. microscopic examination of the excised mass shows irregular vacuolated cells and clear cells with frequent mitoses. which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
If a microscopic examination of the excised mass shows irregular vacuolated cells and clear cells with frequent mitoses, then the most likely diagnosis of this person is Liposarcoma (option D).
What is Liposarcoma's medical condition?Liposarcoma is a medical condition associated with cancer sarcoma cells that propagate from adipose tissue which is a well known energy storage tissue that contains fats to be used as the source of energy.
Moreover, cancer is a group of different types of diseases characterized by the uncontrolled growth of cells in metastatic tissues due to faulty mechanisms that control the progression through the cell cycle.
Therefore, with this data, we can see that Liposarcoma's medical condition is based on a type of cancer in adipose tissues that leads to the proliferation of these cells.
Complete question:
A 31-year-old man has a large, yellow, soft mass deeply infiltrating the gluteus maximus muscle. Microscopic examination of the excised mass shows irregular vacuolated cells and clear cells with frequent mitoses. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Fibroma
B. Fibrosarcoma
C. Lipoma
D. Liposarcoma
E. Rhabdomyoma
F. Rhabdomyosarcoma
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A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN) via a peripherally inserted central catheter (PICC) line. When assessing the client, the nurse notes that the client's arm seems swollen above the PICC insertion site. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?A. Measure the circumference of both upper arms.B. Notify the provider who inserted the PICC line.C. Remove the PICC line.D. Apply a cold pack to the client's upper arm.
The actions that the nurse should take first is to measure the circumference of both upper arms. That is option A.
What is total parenteral nutrition (TPN)?The total parenteral nutrition (TPN) is defined as the process by which an individual that is incapable of taking in food through the mouth into the gastrointestinal tract is fed through a parenteral route.
The total parenteral nutrition (TPN) must include the following to provide an adequate diet for the affected individual:
protein, carbohydrates (in the form of glucose), glucose, fat, vitamins, and minerals.One of the ways to achieve the total parenteral nutrition is feeding through the peripherally inserted central catheter (PICC) line.
It is one of the responsibility of a nurse in duty to monitor the insertion site of the peripherally inserted central catheter (PICC) line.
If the site is swollen, the first action the nurse should take is to measure the circumference of both upper arms.
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there is a multiple vehicle collision on the freeway. you arrive after the fire department and law enforcement have closed the freeway and secured the scene. you notice multiple patients that are lying on the ground with massive wounds and blood pooling. a few patients are sitting on the barrier, talking and appear to have minimal injuries. lastly, there are a few patients still in their vehicles, and you notice firefighters working on extricating them. you are the only emergency medical staff available at this moment and are assigned to triage the scene. you decide to give the patients sitting on the barrier a triage priority number of?
You decide to give the patients sitting on the barrier a triage priority number of 3.
Triage is a practice used in medicine when acute care cannot be provided due to a lack of resources. The process prioritizes care for those who are most in need of it and will benefit the most from it. More broadly, it refers to the prioritization of all medical care. It is most often required in its acute form on the battlefield, during a pandemic, or during peacetime when an accident results in a mass casualty that overwhelms nearby healthcare facilities' capacity.
Triage always adheres to the modern interpretation of the Hippocratic oath, but there is plenty of room for interpretation, leading to more than one concurrent idea of its nature. The best established theories and practical scoring systems used in this article come from the field of acute physical trauma in an emergency room setting; obviously, a broken bone counts for less than uncontrolled arterial bleeding, which is likely to result in death. However, no current principle applies to mental health, reproductive health (including abortion), chronic medical conditions, geriatrics, or palliative care (including euthanasia).
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