50 POINTS‼️‼️‼️‼️‼️

A 4.88 x 10-6 C charge moves 265 m/s
perpendicular (at 90°) to a magnetic
field of 0.0579 T. What is the magnetic
force on the charge?

Answer:

ans: 2250 meters

Explanation:

initial velocity (U)= 15 m/s

final velocity (V) = 0m/s , since need to come in rest

total time taken (T) = 5 min= 300 seconds

total distance covered (S)= UT + 1/2 aT^2 ,

a= acceleration

S= 15 × 300 + 0.5 ×(0 - 15) × 300

since a = (V - U)/ T

S = 4500 - 2250

S= 2250 m

Answer:

To find out the number of atoms: MULTIPLY all the SUBSCRIPTS in the molecule by the COEFFICIENT. (This will give you the number of atoms of each element.)

Explanation:

Answer:

The beam of electrons would be flattened into a oval that is long in the x-axis and short in the y-axis.

Explanation:

A beam of moving electrons enters the quadrupole, with velocity parallel to the charged rods. When the beam enters the device, its cross-sectional profile is circular. On the other side, the beam of electrons would be flattened into a oval that is long in the x-axis and short in the y-axis.

The directions is shown in figure.

Answer:

yes

Explanation:

it is in the body system

Answer:

it would show clearly because it is a metal piece in the body.

Answer:

the maximum vertical height the person in the cart can reach is 18.42 m

Explanation:

Given;

mass of the person in cart, m₁ = 45 kg

mass of the cart, m₂ = 43 kg

acceleration due to gravity, g = 9.8 m/s²

final speed of the cart before it goes up the hill, v = 19 m/s

Apply the principle of conservation of energy;

[tex]mgh_{max} = \frac{1}{2}mv^2_{max}\\\\ gh_{max} = \frac{1}{2}v^2_{max}\\\\h_{max} = \frac{v^2_{max}}{2g} \\\\h_{max} =\frac{(19)^2}{2\times 9.8} \\\\h_{max} = 18.42 \ m[/tex]

Therefore, the maximum vertical height the person in the cart can reach is 18.42 m

Answer:

66,7 seconds

Explanation:

the formula for height/distance is : S=v.t

Answer:

[tex]m=42\ fringes[/tex]

Explanation:

From the question we are told that:

Wavelength [tex]\lambda=400nm[/tex]

Length of cell arm [tex]h=3.70cm[/tex]

Refraction of air at  at 1.00 atm pressure [tex]n=1.00028.[/tex]

Generally the equation for Number of shifts is mathematically given by

[tex]m=N-N_o[/tex]

Since

[tex]N_0=\frac{2t}{\lambda_0}[/tex]

Therefore

[tex]m=\frac{2t}{\lambda_0/n}-\frac{2t}{\lambda_0}[/tex]

[tex]m=\frac{2t}{\lambda_0} n-1[/tex]

[tex]m=\frac{2(3.7*10^{-2})}{400*10^{-9}}*(1.00028-1)[/tex]

[tex]m=51.8[/tex]

[tex]m=42\ fringes[/tex]

Answer:

The answer is "Option D".

Explanation:

Please find the complete question in the attached file.

As plate separation increased to 2d the capacitance get halred but the change remain same

[tex]\therefore V=\frac{Q}{C}[/tex]

The voltage doubles are now electric field remain same because both the distance and voltage get doubled.

[tex]\to E=\frac{v}{d}\ = \frac{2v}{2d}\\\[/tex]

So,

[tex]energy=\frac{1}{2}\ \frac{Q^2}{C}\\\\c'=\frac{C}{2}\\\\E'=2E[/tex]

Answer:

a) F = [tex]\frac{\pi d^2B^2lv}{16p}[/tex]  

b) attached below

c) 0.037 m/s

Explanation:

a) Determine the magnetic "drag" force acting  at the moment

speed = v

first step: determine current in the loop

I = [tex]\frac{\pi d^2}{16pl} B lv[/tex]   ----- ( 1 )

given that the current will induce force on the three sides of the loop found in the magnetic field

forces on vertical sides = + opposite

we will cancel out

hence equation 1 becomes

F = [tex]\frac{\pi d^2B^2lv}{16p}[/tex]   ( according to Lenz law we can say that the direction of force is upwards and this force will slow down the decrease in flux )

b) Determine the formula for Vt

attached below

c) Find Vt

given :

B = 0.80 T

density of copper = 8.9 * 10^3 kg/m^3

resistivity of copper = 1.68 * 10^-8 Ωm

∴ Vt = 16 ( 8.9 * 10^3 kg/m^3 ) ( 1.68 * 10^-8 Ωm ) ( 9.8 m/s^2 ) / ( 0.08 T)^2

       = 0.037 m/s

Answer:

A B C

Explanation:just took the test

Answer:

Komal could have mixed up the labels on the vials.

Someone might have jiggled the table and made the water surface tension bubble spill over.

The water could actually have been saltwater instead of pure water.

Explanation:

...........................

Answer:

a. 1.56 × 10¹⁸ electrons per second

b. The electrons in wire 3 flow into the junction.

Explanation:

Here is the complete question

Three wires meet at a junction. Wire 1 has a current of 0.40 A into the junction. The current of wire 2 is 0.65 A out of the junction. (a) How many electrons per second move past a point in wire 3? (b) In which direction do the electrons move in wire 3 -- into or out of the junction?

Solution

(a) How many electrons per second move past a point in wire 3?

Using Kirchhoff's current law, at the junction, i₁ + i₂ + i₃ = 0 where i₁ = current in wire 1 = 0.40 A, i₂ = current in wire 2 = 0.65 A and  i₃ = = current in wire 3,

So, i₃ = -(i₁ + i₂)

taking current flowing into the junction as positive and those leaving as negative, i₁ = + 0.40 A and i₂ = -0.65 A

So, i₃ = -(i₁ + i₂)

i₃ = -(0.40 A + (-0.65 A))

i₃ = -(0.40 A - 0.65 A)

i₃ = -(-0.25 A)

i₃ = 0.25 A

Since i₃ = 0.25 C/s and we have e = 1.602 × 10⁻¹⁹ C per electron, then the number of electrons flowing in wire 3 per second is i₃/e = 0.25 C/s ÷ 1.602 × 10⁻¹⁹ C per electron = 0.1561  × 10¹⁹ electrons per second = 1.561  × 10¹⁸ electrons per second ≅ 1.56 × 10¹⁸ electrons per second

(b) In which direction do the electrons move -- into or out of the junction?

Given that i₃ = + 0.25 A and that positive flows into the junction, thus, the electrons in wire 3 flow into the junction.

Answer:

Explanation:before the phase change the substance is a particle.

Answer:

7.3 newtons to the west

Explanation:

3.7kg × 11a - 3.7kg × ? = 3.7n

Answer:

(c) at rest

Explanation:

Given

See attachment for the distance time graph

Required

What does the graph illustrate?

From the graph, we can see that the line of distance is a horizontal line.

This suggests that a time increases, the distance remains unchanged

When distance remains unchanged over time, then it means the object is at rest.

Hence, (c) is correct

Answer:

E.l soni.do es un.a sensac.ión, en el órg.ano del oído, prod.ucida por el movimie/nto ondu>latorio de un m/edio elástico (normal/mente el aire), debi.do a ra.pidísimos ca/mbios de pre.sión, generado/s por el movimiento vibrat.orio d.e un cuerpo sonoro. ... /El ruido se consid/era a to/do sonid.o / o no de.seado.

Explanation:

Answer:

C. 6.9 watts

Explanation:

Power = work/time

if work = force×distance...

Then... power= (force×distance)/time

Power = (20×12)/35

= 6.9 watts

Answer:

Sorry I don't know the answer

From the water whole water cycle starts again.

Answer:

There was 7 continents in africa

The question is incomplete. The complete question is :

Assume that the energy lost was entirely due to friction and that the total length of the PVC pipe is 1 meter. Use this length to compute the average force of friction (for this calculation, you may neglect uncertainties).

Mass of the ball :  16.3 g

Predicted range :  0.3503 m

Actual range : 1.09 m

Solution :

Given that :

The predicted range is 0.3503 m

Time of the fall is :

[tex]$t=\sqrt{\frac{2H}{g}}$[/tex]

[tex]v_1t= 0.35[/tex]  ...........(i)

[tex]v_0t= 1.09[/tex]  ...........(ii)

Dividing the equation (ii) by (i)

[tex]$\frac{v_0t}{v_1t}=\frac{1.09}{035} = 3.11$[/tex]

∴ [tex]v_0=3.11 \ v_1[/tex]

Now loss of energy  = change in the kinetic energy

[tex]$W=\frac{1}{2} m [v_0^2-v_1^2]$[/tex]

[tex]$W=\frac{1}{2} \times (16.3 \times 10^{-3}) \times [v_0^2-\left(\frac{v_0}{3.11}\right)^2]$[/tex]

[tex]$W=7.307\times 10^{-3} \ v_0^2$[/tex]

If f is average friction force, then

(f)(L) = W

(f) (1) = [tex]$7.307\times 10^{-3} \ v_0^2$[/tex]

(f)  = [tex]$7.307\times 10^{-3} \ v_0^2$[/tex]

The Average force of friction is ( F )  = 7.307 * 10⁻³ v₀²

Given data:

Predicted range ( v₁t ) = 0.3503 m

Actual range ( v₀t ) = 1.09 m

mass = 16.3 g

First step : Determine the value of  V₀

[tex]t = \sqrt{\frac{2H}{g} }[/tex]    ,    v₁t  =  0.3503 ,    ( v₀t ) = 1.09 m

To obtain the value of  V₀  

Divide ( v₀t ) by ( v₁t )  =  1.09 / 0.3503 = 3.11 v₁

∴ V₀ = 3.11 v₁

Next step : Determine the average force of friction ( f )

given that loss of energy results in a change in kinetic energy

W = [tex]\frac{1}{2} m ( vo^{2} - v1^{2} )[/tex]

    = 1/2 * 16.3 * 10⁻³ * [ v₀² - [tex](\frac{v_{0} }{3.11} )^{2}[/tex] ]

∴ W = 7.307 * 10⁻³ v₀²

Average force of friction = W / Actual length

                                         = 7.307 * 10⁻³ v₀² / 1  

∴ Average force of friction ( F )  = 7.307 * 10⁻³ v₀²

Hence we can conclude that the average force of friction is 7.307 * 10⁻³ v₀²

Learn more about average force of friction : https://brainly.com/question/16207943

Your question has some missing data below are the missing data related to your question

Mass of the ball :  16.3 g

Predicted range :  0.3503 m

Actual range : 1.09 m

Answer:

The period the field must be reduced to zero is 9.81 x 10⁻⁵ s

Explanation:

Given;

initial value of the magnetic field, B₁ = 0.276 T

number of turns of the solenoid, N = 517 turns

diameter of the solenoid, d = 10.5 cm = 0.105 m

induced emf, = 12.6 kV = 12,600 V

when the field becomes zero, then the final magnetic field value, B₂ = 0

The induced emf is given by Faraday's law;

[tex]emf = -\frac{NA\Delta B}{t} \\\\emf = -\frac{NA (B_2 -B_1)}{t} \\\\t = -\frac{NA (B_2 -B_1)}{emf}\\\\t = \frac{NA (B_1 -B_2)}{emf}\\\\where;\\\\t \ is \ the \ time \ when \ B = 0 \ \ (i.e\ B_2 = 0)\\\\A \ is \ the \ area \ of \ the \ coil\\\\A = \frac{\pi d^2}{4} = \frac{\pi (0.105)^2}{4} = 0.00866 \ m^2\\\\t= \frac{(517) \times (0.00866)\times (0.276 -0)}{12,600}\\\\t = 9.81 \times 10^{-5} \ s[/tex]

Therefore, the period the field must be reduced to zero is 9.81 x 10⁻⁵ s

Answer:

the answer is option B because opposit sides of the magnets attract each other

Explanation:

Movement:refers to the changing in the lights whether it be a change in intensity, color or direction of origin.

Answer:

For (a): The chemical shift is [tex]2.08\delta[/tex]

For (b): The chemical shift is [tex]9.85\delta[/tex]

For (c): The chemical shift is [tex]7.5\delta[/tex]

Explanation:

To calculate the chemical shift, we use the equation:

[tex]\text{Chemical shift in ppm}=\frac{\text{Peak position (in Hz)}}{\text{Spectrometer frequency (in MHz)}}[/tex]

Given value of spectrometer frequency = 200 MHz

Given peak position = 416 Hz

Putting values in above equation, we get:

[tex]\text{Chemical shift in ppm}=\frac{416Hz}{200MHz}\\\\\text{Chemical shift in ppm}=2.08\delta[/tex]

Given peak position = [tex]1.97\times 10^3 Hz[/tex]

Putting values in above equation, we get:

[tex]\text{Chemical shift in ppm}=\frac{1.97\times 10^3Hz}{200MHz}\\\\\text{Chemical shift in ppm}=9.85\delta[/tex]

Given peak position = [tex]1.50\times 10^3 Hz[/tex]

Putting values in above equation, we get:

[tex]\text{Chemical shift in ppm}=\frac{1.50\times 10^3Hz}{200MHz}\\\\\text{Chemical shift in ppm}=7.5\delta[/tex]

Newton's third law states that for every action (force) in nature there is an equal and opposite reaction. If object A exerts a force on object B, object B also exerts an equal and opposite force on object A. In other words, forces result from interactions.

Hope it helps

Answer:

Newton's third law state that every action there is equal but opposite reactions

hope this will help you more

Answer:

C. 5730 years

Explanation:

N(t) = N(0)e^-kt

The half-life is T = 5730 years,

e^-kT = 1/2

→ k = - ln(1/2) / T

→ - ln(1/2) / 5730

→ 1.209681 x 10^-4 years^-1

The amount present dropped to 50%.

Then one half-life has elapsed, so the age is 5730 years.