1.
(a)
P
center
Figure 1
A ball is released at point P with a tangential velocity of 5 ms to move in a circular track in a
vertical plane as shown in the Figure 1. Can the ball reach the highest point of the circular track
of radius 1.0 m? Give reasons. (4 marks]

Answer:

0.5639m

Explanation:

For a young double slit experiment the expression below gives the angular separation for m dark fringe having slit width d and wavelength λ

=sin⁻¹(mλ/d)

mλ /d =y/L

for the first order,

y= mλL/d

For ratio separation y₀/yD=1 and d= 1

y₀/yD= [mλ ₀L₀/d]/[mλD.LD./d]

1=λ ₀L₀/λD.LD.

λD.LD= λ ₀L₀

L₀= λD.LD/ λ ₀..............(1)

Then substitute the given values into (1) we have

L₀=471 *0.497/611

= 0.3831m

Distance by which the screen has to be moved towards the slit is

LD- Lo

0.947-0.3831= 0.5639m

Answer:

1. Energy: ultraviolet>> visible> infrared

2. Frequency: ultraviolet>> visible > infrared

3. Wavelength: infrared >> visible > ultraviolet

Explanation:

Electromagnetic waves are a class of waves that do not require material medium for their propagation, and travel at the same speed. They are arranged with respect to either their decreasing wavelength or increasing frequency to form a spectrum called an electromagnetic spectrum.

Comparing the energy, frequency and wavelength of ultraviolet, infrared and visible regions, it can be deduced that:

1. Energy: ultraviolet has the highest energy, then followed by visible, and infrared has the lowest energy.

i.e energy: ultraviolet>> visible> infrared

2. Frequency: ultraviolet radiation has the highest frequency, visible region has a greater frequency than that of infrared.

i.e frequency: ultraviolet>> visible > infrared

3. Wavelength: infrared radiation has the highest wavelength, followed by visible region, and ultraviolet radiation has the lowest wavelength.

i.e  wavelength: infrared >> visible > ultraviolet

In terms of lowest to the highest energy,frequency, and wavelength is;

Energy: infrared > visible light > ultraviolet

Frequency: infrared > visible light > ultraviolet

Wavelength: ultraviolet > visible light > infrared

The electromagnetic spectrum is made up of all the electromagnetic waves (ultraviolet, infrared, and visible) arranged according to their energy,frequency, and wavelength.

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Answer:

α = π/3

β = π/6

Explanation:

Use arc length equation to find the sum of the angles.

s = rθ

π/20 m = (0.1 m) (α + β)

π/2 = α + β

Draw a free body diagram for each sphere.  Both spheres have three forces acting on them:

Weight force mg pulling down,

Normal force N pushing perpendicular to the surface,

and tension force T pulling tangential to the surface.

Sum of forces on A in the tangential direction:

∑F = ma

T − m₁g sin α = 0

T = m₁g sin α

Sum of forces on B in the tangential direction:

∑F = ma

T − m₂g sin β = 0

T = m₂g sin β

Substituting:

m₁g sin α = m₂g sin β

m₁ sin α = m₂ sin β

(1 kg) sin α = (√3 kg) sin (π/2 − α)

1 sin α = √3 cos α

tan α = √3

α = π/3

β = π/6

Answer:

to overcome the out of friction we must increase the angle of the plane

Explanation:

To answer this exercise, let's propose the solution of the problem, write Newton's second law. We define a coordinate system where the x axis is parallel to the plane and the other axis is perpendicular to the plane.

X axis

       fr - Wₓ = m    a                      (1)

Y axis  

       N- [tex]W_{y}[/tex] = 0

       N = W_{y}

let's use trigonometry to find the components of the weight

        sin θ = Wₓ / W

        cos θ = W_{y} / W

        Wₓ = W sin θ

        W_{y} = W cos θ

the friction force has the formula

         fr = μ N

         fr = μ Wy

         fr = μ mg cos θ

from equation 1

at the point where the force equals the maximum friction force

in this case the block is still still so a = 0

           F = fr

           F = (μ  mg) cos θ

We can see that the quantities in parentheses with constants, so as the angle increases, the applied force must be less.

This is the force that balances the friction force, any force slightly greater than F initiates the movement.

Consequently, to overcome the out of friction we must increase the angle of the plane

the correct answer is to increase the angle of the plane

Answer:

B. 1.6 x 10⁻³ m

Explanation:

The magnetic field at the center of the loop is given by;

[tex]B = \frac{\mu_o I }{2R}[/tex]

Where;

μ₀ is the permeability of free space

I is the current in the loop

R is the radius of the circular loop

B is the magnetic field

Given;

diameter of the loop = 1cm

radius of the loop, r = 0.5 cm = 0.005 m

magnetic field, B = 2.5mT = 2.5 x 10⁻³ T

The current in the loop is calculated as;

[tex]I = \frac{2BR}{\mu_o} \\\\I = \frac{2*2.5*10^{-3}*0.005}{4\pi*10^{-7}} \\\\I = 19.89 \ A[/tex]

The magnetic at a distance from the long straight wire is calculated as;

[tex]B = \frac{\mu_o I}{2\pi d}[/tex]

where;

d is the distance from the wire;

[tex]d = \frac{\mu_o I}{2\pi B} \\\\d = \frac{4\pi *10^{-7} * 19.89}{2\pi *2.5*10^{-3}} \\\\d = 1.6 *10^{-3} \ m[/tex]

Therefore, the distance from the wire where the magnetic field is 2.5 mT is 1.6 x 10⁻³ m.

B. 1.6 x 10⁻³ m

This question involves the concepts of the magnetic field due to a loop and a  current-carrying wire and current.

A long straight wire carrying the same current as the loop of wire has a magnetic field of 2.5 mT at a distance of b "B. 1.5 x 10⁻³ m".

The magnetic field at the center of a loop of wire is given by the following formula:

[tex]B=\frac{\mu_o I}{2r}[/tex]

where,

B = Magnetic Field = 2.5 mT = 2.5 x 10⁻³ T

μ₀ = permeability of free space = 4π x 10⁻⁷ N/A²

I = current = ?

r = radius = diameter/2 = 1 cm/2 = 0.5 cm = 0.005 m

Therefore,

[tex]I = \frac{(2.5\ x\ 10^{-3}\ T)(2)(0.005\ m)}{4\pi\ x\ 10^{-7}\ N/A^2}[/tex]

I = 19.9 A

Now, the magnetic field at a distance from the straight wire is given by the following formula:

[tex]B=\frac{\mu_o I}{2\pi R}[/tex]

where,

R = distance from wire = ?

Therefore,

[tex]R = \frac{(4\pi \ x \ 10^{-7}\ N/A^2)(19.9\ A)}{2\pi(2.5\ x\ 10^{-3}\ T)}[/tex]

R = 1.6 x 10⁻³ m

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Answer:

The question is not complete, here is the other part.

Assume that n = 1.36.

Express your answer to three significant figures and include the appropriate units.

λ = 707.2nm

Explanation:

n = 1.36

t = 130

2 n t= (m+1/2) λ

To solve for λ.

λ = 2 n t ÷ m+1/2

λ = 2 × 1.36 × 130 ÷ m +1/2

λ =

If m= 0

λ= 353.6 ÷ 0+ 1/2

λ = 353.6 × 2

= 707.2nm

Answer:

b

Explanation:

Explanation:

We know that,

[tex]v(wave \: speed) = f(frequency) \times \alpha (wavelength)[/tex]

frequency (f) = 1 / t (sec) = 8/60 = 0.13 Hz

V ( wave speed) = 0.13 * 120 = 16 m/sec

The speed of the given wave is equal to 15.96 m/s.

The frequency of the wave can be defined as the number of oscillations of a wave in one second. The frequency has S.I. units which can be expressed as per second or hertz (Hz).

The wavelength can be described as the distance between the two adjacent points in phase. Two crests or two troughs of a wave are separated by a distance is called wavelength.

The relationship between wavelength (λ), frequency (ν), and wave speed (V):

V = νλ

Given, the frequency of the wave, ν = 8 min⁻¹ = 0.133 s⁻¹

The wavelength of the wave, λ = 120 m

The speed of the waves can calculate from the above-mentioned relationship:

V = νλ = 120 × 0.133 = 15.96 m/s

Therefore, the speed of the wave is equal to 15.96 m/s.

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Answer:

Apparent depth (Da) = 60.15 cm (Approx)

Explanation:

Given:

Distance from fish (D) = 80 cm

Find:

Apparent depth (Da)

Computation:

We know that,

Refractive index of water (n2) = 1.33

So,

Apparent depth (Da) = D(n1/n2)

Apparent depth (Da) = 80 (1/1.33)

Apparent depth (Da) = 60.15 cm (Approx)

The apparent depth of the fish is 60 cm.

To calculate the apparent depth of the fish, we use the formula below.

Formula:

Where:

Make D' The subject of the equation.

From the question,

Given:

Substitute these values into equation 2

Hence, the apparent depth of the fish is 60 cm

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Answer:

a

   [tex]\lambda = 1.667 nm[/tex]

b

     [tex]\theta = 0.8681^o[/tex]

Explanation:

From the question we are told that

   The distance of separation is [tex]d = 0.220 \ mm = 0.00022 \ m[/tex]

    The  is distance of the screen from the slit is  [tex]D = 2.60 \ m[/tex]

    The distance between the central bright fringe and either of the adjacent bright   [tex]y = 1.97 cm = 1.97 *10^{-2}\ m[/tex]

Generally  the condition for constructive interference is  

      [tex]d sin \tha(\theta ) = n \lambda[/tex]

From the question we are told that small-angle approximation is valid here.

So    [tex]sin (\theta ) = \theta[/tex]

=>        [tex]d \theta = n \lambda[/tex]

=>        [tex]\theta = \frac{n * \lambda }{d }[/tex]

Here n is the order of maxima and the value is  n =  1 because we are considering the central bright fringe and either of the adjacent bright fringes

Generally the distance between the central bright fringe and either of the adjacent bright  is mathematically represented as

         [tex]y = D * sin (\theta )[/tex]

From the question we are told that small-angle approximation is valid here.

So

       [tex]y = D * \theta[/tex]

=>   [tex]\theta = \frac{ y}{D}[/tex]

So

     [tex]\frac{n * \lambda }{d } = \frac{y}{D}[/tex]

     [tex]\lambda =\frac{d * y }{n * D}[/tex]

substituting values

       [tex]\lambda = \frac{0.00022 * 1.97*10^{-2} }{1 * 2.60 }[/tex]

        [tex]\lambda = 1.667 *10^{-6}[/tex]

        [tex]\lambda = 1.667 nm[/tex]

In the b part of the question we are considering the next set of bright fringe so  n=  2

    Hence

     [tex]dsin (\theta ) = n \lambda[/tex]

    [tex]\theta = sin^{-1}[\frac{ n * \lambda }{d} ][/tex]

    [tex]\theta = sin^{-1}[\frac{ 2 * 1667 *10^{-9}}{ 0.00022} ][/tex]

    [tex]\theta = 0.8681^o[/tex]

Answer:

p = -q  

he distance is equal to the current distance, so the distance does not change

Explanation:

For this exercise we can solve it using the equation of the constructor

            1 / f = 1 / p + 1 / q

where f is the focal length, p the distance to the object and q the distance to the image

For a flat surface the radius is at infinity, therefore 1 / f = 0, which implies

          1 / p = - 1 / q

           p = -q

Therefore the distance is equal to the current distance, so the distance does not change

Answer:

5.465 × 10^10 revolutions

Explanation:

Formula for Magnetic Field = m. v/ q . r

M = mass of electron = mass of positron = 9.11 x 10^-31 kg,

radius of the positron = 5.03 mm

We convert to meters.

1000mm = 1m

5.03mm = xm

Cross multiply

x = 5.03/1000mm

x = 0.00503m

q = Electric charge = -1.6 x 10^-19 C

Magnetic field (B) = 0.85 T

Speed of the positron is unknown

0.85 = 9.11 x 10^-31 kg × v/ -1.6 x 10^-19 C × 0.00503

0.85 × 1.6 x 10^-19 C × 0.00503 = 9.11 x 10^-31 kg × v

v = 0.85 × -1.6 x 10^-19 C × 0.00503/9.11 x 10^-31 kg

v = 6.8408 ×10-22/ 9.11 x 10^-31 kg

v = 750911086.72m/s

Formula for complete revolutions =

Speed × time / Circumference

Time = 2.30s

Circumference of the circular path = 2πr

r =0.00503

Circumference = 2 × π × 0.00503

= 0.0316044221

Revolution = 750911086.72 × 2.30/0.0316044221

= 1727095499.5/0.0316044221

= 546541562294 revolutions

Approximately = 5.465 × 10^10 revolutions

Answer:

The charge is  [tex]Q = 2.177 *10^{-9} \ C[/tex]

Explanation:

From the question we are told that

     The electric potential is  [tex]V = 25.0 \ kV = 25.0 *10^{3}\ V[/tex]

     The  mass of the drop is  [tex]m = 0.168 \ m g = 0.168 *10^{-3} \ g = 0.168 *10^{-6}\ kg[/tex]

      The  speed is  [tex]v = 18.8 \ m/s[/tex]

Generally the charge on the paint drop due to the electric potential which will give it the speed stated in the question  is mathematically represented as

       [tex]Q = \frac{m v^2 }{ 2 * V }[/tex]

Substituting values

      [tex]Q = \frac{0.168 *10^{-6} (18)^2 }{ 2 * 25*10^3 }[/tex]

       [tex]Q = 2.177 *10^{-9} \ C[/tex]

Answer:

8 mm

Explanation:

From the information given:

The Ampere circuital law can be used to estimate the magnetic field strength at two points when the distance is less than the radius and when the distance is greater than the radius.

when the distance is less than the radius ; we have:

[tex]B_1 = \dfrac{ \mu_o \times I \times r}{2 \times \pi \times \ d^2}[/tex]

when the distance is greater than the radius; we have:

[tex]B_2 = \dfrac{\mu_o \ \times I}{2 \ \times \pi \times R}[/tex]

Equating both equations together ; we have :

[tex]\dfrac{ \mu_o \times I \times r}{2 \times \pi \times \ d^2} = \dfrac{\mu_o \ \times I}{2 \ \times \pi \times R}[/tex]

[tex]\dfrac{1}{R}= \dfrac{r}{d^2}[/tex]

[tex]R= \dfrac{d^2}{r}[/tex]

where; d = radius of the wire and r = distance;

[tex]R =\dfrac{4^2}{2}[/tex]

[tex]R =\dfrac{16}{2}[/tex]

R = 8 mm

Answer:

lateral splaying of echoes in the far field can be improved by Increasing the maximum number of transmit focal zones and optimize their location.

Answer:

The radius is  [tex]r = 3.1905 \ m[/tex]

Explanation:

From the question we are told that

        The  distance  beneath the liquid  is  [tex]d = 2.70 \ m[/tex]

        The refractive index of the liquid is  [tex]n_i = 1.31[/tex]

Now the critical value is mathematically represented as

         [tex]\theta = sin ^{-1} [\frac{1}{n_i} ][/tex]

substituting values

         [tex]\theta = sin ^{-1} [\frac{1}{131} ][/tex]

         [tex]\theta = 49.76^o[/tex]

Using SOHCAHTOA rule we have that

         [tex]tan \theta = \frac{ r}{d}[/tex]

=>     [tex]r = d * tan \theta[/tex]

substituting values  

        [tex]r = 2.7 * tan (49.76)[/tex]

        [tex]r = 3.1905 \ m[/tex]

This question is incomplete, the complete question is;

A force of 193 pounds makes an angle of  79°14' with a second force. The resultant of the two forces makes an angle of 27°0' to the first force. Find the magnitudes of the second force and of the resultant.

Answer:

magnitudes of the second force (vector) is 110.84 lb

the resultant force force has a magnitude of 239.85 lb

Explanation:

Given that;

Magnitude of resultant vector R = ?

Direction of resultant vector α = 27°0'

Magnitude of vector p = 193

Magnitude of vector Q = ?

Angle between two vectors ∅ = 79°14'

Using the formula

tan∝ = [ Qsin∅ / P + Qcos∅]

tan27°0' = [ Qsin79°14' / 193 + Qcos79°14' )

we cross multiply

(193tan27°0') + (Qcos79°14'tan27°0' ) = Qsin79°14'

Q = 193tan27°0' / (sin79°14' - cos79°14'tan27°0')

Q = 110.84 lb

Therefore magnitudes of the second force (vector) is 110.84 lb

Now

R = √( p² + Q² + 2PQcos∅ )

R = √( 193² + 110.84² + ( 2 × 193 × 110.84 × cos79°14'))

R = 239.85 lb

Therefore the resultant force force has a magnitude of 239.85 lb

Answer:

Time, [tex]t=1.07\times 10^{-23}\ s[/tex]

Explanation:

Given that,

When a high-energy proton or pion traveling near the speed of light collides with a nucleus, it may travel [tex]3.2\times 10^{-15}\ m[/tex] before interacting.

Let t is the time interval required for the strong interaction to occur. It will move with the speed of light. So,

[tex]t=\dfrac{d}{c}\\\\t=\dfrac{3.2\times 10^{-15}}{3\times 10^8}\\\\t=1.07\times 10^{-23}\ s[/tex]

So, the time interval is [tex]1.07\times 10^{-23}\ s[/tex]

Answer:

The number of windings is 1.

Explanation:

The radius of the solenoid = 8.0 cm = 0.08 m

Length of the solenoid = 45.0 cm = 0.45 m

number of turn = ?

circumference of each winding = 2πr = 2 x 3.142 x 0.08 = 0.503 m

The number of windings = (Length of the solenoid)/(circumference of each winding)

==> 0.45/0.503 = 0.89 ≅ 1

The correct answer is B. Calcite

Explanation:

Mohs hardness scale indicates the hardness of minerals using a scale from 1 to 10 as well as defining the objects or tools that can be used to scratch the minerals. These two features of minerals are shown in the table of the image. About this, it is shown gypsum and talc can be scratched by just a fingernail, considering minerals with a hardness of 2.5 or below can be scratched by a fingernail. In the case of calcite that has a hardness of 3, this cannot be scratched by a fingernail, but it can be scratched by a penny, which works for minerals with a hardness of 3.5 or below. Thus, the correct answer is Calcite.

The answer is 3. Observation

Explanation:

The sentence "The popcorn kernels popped twice as fast as the last batch" is the result of observing or measuring the time popcorn kernels require to pop. In this context, the sentence best matches the word "observation" which the term used in the Scientific method to refer to statements that are the result of studying a phenomenon, either through the senses such as sight or through precise instruments that allow scientists to understand numerically variables such as time, speed, temperature, etc.

Answer:

λmax = 372 nm

Explanation:

First we find the energy of photon:

E = hc/λ

where,

E = Energy of Photon = ?

λ = Wavelength of Light = 233 nm = 2.33 x 10⁻⁷ m

c = speed of light = 3 x 10⁸ m/s

h = Planks Constant = 6.626 x 10⁻³⁴ J.s

Therefore,

E = (6.626 x 10⁻³⁴ J.s)(3 x 10⁸ m/s)/(2.33 x 10⁻⁷ m)

E = 8.5 x 10⁻¹⁹ J

Now, from Einstein's Photoelectric Equation:

E = Work Function + Kinetic Energy

8.5 x 10⁻¹⁹ J = Work Function + (1.98 eV)(1.6 x 10⁻¹⁹ J/1 eV)

Work Function = 8.5 x 10⁻¹⁹ J - 3.168 x 10⁻¹⁹ J

Work Function = 5.332 x 10⁻¹⁹ J

Since, work function is the minimum amount of energy required to emit electron. Therefore:

Work Function = hc/λmax

λmax = hc/Work Function

where,

λmax = maximum wavelength of light that will produce photoelectrons = ?

Therefore,

λmax = (6.626 x 10⁻³⁴ J.s)(3 x 10⁸ m/s)/(5.332 x 10⁻¹⁹ J)

λmax = 3.72 x 10⁻⁷ m

λmax = 372 nm

Answer:

The actual height is 3.308 m.

Explanation:

The person is swimming below the water surface at distance = 0.80 m  

The height of the diving board appears at a distance or height = 5.20 m

Now we have to find the actual distance of the diving board from the water surface.

We know the refractive index of water is 1.33.

Therefore, the actual height = (Distance that appears – distance below the water surface) / Refractive index.

The actual height = ( 5.20 - 0.80 ) / 1.33 = 3.308 m

Answer:

a)  q = 7.5 10⁻² C , b) 190 J , c)  I₀ = 50 A , d) 1.5 mC

Explanation:

The expression for capacitance is

            C = q / DV

            q = C DV

let's reduce the magnitudes to the SI system

            ΔV = 5 kV = 5000 V

            C = 15 μF = 15 10⁻⁶ F

              t = 90 μs = 90 10⁻⁶ s

            q = 15 10⁻⁶ 5000

            q = 7.5 10⁻² C

b) the energy in a capacitor is

             U = ½ C ΔV²

             U = ½ 15 10⁻⁶ 5000²

             U = 1,875 10² J

answer  190 J

c) At the moment the discharge begins, all the current is available and it decreases with time,

whereby

                V = I R

in the first instant I = Io

                I₀ = V / R

                I₀ = 5000/100

                I₀ = 50 A

but this is for a very short time

answer 50 A

d) The definition of current is

            i = dq / dt

in this case they give us the total current and the total time, so we can find the total charge

            i = q / t

            q = i t

            q = 17 90 10⁻⁶

            q = 1.53 10⁻³ C

answer is 1.5 mC

Answer:static friction and kinetic friction in a system always act in the same direction as each other and n the opposite direction of the applie force . Is the correct answer

Explanation:

Static friction and kinetic friction in a system always act in the same direction as each other and in the opposite direction of the applied force. The correct option is B.

Friction is the force that prevents one hard material from scooting or rolling over the other.

Frictional forces, such as the locomotion required to walk without dropping, are advantageous, but they also create a significant amount of resistance to motion.

We can control cars because of friction between the tires and the road: more precisely, because there are three types of friction: rolling friction, starting friction, and sliding friction.

Friction reduces the speed of moving objects and can even stop them from moving. The friction between the objects generates heat. As a result, energy is wasted in the machines. Friction will cause wear and tear on the machine parts.

In a system, static and kinetic friction always act in the same direction and in the opposite direction of the applied force.

Thus, the correct option is B.

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Answer:

A. 0.0374C

B. 0.012F

C. 18 ohms

Explanation:

See attached file

Answer:

Explanation:

In the given case for destructive interference , the condition is,

path difference = (2n+1)λ /2  where n is an integer and λ is wavelength

2 μ d = (2n+1)λ /2

Putting λ = 653 nm

for minimum thickness n = 0

2 μ d = 653 / 2 nm

= 326.5 nm

For constructive interference the condition is

2 μ d = n λ₁

326.5 nm = n λ₁

λ₁ = 326.5 / n  

For n = 1

λ₁ = 326.5 nm ,

or , 326.5nm .

Longest wavelength possible is 326.5

Answer:use the formular distance over time i.e distance/time. Make sure to convert the distance from metres to kilometers and time from minutes to hours .

Explanation:

The average speed of the car is 31,680 meters per hour.

To calculate the average speed of the car, you need to divide the total distance traveled by the time it took to travel that distance.

Given:

Time taken (t) = 10 minutes = 10 minutes × (1 hour / 60 minutes) = 10/60 hours = 1/6 hours

Distance traveled (d) = 5,280 meters

Average Speed (v) = Distance (d) / Time (t)

Average Speed (v) = 5280 meters / (1/6) hours

To simplify, when you divide by a fraction, it's equivalent to multiplying by its reciprocal:

Average Speed (v) = 5280 meters × (6/1) hours

Average Speed (v) = 31,680 meters per hour

Hence, the average speed of the car is 31,680 meters per hour.

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Explanation:

According to Ohms Law :

V = I * R

(A) R (Resistance) = 0.022 / 0.75 = 0.03 Ohms

Also,

[tex]r = \alpha \frac{length}{area} = \alpha \frac{5.8}{3.14 \times 0.001 \times 0.001} [/tex]

(B)

[tex] \alpha(resistivity) = 1.62 \times {10}^{ - 8} [/tex]

Drift speed is missing. It is given as;

1.7 × 10^(-5) m/s

A) R = 0.0293 ohms

B) ρ = 1.589 × 10^(-8)

C) n = 8.8 × 10^(28) electrons

This is about finding, resistance and resistivity.

Length; L = 5.8 m

Diameter; d = 2mm = 0.002 m

Radius; r = d/2 = 0.001 m

Voltage; V = 22 mv = 0.022 V

Current; I = 750 mA = 0.75 A

Area; A = πr² = 0.001²π

Drift speed; v_d = 1.7 × 10^(-5) m/s

R = V/I

R = 0.022/0.75

R = 0.0293 ohms

ρ = RA/L

ρ = (0.0293 × 0.001²π)/5.8

ρ = 1.589 × 10^(-8)

J = n•e•v_d

Where;

J = I/A = 0.75/0.001²π A/m² = 238732.44 A/m²

e is charge on an electron = 1.6 × 10^(-19) C

v_d = 1.7 × 10^(-5) m/s

n is number of free electrons per unit volume

Thus;

238732.44 = n(1.6 × 10^(-19) × 1.7 × 10^(-5))

238732.44 = (2.72 × 10^(-24))n

n = 238732.44/(2.72 × 10^(-24))

n = 8.8 × 10^(28)

Read more at; brainly.com/question/17005119

Answer:

Explanation:

The direction of propagation of electromagnetic wave

is given by the direction of vector E x B where E is electrical field , B is magnetic field .

Given Electric field  = E i because it is along x axis

Magnetic field = Bj because it is along y axis

E x B = Ei x Bj

= EB k .

so direction of E  x B is along k direction or z  - axis so wave is propagating along z - axis .

The direction of motion of electromagnetic wave will be +z-direction.

Electromagnetic waves are waves that consist of the electric field and magnetic field.

The electric and magnetic fields are perpendicular to each other and the wave propagates in the direction perpendicular to both the fields.

Now, the direction of wave motion can be estimated by taking the cross-product of directional unit vectors of the electric and magnetic fields.

The electric field is in the +y direction and the magnetic field is in the +x-direction.

So, the direction of the wave will be,

[tex]i\times j=k[/tex]

Therefore, the direction of motion of electromagnetic wave will be +z-direction.

For more details, refer to the link:

https://brainly.com/question/8553652