Answer:
positive error and negative error.
Explanation:
There are two types of error which is possible when measuring of a length with the help of ruler. Positive error occurs if the calculated value is larger than actual value while negative error occurs when the calculated value is smaller than actual value. To avoid positive error, the increased value should be subtracted from calculated value while negative error can be corrected by adding the value with the reading.
Based on the data table below, which number would be the BEST choice for the top number of the scale on the vertical axis of a scatter plot showing this data?
Answer:
D. 70
Explanation:
From the table given, we can easily tell that distance (m) is dependent on time (s). Distance is a dependent variable, while time is an independent variable.
If both variables were to be plotted to show the relationship between them on a scatter plot, the dependent variable is usually plotted on the vertical axis (y-axis), while the independent variable would be plotted on the horizontal axis (x-axis).
Distance would be in the vertical axis, while time would be in the horizontal axis.
Therefore, the BEST choice for the top number of the scale on the vertical axis would certainly be 70, because the highest value for distance (m) on the table of values is 69.
Challenge Question! If a pregnant woman had a karyotype prepared for her baby before birth, would it be more useful in predicting the risk of Down Syndrome or Tay Sachs disease?
Answer:
Yes
Explanation:
Karyotype involves the process of viewing a persons chromosomes through Sophisticated equipments.
Down Syndrome or Tay Sachs disease are genetic diseases associated with chromosomal defects.
Having a karyotype prepared for her baby before birth, would be more useful in predicting the risk of Down Syndrome or Tay Sachs disease.
Keeping in mind that a crayfish is saltier than the fresh water it occupies, and remembering the idea of osmosis, note that the antennal gland deals directly with the consequences of this issue. What do you suppose the function of the antennal gland is
If the two chromosomes of a homologous pair carry the same allele for a particular gene, the individual is said to be:_____.
Answer
H0m0zygous
Explanation
The answer to the question is in the attachment. Please open the attachment
TRBP is a protein important for the formation of the RISC complex. Which of the following would you expect in cells with null mutations in TRBP?
a. Reduced siRNA-mediated mRNA degradation
b. Increased miRNA-mediated translational repression
c. Increased deadenylase-mediated mRNA degradation
d. Reduced proteasome-mediated protein degradation
Answer:
a. Reduced siRNA-mediated mRNA degradation
Explanation:
The TRBP (transactivation response element RNA-binding protein) is an RNA-binding protein that forms the Dicer complex, which is involved in epigenetic pathways such as those mediated by the RNA interference (RNAi) mechanism. RNAi is a key process where small non-coding RNAs such as, for example, small interfering RNAs (siRNAs) and microRNAs (miRNAs) can inhibit target gene expression at posttranscriptional level by different mechanisms (including the degradation of target mRNAs). A null mutation of this cofactor will alter the Dicer complex, thereby also affecting RNAi pathways mediated by small interfering RNAs.
three (3) advantages of using a resource person in handling the First Aid lesson.
Answer:
Advantages of resource person in handling the first aid lesson are as follows:
He is an expert who share important points during first aid and prevents any mishappening.They also provide assistance to the community member and provide social audits in villages.A resource person can share extreme difficult cases of injuries and will introduce new methods to adopt first aid in those conditions.What term matches the following definition: " ...a fundamental evolutionary process that results in both the adaptation of species to their environments and the generation of biodiversity (new species)"?
Answer:
a.Natural selection
b.Evolution
c.Artificial selection
d.Co-evolution
The correct option is A.
Natural selection.
Explanation:
The correct answer is natural selection because Natural selection is an evolutionary process which was discussed by Charles Darwin in 1859, In one of his theory that it is the ability of organisms to develop traits or characteristics that will help them to adapt and ensure their survival in their environment and then passing or transferring these new traits to new species or offsprings over generations through reproduction.
Describe the intermolecular interaction of the surface carboxylate groups of a micelle and the surrounding water.
Answer:
Hydrophilic portions are outside and hydrophobic regions are inside
Explanation:
A micelle is an assembly of amphiphilic molecules formed in a liquid solution, generally an aqueous solution. Micelles are formed due to the packing (aggregation-like) behavior in which single-tail lipids are organized in a bilayer. A typical micelle in aqueous solution forms a spheric assembly where carboxylate ions are organized in a mode that hydrophilic head regions enter in contact with the surrounding water, while hydrophobic (lipophilic) portions are disposed inside the micelle.
Activation of the parasympathetic branch of the autonomic nervous system:______
a. enhances digestion.
b. causes conversion of glycogen to glucose.
c. triggers release of epinephrine.
d. increases heart rate.
Answer:
A - enhances digestion
You want to see if mold grows faster on bread in the shade than on bread in the sun. Your experimental variable is _____. mold bread the sun
Answer:
bread
Explanation:
the exponential variable doesn't change
Genes, Chromosomes, and DNA Quick Check
If one half of a DNA molecule has 8 thymine bases, what else is also true about the DNA molecule? ( point)
There will be 16 total bases.
There will be 32 total bases.
There will be 8 adenine bases.
There will be 8 cytosine bases.
Answer:
There will be 8 adenine bases.
Explanation:
There are total of 4 nitrogenous bases present in a DNA that includes Adenine, Guanine, Thymine, and Cytosine. These nitrogenous bases form complementary base pair in which, adenine form two hydrogen bonds with thymine and cytosine form three hydrogen bond with guanine.
So, if there are 8 thymine bases in a DNA (irrespective of half or full) then there will be 8 adenine bases, forming two hydrogen bond with each other.
Hence, the correct answer is "There will be 8 adenine bases."
The origin and the insertion are made up of __________.
Answer:tendon
I think so..
A.While the traits studied in Exercise 1 were hypothetical genetic traits, what type of genetic traits do you think are important to study and predict
Answer:
Genetic disturbances harmful to the organism are genetic characteristics that must be studied and predicted.
Explanation:
Genetic disorders that harm an organism such as sickle cell anemia, hemophilia, Turner syndrome, among others, are important to be studied and predicted, because it will provide better maintenance of that organism. Allowing people who inherit these characteristics to have more efficient treatments and a better life, since the prediction of these characteristics allows the family to establish better adapapitativo methods, that will make the life of this individual easier and with more quality.
Which submersible vessel has been used deep-sea research
Answer:
The challenger
Explanation:
Used to explore the south pacific, mainly the Mariana trench
Answer:
Which submersible has been used for deep sea research? Alvin Alvin (DSV-2) is a crewed deep-ocean research submersible owned by the United States Navy and operated by the Woods Hole Oceanographic Institution (WHOI) in Woods Hole, Massachusetts.
Explanation:
A mutation that hides the effect of another mutation at a site that is distinct from the site of the original mutation, but with in the same gene. This mutation is best described as a
Answer:
The correct answer is intragenic suppressor mutation.
Explanation:
A suppressor mutation partially or completely converses the effects of a different mutation. A suppressor mutation is of two kinds, that is, an intragenic suppressor and an intergenic suppressor. An intragenic suppressor converses the influence of a mutation at a distinct site in a similar gene.
On the other hand, an intergenic suppressor converses the influence of a mutation at a distinct locus of the gene. It is the intragenic suppressor mutation, which takes place in a similar gene where the occurrence of the first mutation had taken place. Therefore, the mutation, which hides the influence of another mutation at a location, which is different from the location of the original mutation, but taking place in a similar gene can be illustrated as the intragenic suppressor mutation.
If tall is dominant over short, and yellow seed is dominant over green, how would you write the genotype of a pea plant that is heterozygous for tall, and that produces yellow seeds
Answer:
The answer has been written in paper and the image of the paper has been attached. Feel free to raise any doubt.
Cloning to produce embryonic stem cells is called A) regenerative cloning. B) transplantational cloning. C) reproductive cloning. D) therapeutic cloning. E) dedifferentiation.
Answer:
D
Explanation:
The correct option would be therapeutic cloning.
First and foremost, cloning refers to the process of producing genetically and phenotypically similar organisms or cells from a single organism/cell, be it naturally or artificially. The genotypically and phenotypically similar copies of the original organism are called clones.
Artificial clonings are of different types, namely:
Reproductive cloningGene cloningTherapeutic cloningReproductive cloning has to do with producing genetically identical organisms from a particular organism while gene cloning involves producing exact copies of a gene or segments of DNA. Therapeutic cloning, however, involves the production of embryonic stem cells in order to create tissues that would replace similar but damaged or worn-out tissues in living organisms.
Correct option: D
Describe how scent and taste work in conjunction. Are the tastes of below mention foods that were tested heightened by the sense of smell, or only some of the foods?
a. Salt
b. Sugar
c. Lemon Juice
d. Coffe grounds
Answer:
Scent and Taste work in conjunction because when your brain smells food, it pulls up a picture or memory of that food in your head, and you remember what it tasted like and if you enjoyed it.
Only some of the food. Salt does not really have a smell, so it does not do anything, but all the others do and are heightened
Explanation:
Take cotton candy for example. When you smell cotton candy, you smell SUGAR and lots of it. You know that sugar tastes good and as such you now want to eat the cotton candy.
For this example, we will use lemonade. Lemonade is commonly a drink that most love on a hot summer day at the beach. When you smell the lemonade, it reminds your brain of how good it tasted and pulls up the memory at the back of your mind, making you feel happy and relaxed. It then ends up tasting better
(This is my first answer, it won't be perfect)
Smell and taste go hand in hand because when you smell food, your brain conjures up an image or recollection of that food in your head, allowing you to recall how it tasted and if you liked it.
What is Conjuction?Since salt doesn't truly have a fragrance, it has no effect; nevertheless, all the others do and their intensity is increased.
You can definitely smell a lot of sugar when you smell cotton candy. You want to eat the cotton candy because you are aware that sugar tastes delicious.
On a hot summer day at the beach, most people enjoy drinking lemonade.
Therefore, Smell and taste go hand in hand because when you smell food, your brain conjures up an image or recollection of that food in your head, allowing you to recall how it tasted and if you liked it.
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Is lead renewable or not?
Answer:
it is not renewable.........
Answer:
Lead is not a renewable resource. It is a metal that forms naturally in the Earth, but it takes a very long time for metals to form.
Which statement correctly compares the "Analysis" and "Conclusion" sections of a lab report?
Answer:
Hello. You did not enter the answer options, but I can help you by stating that the correct comparison between "analyze" and "conclusion" is one that shows that "Analysis" is able to compare specific research data, while "conclusion" is able to suggest additional research to arrive at more concrete data.
Explanation:
In a scientific research, the "Analysis" section is where the specific research data and the interactions and information that can be extracted from them are analyzed, in a succinct and explanatory way. This section is very important to present how these data were acquired and how they work within the theme developed in the research.
The section called "conclusion", in turn, presents the section where the research will conclude the established theme, showing an affirmation discovered through the research or suggesting additional research that will help to establish an efficient conclusion.
Bile is produced by which organ?
Select one:
a. Small intestine
O
b. Liver
c. Stomach
d. Gall bladder
Draw concentric circles and label the four layers of the gut. Also label the hole at the inner most circle. List what is in these four layers.
Explanation:
here is your answer hopes it's helps u
We can find four principal layers composing the digestive tube walls. From the lumen to the exterior: Mucosa, Submucosa, Muscle, and Serosa Layers.
-----------------------------
There are four principal layers composing the digestive tube walls.
From the lumen to the exterior of the tube, we can find,
Mucosa Layer
Composed of lining epithelium, a propria lamina of connective tissue, and a smooth muscle layer.
The epithelium works as a barrier that separates the lumen from the organ.
Propria lamina has glands, vessels that get the absorbed substances, and immune system elements.
The smooth muscle delimitates the mucose from the submucosa layer. It produces movements that are independent of the rest of the organ's movements.
Submucosa Layer
Dense connective tissue is placed under the mucosa.
It has bigger vessels that ramification to the mucose, muscle layer, and serosa layer.
In certain areas, this layer also has glands.
Muscle Layer
Composed of two or three concentric smooth muscle layers that differ in their orientation.
The contraction of these layers mixes and propels the content of the lumen of the digestive tube.
Serosa layer
Connective tissue membrane covered by simple plane epithelium.
High caliber vessels are placed in this layer and limphatic vessels.
There are regions of the digestive tube where there is no serosa layer. Instead, there is a connective tissue named the adventitious layer.
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Which medical conditions are associated with large amounts of fat and sugar in your diet? Select three options.
Answer:
gall bladder disease
hypertension
osteoarthritis
Answer:
diabetes
heart disease
obesity
Explanation:
1. A star is 520 light years from Earth. During what event in history did the
light now arriving at Earth leave the star?
Answer:
A light year is the distance which is equal to 9,460,730,472,580.8 km, so:
= 4.91957985 X [tex]10^{15}[/tex]km
which is distance travels by the light. Now what time it takes light to travel distance we found.
A year has 365.25 days, so,
[tex]1 (\frac{365.25)}{1 year}) (\frac{24}{1 day}) (\frac{3600 s}{1 hr} )[/tex] = 31557600 seg/year
The light speed in the space is equal to 299,792.458 km/s, so:
4.91957985 x [tex]10^{15} (\frac{1 seg}{29792.458}) \frac{1 year}{31557600}[/tex] = 520 years
if today, August, 2020, then
2020 - 520 = 1500
Spanish and Portuguese spread out over the southern part of the Western Hemisphere and bring in America brought to Spanish colony of Santo Domingo in year 1500.
[tex]t=2019-520\\ t=1499 AD[/tex]
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he most common source of osteomyelitis is an infection that migrates via the bloodstream. direct invasion from a fracture. surgical contamination. a joint prosthesis.
The correct answer is A. An infection that migrates via the bloodstream
Explanation:
Osteomyelitis is a serious condition, in which an infection develops in bones. This causes symptoms such as pain, inflammation, and can lead to the spread of the infection to other tissues or bone necrosis if it is not treated. In terms of causes, this condition develops when the bone is exposed to bacteria or similar that causes the infection, this can occur during surgeries or fractures. However, the most common source of infection is via bloodstream this means the bacteria or germ is in the blood and it enters the bone through the bloodstream. Also, once the bacteria or germ is in the bone it causes the infection.
Which of the following is responsible for the conversion of covalently closed circular DNA to supercoiled DNA of the plasmid of: a) endonuclease b) DNA gynase c) topa isomerase d) exonuclease
Answer:
DNA gyrase
Explanation:
DNA gyrase is a bacterial enzyme that plays an important role in catalyzing the negative supercoiling of circular chromosomal DNA. This enzyme belongs to a class of enzymes called topoisomerases which play a major role in transitioning of DNA structure. DNA gyrase conversion of covalently closed circular DNA to supercoiled DNA is ATP-dependent.
The importance of DNA gyrase cannot be overemphasized, because for DNA synthesis to occur, the DNA must have a single-stranded template, hence, DNA gyrase play an important role in unwinding the double-stranded DNA for replication. It has the ability to introduce negative supercoils and relax positive supercoils prior to replication.
Following antigenic stimulation, phosphorylation of _________ relieves inhibition of the transcription factor
Answer: zap70, ITAM.
Explanation:
An antigen is any substance that is capable of stimulating an immune response by activating lymphocytes, which are the body’s infection-fighting white blood cells. Examples of antigens could be proteins that are part of bacteria or viruses or components of serum and red blood cells from other individuals, all of them are foreign antigens originated outside the body. However, there can also be autoantigens (which are self-antigens), originated within the body. In normal conditions, the body is able to distinguish self from nonself. And the antigens that represent a danger induces an immune response by stimulating the lymphocytes to produce antibody or to attack the antigen directly. This is called an antigenic stimulation of the immune system.
ZAP-70 (Zeta-chain-associated protein kinase 70) is a protein that is part of the T cell receptor, thereby it plays a critical role in T-cell signaling. When the TCR (receptor of T cells) is activated by the presentation of the specific antigen through the MHC, a protein called Lck acts to phosphorylate the intracellular CD3 chains and the ζ chains of the TCR complex, allowing the binding of the cytoplasmic tyrosine kinase, ZAP-70. Lck then phosphorylates and activates ZAP-70, which in turn phosphorylates another molecule in the signaling cascade called LAT (short for Linker of Activated T cells), a transmembrane protein that serves as an anchor site for several other proteins. The tyrosine phosphorylation cascade initiated by the Lck culminates in the intracellular mobilization of calcium ion (Ca2+) and the activation of important signaling cascades within the lymphocytes. These include the Ras-MEK-ERK pathway, which is based on activating certain transcription factors such as NFAT, NFκB and AP-1. These transcription factors regulate the production of of certain gene products, most notably cytokines such as interleukin-2 that promote the long-term proliferation and differentiation of activated lymphocytes.
The ITAM motifs (immunoreceptor tyrosine-based activation motif) are sequences of four amino acids present in the intracellular tails of certain proteins that serve as receptors within the immune system. Thus, some receptors such as the TCR have ITAM sequences that, when activated, trigger an intracellular reaction based on consecutive phosphorylations. Kinases are recruited for this purpose.
So, ZAP-70 is a protein tyrosine kinase with a role in T-cell receptor signal transduction. During T-cell activation, ZAP-70 binds to ITAM and becomes tyrosine phosphorylated. The binding of ZAP-70 to the phosphorylated ITAM is able to activate its kinase activity, and relieves the inhibition of the transcription factor which regulates genes that are involved in the immune reaction.
The total number of organisms an ecosystem can support is its tolerance range.
true or false
Answer:
false
Explanation:
the total number of organism an ecosystem can support is its trying capacity
Answer:
false
Explanation:
i just took the test.
Which of the following correctly describes the process of Translation? I. tRNA anticodon bonds to mRNA codon II. Ribosome bonds to mRNA strand III. Ribosome reaches a STOP codon and detaches from the mRNA IV. Each tRNA adds an Amino Acid to the chain as the Ribosome moves along the mRNA V. Complimentary mRNA strand is made from DNA template
Ribosome bonds to mRNA, a tRNA anticodon bonds to mRNA codon, tRNA add an Amino Acid and ribosome detaches from the mRNA describe translation (II, I, IV and III).
What is translation?The translation is the cellular process by which cells can produce proteins by using the genetic code.
The translation involves the use of an mRNA sequence which contains codons that serve to add amino acids to the polypeptide chain in the ribosome.
In conclusion, the steps II, I, IV and III describe translation.
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Why are G proteins known as guanine nucleotide-binding protein?
Answer:
G proteins, also known as guanine nucleotide-binding proteins, are a family of proteins that act as molecular switches inside cells, and are involved in transmitting signals from a variety of stimuli outside a cell to its interior. ... G proteins belong to the larger group of enzymes called GTPases.
