The techniques that would best help to facilitate relaxation and prepare the muscle for a subsequent stretch are static, dynamic, and ballistic stretching.
Stretching and deep pressure are used in soft tissue mobilization (STM) to loosen up tight muscle tissue, ease tension in the muscles, and move fluids that are entrapped in the tissues and cause discomfort and inflammation. Soft tissue injuries, such as muscle strains and sprains, are treated using STM. A form of manual treatment, that is.
The muscle spindle keeps track of how quickly the length changes and sends signals to the spine to relay this information. In an effort to counteract the decrease in muscle length, the stretch reflex, also known as the myotatic response, is triggered when this happens.
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when assessing a client's i.v. insertion site, a nurse notes normal color and temperature at the site and no swelling. however, the i.v. solutions haven't infused at the ordered rate; the flow rate is slow even with the roller clamp wide open. when the nurse lowers the i.v. fluid bag, no blood returns to the tubing. what should the nurse do first?
The site's normal color, temperature, and lack of edema are noted by a nurse. The client's wrist and elbow should be adjusted as you check the tubing for kinks.
Not all customers are clients.People who use a company's products or services are referred to as users rather than clients since there are two separate categories of consumers. Instead of the conventional consumer goods, customers purchase guidance and solutions.
Would you mind providing a specific type of consumer as an example?A customer is a person who purchases goods or services. Companies or other organizations might be customers. Clients don't generally have a connection or agreement with the supplier, although customers frequently do.
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you are called to a private home where a 92-year-old man is experiencing severe squeezing chest pain on the left side that radiates to his left jaw and shoulder. he is prescribed nitroglycerin but has not taken any. he is also on a daily aspirin regimen, which he just took with his morning medications. his pulse is 90, bp is 88/64, respirations are 26, and his skin is pink, warm, and dry. after giving oxygen therapy, performing a focused physical assessment, and obtaining opqrst and sample history, what should you do next?
After giving oxygen therapy, performing a focused physical assessment, and obtaining OPQRST and SAMPLE history, you should next Transport immediately.
Nitroglycerin is used to treat coronary artery disease-related angina (chest pain). This medication can also be used to treat an existing angina attack. Nitroglycerin belongs to the class of medications known as vasodilators. It works by relaxing the blood vessels, allowing the heart to work less hard and thus require less oxygen.
Nitroglycerin is a type of medicine known as a nitrate. It works by relaxing the blood vessels and increasing blood and oxygen supply to the heart while decreasing its workload. Nitroglycerin is not recommended for patients who have experienced allergic reactions to the medication.
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after teaching a group of students about the responsibilities of the food and drug administration (fda) related to drugs, the instructor determines that the students need additional teaching when they identify what as a major responsibility?
When students choose "enforcement of control of substances with significant abuse potential" as a major responsibility, the instructor determines that the student needs additional teaching regarding the FDA drug-related tasks. Hence, the correct answer is A.
Control of substances with the potential to be abused is enforced by the Drug Enforcement Agency (DEA). Meanwhile, the Food and Drug Administration, or FDA, is in charge of classifying new medications according to their effects on pregnancy, enforcing regulations for assessing drugs' toxicity, and establishing requirements for their efficacy and safety. As a result, selecting option A as the primary responsibility after teaching FDA drug-related tasks indicates that students require additional explanation.
This question should be provided with answer choices, which are:
(A) Enforcement of control of substances with high abuse potential.(B) Assignment of a pregnancy category for each new drug.(C) Enforcement of standards for testing drug toxicity.(D) Setting of standards for efficacy and safety.The correct answer is A.
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the wellness center is a type of nursing center that focuses on: group of answer choices programs affiliated with major for-profit health corporations. health-promotion, disease-prevention, and disease-management programs. programs for special populations and specific health conditions. public health programs.
The wellness center is a type of nursing center that focuses on health-promotion, disease-prevention, and disease-management programs.
A specific kind of nursing center service model is the wellness center. The health and wellness center's main priorities include programs for illness management, disease prevention, and health promotion. The majority of the funding for the centers comes from service contracts, public health agencies, grants, service fees, donations made voluntarily, and shared resources from associated organizations. They could offer outreach, public education, vaccines, family evaluation and screening, home visits, social support, and enabling services, among other things. They enhance current primary care options.
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the two most common plant foods that are combined to achieve protein complementarity are grains and legumes. T/F
It is true that the two most common plant foods that are combined to achieve protein complementarity are grains and legumes.
A grain is a tiny, hard, dry fruit – with or while not associate degree connected hull layer – harvested for human or animal consumption. A grain crop could be a grain-producing plant. The 2 main kinds of business grain crops are cereals and legumes.
A legume is a plant within the Leguminosae, or the fruit or seed of such a plant. once used as a dry grain, the seed is additionally known as a pulse. Legumes are mature agriculturally, primarily for human consumption, for eutherian forage and ensilage, and as soil-enhancing manure.
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your assessment of the newborn reveals that she has a patent airway, is breathing adequately, and has a heart rate of 130 beats/min. her face and trunk are pink, but her hands and feet are cyanotic. you have clamped and cut the umbilical cord, but the placenta has not yet delivered. you should:
you have clamped and cut the umbilical cord, but the placenta has not yet delivered. you should begin artificial ventilations.
Baby and mother's placenta are joined by an umbilical chord. The umbilical chord supplies nourishment to the foetus as it is developing in the womb. The cord is cut and clamped upon delivery. The cord will dry out and naturally fall off after a period of 1 to 3 weeks. After birth, a baby's umbilical cord stump normally dries out and finally comes off. Carefully handle the region in the interim: Keep the stump dry. The cord of post-anesthesia your newborn has no nerve endings, therefore cutting it causes no pain. The umbilical stump, which is still connected to your child, will shortly detach and be replaced by a sweet belly button.
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the nurse is reviewing the serum electrolyte levels of a client with heart failure who has been taking digoxin for 6 months. the nurse should report which finding from the lab report to the health care provider?
The nurse is reviewing the serum electrolyte levels of a client with heart failure who has been taking digoxin for 6 months. The nurse should report hypokalemia.
(Hypokalemia is one of the most common causes of digoxin toxicity. It is essential that the nurse carefully monitor the Potassium levels of clients taking digoxin to avoid toxicity. Low serum potassium levels can cause cardiac dysrhythmias.)
Low potassium (K+) levels in the blood serum are referred to as hypokalemia. Mild low potassium levels seldom result in symptoms. Symptoms may include weakness, cramping in the legs, fatigue, and constipation. The chance of an irregular heart rhythm, which is frequently excessively slow and can result in cardiac arrest, is also increased by low potassium levels.
Vomiting, diarrhea, drugs like furosemide and steroids, dialysis, diabetes insipidus, hyperaldosteronism, hypomagnesemia, and inadequate nutrition intake are some of the factors that contribute to hypokalemia.
Hypokalemia is characterized by potassium levels below 3.5 mmol/L, which are considered normal ranges between 3.5 and 5.0 mmol/L (3.5 and 5.0 mEq/L).
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a school nurse is caring for a child who fell on the playground. upon examination of the child, the nurse notes multiple bruises in various stages of healing. what is the nurse's initial intervention?
The nurse's initial intervention should be to Contact the Department of Health and Human Services.
Unless there is a policy to direct otherwise, the nurse who suspects abuse is obligated to document it to the Department of Health and Human Services (DHS).
Health services consist of medical experts, companies, and ancillary health care employees who provide medical care to those in need. They serve patients, communities, and populations. They cover emergency, preventative, rehabilitative, health facility, diagnostic, primary, palliative, and home care. These services are working towards making health care accessible, excessive satisfactory, and affected patient-focused. Many exceptional styles of care and carriers are necessary so they can offer a successful health services.
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a 49-year-old patient has osteoarthritis inthe lumbar spine and hip. his hip x-raydemonstrates bone on bone. what can bedone to resolve his complaints of pain inhis hip?
The things that can be done to resolve the patient's complaints of pain in his hips in the question above are giving the patient Acetaminophen and a referral to orthopedics.
Acetaminophen is an analgesic medicine that is generally used to relieve minor aches and pains as well as reduce fever. This medicine can be given to the patient in the question above to reduce his hip pain, resolving his pain complaints temporarily.
To resolve his problems more thoroughly, though, he needs to be referred to orthopedics. Orthopedics is a branch of medicine that focuses on caring for the musculoskeletal system. Hopefully, the orthopedic physicians can treat his osteoarthritis and further resolving his pain.
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a client is taking nicotinic acid for hyperlipidemia, and the nurse reinforces instructions to the client about the medication. which statement by the client indicates an understanding of the instructions?
The statement by the client indicates an understanding of the instructions Ibuprofen taken 30 minutes before the nicotinic acid should decrease the flushing.
Spironolactone is used to treat high blood pressure and control edema in patients with heart failure or liver dysfunction. This drug can cause hyperkalemia. Monitor urine output and report if less than 30 mL per hour. Use with caution in patients with impaired renal function due to increased risk of hyperkalemia.
Before administering a diuretic such as furosemide the nurse will assess the patient's potassium level with recent laboratory results. If the potassium level is below the normal range, the nurse will withhold medication and notify the prescriber. Avoid eating large amounts of leafy greens and certain vegetable oils that are high in vitamin K.
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stopping the transfusion covering the client with a blanket notifying the provider assessing the client's skin for a rash
A nurse is monitoring a client who reports having chills and back pain during a blood transfusion. The nurse is stopping the transfussion.
Intravenously putting blood components into a person's circulation is known as a blood transfusion. For a variety of medical disorders, transfusions are performed to replenish blood components that have been lost.
This potentially life-saving procedure can replenish blood lost during surgery or an accident. If a disease prevents your body from producing enough blood or any of the components of your blood properly, a blood transfusion may also be helpful.
When an intravenous (IV) line is positioned on the patient's body, the blood transfusion operation gets started. The new blood will start to be given to the patient through the IV. A straightforward blood transfusion can take anywhere from one to four hours, depending on the volume of blood needed.
Complete question:
A nurse is monitoring a client who reports having chills and back pain during a blood transfusion. Which of the following action is the nurse's priority?
a. Stopping the transfusion
b. Covering the client with a blanket
c. Notifying the provider
d. Assessing the client's skin for a rash
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an elderly patient with a history of anticoagulant use presents after a fall at home that day. she denies any loss of consciousness. she has a hematoma to her forehead and complains of headache, dizziness, and nausea. what is the most likely cause of her symptoms?
Subdural hematoma is the most likely cause of her symptoms
A clotted pool of blood that forms in an organ, tissue, or body space. A hematoma is usually caused by a broken blood vessel that was damaged by surgery or an injury. It can occur anywhere in the body, including the brain.
Hematomas usually disappear on their own, shrinking over time as the accumulated blood is absorbed. It might take months for a large hematoma to be fully absorbed. If a haematoma is not treated and the pressure within it exceeds the blood pressure in the dermal and subdermal capillaries, it can cause necrosis of the overlying skin. The term "electronic commerce" refers to the sale of goods and services over the internet.
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which of the following is a symptom of riboflavin deficiency? a. edema b. diarrhea c. purplish tongue d. constipation e. anemia
(c) Purplish tongue is a symptom of riboflavin deficiency.
Fatigue, a swelling throat, blurred eyesight, and sadness can all result from riboflavin insufficiency. Skin cracking, itching, and dermatitis around the mouth are just a few of the skin's problems it might cause. Along with reproductive difficulties, hyperemia, edoema around the pharynx, liver deterioration, and hair loss can also happen.
The SLC52A3 or SLC52A2 genes, which encode riboflavin transporters, are mutated in the disorder. These patients consequently suffer riboflavin deficiency because they are unable to absorb and transport riboflavin effectively.
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the nurse provides care for a client 2 hours after a percutaneous liver biopsy. which client statement requires an immediate intervention by the nurse?
The nurse provides care for a client 2 hours after a percutaneous liver biopsy. I am having more abdominal pain and my abdomen feels tight this client statement requires an immediate intervention by the nurse.
A small portion of liver tissue is removed during a liver biopsy so that it can be studied under a microscope for indications of injury or illness. If blood tests or imaging investigations indicate you could have a liver issue, your doctor may advise a liver biopsy. The severity of liver disease is assessed with a liver biopsy. Decisions about treatment are influenced by this knowledge.
Percutaneous liver biopsy is the most typical kind of liver biopsy. It entails taking a small amount of tissue from the liver by putting a thin needle through your abdomen. A needle is also used to extract liver tissue during two other types of liver biopsies, one utilizing a vein in the neck and the other via a small abdominal incision.
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drug testing is controversial. which of the following is an argument used against drug testing? the results of drug tests can be faked easily. drug tests are costly. drug use is a private matter. drug tests are generally inaccurate. drug tests are injurious to a person's health.
Drug testing is controversial and the argument which is used against drug testing is that it is injurious to a person's health which is therefore denoted as option E.
What is a Drug?This is also referred to as medication and it consists of chemical compounds which is used to treat different types of diseases and illnesses.
When drugs are produced, they are usually tested so as to ascertain the efficacy and the possible side effects it is when affected individuals use it. This is also done so as to know the required dosage which is taken to be taken by the individual in other to prevent risk of complications.
Drug testing is however controversial as it is injurious to a person's health which is therefore the reason why certain animals are used for such test.
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a child is being seen in the emergency department for reports of severe sore throat, trouble swallowing, and fever. the child has swollen cervical lymph nodes and a fiery red pharynx on examination. which assessment findings below should be reported immediately to the healthcare provider?
Outcomes of information that should be reported to the health care provider are drooling and not swallowing. So the correct option is A.
Why should the healthcare provider be notified about drooling and not swallowing?Surely what the child has is an infection, a sign of this is the inflammation of the lymph nodes, which are responsible for the generation of immune cells that fight the infection, but this same inflammation can cause the throat to shrink as much as possible. that generates a problem when swallowing saliva or in general anything. Also, if it becomes very inflamed, it can end up closing the airway and suffocating the child, being fatal.
This should be reported to the healthcare provider as it will be dangerous for the child to drool and not be able to swallow because they could have a tight throat. Coughing or sneezing does not indicate a serious problem. Having noisy breathing can be a problem, but the first problem is more serious since it can be fatal.
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A child is being seen in the emergency department for reports of severe sore throat, trouble swallowing, and fever. The child has swollen cervical lymph nodes and a fiery red pharynx on examination. Which assessment findings below should be reported immediately to the healthcare provider?
A. drooling and not swallowing
B. coughing and sneezing
C. loud snoring and noisy respirations
D. sudden onset of ear pain
hen conducting a scoliosis screening, what instructions should the nurse provide to the client to ensure proper positioning during the screening? after completing the screening, what findings should the nurse identify as indicators of scoliosi
Findings that indicate scoliosis Uneven shoulders -Uneven waist -Prominent rib cage -Uneven hips -Leaning of the head to one side.
Scoliosis is a condition in which the spine curves to the side, forming an S or C-shaped curve. It is most common in adolescents between the ages of 10 and 18, but can affect people of any age. Mild cases of scoliosis may not require treatment, but more severe cases may require a brace or surgery. The most common cause of scoliosis is unknown, but it can be caused by neuromuscular conditions, such as cerebral palsy or muscular dystrophy, or by vertebral abnormalities. Treatment for scoliosis depends on the severity of the curve, and may include observation, bracing, or surgery.
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is characterized by behavioral and cognitive deficits that involve permanent damage to the brain.
Dementia is characterized by behavioral and cognitive deficits that involve permanent damage to the brain.
Dementia is a term wont to describe a gaggle of symptoms moving memory, thinking and social talents severely enough to interfere along with your existence. It is not a selected sickness, however many diseases will cause insanity. Tho' insanity typically involves state of mind, state of mind has completely different causes. Medication and therapies could facilitate manage symptoms. Some causes are reversible.
A behavioral deficit is once a private includes a deficiency or inability to perform an exact behavior. An example would be somebody that cannot multitask with straightforward duties
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the healthcare provider prescribes 5% dextrose in water iv fluid for an older adult client which action by the nurse is best
The healthcare provider prescribes 5% dextrose in water iv fluid:
The correct answer are:
1. CORRECT: No assessment in question, applicable to scenario, best practice
2. Incorrect: Too close; implementation
3. Incorrect: Don't go up to systolic pressure; implementation
4. Incorrect
A healthcare provider is a business or person licensed to deliver medical diagnosis and treatment services, including drugs, surgery, and medical devices. Healthcare providers frequently receive payment from health insurance companies for the services they provide.
According to the Department of Health and Human Services, a health care provider in the United States is "any person or organization who furnishes, bills, or gets payment for health services in the ordinary course of business."
The complete question is:
The healthcare provider prescribes 5% dextrose in water iv fluid for an older adult client which action by the nurse is best:
1. Instruct the client to breathe slowly and deeply during auscultation of the posterior chest
2. Apply tourniquet 1 to 2 inches above insertion site
3. Apply BP cuff above insertion site and inflate same level as systolic BP
4. Start IV using dorsal veins of the client's forearm on nondominant side
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Since those using hallucinogenic drugs have a warped sense of distance they are at.
Since those using hallucinogenic drugs have a warped sense of distance they are at an increased risk of injury (option B).
Why do hallucinogenic drugs have a warped sense of distance?Hallucinogenic drugs have a warped sense of distance because they alter the perception of reality in the brain by affecting neuronal networks responsible to communicate signals from the surrounding environment, thereby changes in the brain are able to produce these effects.
Therefore, with this data, we can see that hallucinogenic drugs have a warped sense of distance and therefore they can cause injury due to the faulty perception of the surrounding environmental conditions, it is for that reason that these types of drugs are legally forbidden in many countries because it may cause harm to one or third persons.
Complete question:
Choose the correct option. Since those using hallucinogenic drugs have a warped sense of distance, they are at...
A. a decreased risk of injury.
B. an increased risk of injury.
C. no risk of injury.
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you want to look up the appropriate dietary reference intakes (dri) values for a client. which characteristic is not needed to determine this value?
You want to look up the appropriate dietary reference intakes values for a client. The characteristic that is not needed to determine this value is the client's level of physical activity.
The term "dietary reference intakes" refers to a group of position values that are used to plan and assess the nutritional intake of healthy individuals. These values, which vary by age and gender, include the recommended dietary allowance, or RDA, which is the amount of food consumed on average each day that will satisfy the nutritional needs of around 97%–98% of healthy people. The concentration of sodium nutrients, expressed as a percentage of the daily values, must be indicated on food labels in addition to nutrition and health information.
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The majority of nutrient digestion and absorption occurs in which part of the gi tract?
Answer:
the small intestine
Explanation:
I do believe this is right but pls tell me if ik wrong
your friend amira complains to you that she has been constipated lately. which suggestion would be least beneficial for her long-term health?
Taking a laxative would be least beneficial for Amira who has constipation for her long- term health.
Utilizing laxatives excessively can result in electrolyte imbalances, dehydration, and mineral deficiencies. Abuse of laxatives can harm the colon's nerves and muscles, as well as result in persistent constipation and other long-lasting and perhaps irreversible effects on the digestive system.
Depending on the type of laxative you're taking, you can experience different side effects, but the majority of laxatives typically cause bloating, farting, stomach cramps, nausea, headaches, and dehydration, which can make you feel dizzy.
Bulk-forming laxatives, on the other hand, add water to the feces, which makes it softer and simpler to pass. However, don't count on relief right away; it may take them up to a day or more. They are secure for daily use.
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the client with essential hypertension is prescribed metoprolol (lopressor). which assessment data should make the nurse question administering this medication?
The customer's apical pulse rate is 56. Metoprolol is used either by itself or in combination with other medications to treat high blood pressure (hypertension).
The heart and arteries work harder when there is high blood pressure and hypertension. Even if you feel well, continue taking metoprolol if you have high blood pressure. In many cases, high blood pressure has no symptoms. The remainder of your life may require you to take this medication.
A vein receives an infusion of metoprolol injection. This injection will be administered to you by a medical professional in a setting where your heart and blood pressure can be observed. You only receive the injections for a brief period of time before being switched to the medication's oral form.
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During brain surgery, after opening a hole in the cranium, the surgeon's scalpel will penetrate the layers of brain coverings in which order (first - to-last)?A: meningeal layer - periosteal layer - arachnoid mater - pia materB: periosteal layer - meningeal layer - arachnoid mater - pia materC: periosteal layer - meningeal layer - pia mater- arachnoid materD: arachnoid mater - meningeal layer - periosteal layer - pia mater
The Order of layers of brain coverings, periosteal layer > meningeal layer > arachnoid mater > pia mater.
The mind is the maximum complex part of the human body. This 3-pound organ is the seat of intelligence, interpreter of the senses, initiator of body motion, and controller of behavior.
The mind is a complicated organ that controls concept, memory, emotion, contact, motor talents, imagination and prescient, breathing, temperature, hunger, and every manner that regulates our frame. Collectively, the brain and spinal twine that extends from it make up the critical anxious device or CNS.
The brain has 3 important parts: the cerebrum, cerebellum, and brainstem. Cerebrum: is the biggest part of the brain and is composed of proper and left hemispheres.
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According to the Dietary Guidelines, the goal is to reduce consumption of added sugars to less than ____% of total calories.
Answer: 10%
Explanation: The 2015-2020 Dietary Guidelines for Americans recommends limiting calories from added sugars to no more than 10% each day.
The drugs that block the reabsorption of neurotransmitters in the synapse during neural transmission are
A
SSRIs
B
benzodiazepines
C
antipsychotics
D
antihistamines
E
stimulants
what are the risk factors associated with peptic ulcer disease? (select all that apply.) note: credit will be given only if all correct choices and no incorrect choices are selected. drinking caffeine family history blood type a smoking tobacco acetaminophen (tylenol) intake for pain
The risk factors which are associated with peptic ulcer disease are drinking caffeine and smoking tobacco.
Caffeine is a central system stimulant of the methylxanthine category. it's primarily used recreationally as a psychological feature foil, increasing alertness and basic cognitive process performance. caffein could be a stimulant, which implies it will increase activity in your brain and system. It additionally will increase the circulation of chemicals like corticoid and internal secretion within the body. In little doses, caffein will cause you to feel reinvigorated and centered.
Tobacco is that the common name of many plants within the Nicotiana of the potato family, and therefore the general term for any product ready from the cured leaves of those plants.
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during prenatal screening of a client with diabetes, the nurse should keep in mind that the client is at increased risk for which complications? select all that apply.
There are risks and complications associated with gestational diabetes such as pre-term labor, preeclampsia, hyper/hypoglycemia, macrosomia (large baby), hypoglycemia in baby at birth etc.
A group of metabolic diseases known as diabetes, sometimes known as diabetes mellitus, are characterized by chronically increased blood sugar levels (hyperglycemia). Common symptoms include frequent urination, increased thirst, and increased appetite. If untreated, diabetes can cause a variety of health problems. Acute consequences include hyperosmolar hyperglycemia, diabetic ketoacidosis, and even death. Serious long-term effects include cardiovascular illness, stroke, chronic kidney disease, foot ulcers, eye damage, nerve damage, and cognitive impairment.
The complete question is:
During prenatal screening of a client with diabetes, the nurse should keep in mind that the client is at increased risk for which complications? select all that apply.
1. Still birth
2. Hypertension
3. Pregnancy-induced hypertension
4. Macrosomia
5. Spontaneous abortion
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the nurse says that your lab results look okay, but she seems worried and she looks you in the eye a little longer than usual with an expression that seems to convey concern. the idea that we pay attention both to what people say and how they behave is called:
Nurse says Relational approach. A "relational approach" is a style of relating to or speaking to others that upholds fundamental principles including decency, humility, cooperation, honesty, and inclusivity.
Numerous relational strategies exist, each of which is tailored to a particular circumstance. For relationships to flourish and last, the most popular relational strategies like civility and active listening must be practised. It's necessary for Nurse to prepare and organise other strategies better. Circles or mentoring, for instance, might improve current connections and assist in resolving challenging issues. Some ways are only utilised after there has been some sort of relationship crisis or breakdown, and they typically require a qualified facilitator to ensure that the talk between those involved is safe and fruitful.
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