Answer:
always active
Explanation:
Phosphorylation is a posttranslational modification that consists of the addition of phosphate groups to specific amino acids on the protein. Phosphorylation acts as a molecular switch for proteins that are phosphorylated (i.e., in some situations phosphorylation acts to activate protein function, whereas in other situations phosphorylation can inactivate protein function). Phosphorylation modifies the three-dimensional structure of the protein, thereby affecting, for example, the accessibility of the active site of a phosphorylated enzyme to its substrate. Phosphorylation can occur only at the side chains of three amino acids: Serine, Threonine and Tyrosine. In this case, the enzyme is inactivated by phosphorylation on the Threonine residue, so it is expected that the mutant enzyme cannot be phosphorylated, remaining in an active state.
Porque crees que las personas llegan a consumir sustancias psicoactivas
Answer:
La causa exacta del consumo de drogas se desconoce. Los genes de una persona, la acción de las drogas, la presión de compañeros, el sufrimiento emocional, la ansiedad, la depresión y el estrés ambiental pueden ser todos factores intervinientes.
Explanation:
1. Sensation is to as perception is to a. vision, olfaction b. conscious, unconscious c. awareness, interpretation d. taste, vision.
Answer:
opt (c)
Explanation:
Which statement is not true about the field of science?
it is based on observations and explanations of the natural world.
You are right with your answer please
Actual Question:
Which statement about the purpose of the field of science is false? (1 point)
Science is used to investigate the natural world.
Events of the natural world can be explained by science.
Science works to establish a collection of unchanging truths.
Useful predictions come from derived explanations of science.
Answer:
Science works to establish a collection of unchanging truths.
Explanation:
I took the test
In general, men show _____ than women do. a. less facial expression b. more facial expression c. less envy or anger d. more envy or anger
Answer:
more envy and anger
Explanation: they cant control themselves lol.
Please help;
Given the range of current speeds shown on the graph above, would deposition ever be possible for clay (0.001 mm) or silt (0.01mm) particles?
Answer yes or no and explain your answer.
Answer:
Yes.
Explanation:
Yes, deposition can be possible for clay (0.001 mm) and silt (0.01mm) particles when the agent that carry its load is absent in that region such as wind. Wind is the agent that moves clay and silt particles with it so if there is high wind in a specific region, no deposition will occur while on the other hand, those areas where wind is not present, deposition will definitely occurs so we can say that deposition depends on the presence and absence of wind.
Writing Assignment
One of the main functions of connective tissue is to integrate
organs and organ systems in the body, Discuss how blood
fulfills this role.
Answer:
Major functions of connective tissue include: 1) binding and supporting, 2) protecting, 3) insulating, 4) storing reserve fuel, and 5) transporting substances within the body .Blood integrates organs and organ systems by transporting and exchanging fluid with various organs and organ system to allow them to function and work properly allowing the organism to survive
Whose argument is stronger regarding the SAC curves and the LAC curve? A. The draftsman since the lowest point on each SAC curve will have a horizontal tangent line which only occurs at the lowest point on the LAC. B. Jacob Viner since the SAC curves can be adjusted slightly and still keep their U-shape in a way that makes their lowest points end up on the LAC curve. C. Jacob Viner since the long-run average cost curve must be composed of the lowest points on any individual short-run average cost curve. D. The draftsman since, while it is true that the points of tangency of the SAC curves with the LAC curve are at each SAC curve's minimum, it is impossible to illustrate it accurately.
NB: This is a business question, not biology.
Answer:
SAC (Short-run Average Cost) and LAC (Long-run Average Cost)
The stronger argument regarding the SAC (Short-run Average Cost) curves and the LAC (Long-run Average Cost) curves is:
A. The draftsman since the lowest point on each SAC curve will have a horizontal tangent line which only occurs at the lowest point on the LAC.
Explanation:
The costs of all factors of production become variable in the long run. But in the short-run, some costs are variable, and some are fixed. When the producer starts operating over the long run period, it can then operate without the constraints imposed by the presence of the fixed-cost factors. Therefore, in the long run, the average cost (LAC) is equal to the short-run average cost (SAC) because there is an unconstrained minimum average cost at all output levels.
PLS HELP ASAP
ILL GIVE BRAINLY
Contrast the usefulness of absolute and relative dating techniques.
Answer:
In relative dating, fossils are dated according to the depth at which they were buried While in the absolute dating, isotopes of carbon are used for dating fossils. The absolute dating is more precise than relative dating because it tells the exact age of the fossils.
Scenario 1:
Genetic engineering can be used to create more productive strains of farm animals used for milk and meat production. By adding genes to an animal’s DNA, the animal can be made to be more resistant to common infections. This can reduce the need to administer large doses of antibiotics to the animals.
Do you think that this type of genetic engineering should be pursued? Explain your answer. (5 points)
What are some possible impacts (positive and negative) of this type of genetic engineering on individuals, society, and the environment? (5 points)
Scenario 2:
Mike was adopted, and his biological family history is unknown. Although he is healthy, he would like some understanding of his genetic makeup, including potential health risks and genes that he could pass on to his children. Mike has heard about commercial laboratories that can compare segments of your DNA to those of people with common hereditary diseases in order to give you some idea of how susceptible you are to the diseases. The results of these types of tests are highly inconclusive. If Mike’s DNA showed that he shares similarities in a segment of DNA with people who have a given disease, his chances of developing that disease or passing it on to his children may be slightly elevated, but they are not 100 percent. These tests can cost more than $2,500 and are not covered by many insurance companies.
Do you think that Mike should undergo the genetic tests? Explain your answer. (2 points)
What are potential pros and cons of having such tests done? (5 points)
Describe how the availability of these genetic tests might affect the frequency of genetic diseases in individuals and populations. (3 points)
Due to brainly not accepting my essay, I have instead included a image of it. :D
In butterflies, having red antennas (denoted by “R”) is dominant to having white antennas (denoted by “r”). If both parents are heterozygous for red antennas, what are the predicted Phenotypic outcomes of their offspring? (hint: a punnett square will help you determine this).
In butterflies, having red antennas (denoted by “R”) is dominant to having white antennas (denoted by “r”). If both parents are heterozygous for red antennas, what are the predicted Genotypic outcomes of their offspring? (hint: a punnett square will help you determine this).
All the offspring of a cross between a black-eyed mendelien and an orange-eyed mendelien have black eyes. What is the expected F2 phenotypic ratio of a cross between two F1 black-eyed mendeliens?
A) 1 black-eyed:1 orange-eyed
B) 3 black-eyed:1 orange-eyed
C) 1 black-eyed:3 orange-eyed
D) 1 black-eyed:0 orange-eyed
The phenotypic ratio of the cross is as follows: 3 red antennas: 1 white antenna
For question 2, the phenotypic ratio of the F2 generation is: 3 black-eyed: 1 orange-eyed
QUESTION 1
According to the first question, a gene coding for antenna color in butterflies is involved. Red antennas (“R”) is dominant to white antennas (“r”). Hence, a butterfly with genotype "Rr" will be phenotypically red.
According to this question, If both parents are heterozygous for red antennas i.e. Rr (red antenna) × Rr (red antenna), the following gametes will be produced: R and r. Using these gametes in a punnet square (see attached image), the following phenotypic ratio of offspring is produced:
3 RED ANTENNAS (RR, Rr, Rr) : 1 WHITE ANTENNA (rr)
2. In the second question, all the offspring of a cross between a black-eyed mendelien (BB) and an orange-eyed mendelien (bb) have black eyes (Bb). In a cross between two F1 black-eyed mendeliens i.e. Bb × Bb, the following proportion of offspring is produced:
BB, Bb, Bb, bb
Hence, a phenotypic ratio of 3 black-eyed: 1 orange-eyed
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Bert has blonde hair (b). Molly has brown hair (B), but her genotype is Bb, meaning she carries a recessive blonde allele. What is the likelihood of Bert and Molly's second child having brown hair?
Answer:
50%
Explanation:
Iif you do a punnet square you get Bb, Bb, bb, and bb
since blond is represneted by the recessive bb it's a 50% the child will have blond hair
The large number of alveoli in lungs improve gas exchange by ________. increasing the surface area for diffusion decreasing the distance for diffusion changing the diffusion constant increasing the concentration difference
Answer:
Explanation:
The large number of alveoli in lungs improve gas exchange by . increasing the surface area for diffusion
what gender of offspring are most often affected by sextinked inheritance?-What gender-are-usmally-carriers-of the trait?
-males, males
-males, females
-females, females
-females, males O O
Answer:
female, female
Explanation:
this is because sex-linked characters are normally borne in the X-chromosome
Which trait is totally determined by genes
Answer:
hair color is determined by genetics
Explanation:
Which is our body part help us to maintain balance.
Answer:
cerebellum
Explanation:
The cerebellum is a small part of the brain positioned at the back of the head, where it meets the spine, which acts as the body's movement and balance control centre.
please mark me as brainliest
Tai không chỉ có vai trò để lắng nghe mà còn hỗ trợ trong việc giữ cân bằng
Why do you think type 2 diabetes occurs so much more often than other inheritable diseases? Propose a hypothesis for why this allele has not been eliminated by natural selection.
Which type of species best describes a mouse: opportunistic or equilibrium? Explain why a mouse or rat population would continuously grow while other mammals (cheetahs) are nearly extinct.
Answer:
This allele has not been eliminated by natural selection because it may confer an adaptive advantage for particular environmental conditions
Mice and rats are opportunistic species. These species can rapidly adapt to different environmental conditions, while cheetahs are unable to adapt to changing environments.
Explanation:
An allele is a gene variant that may be beneficial, neutral, or deleterious for a particular environment. Different alleles are not eliminated by natural selection against other alleles (even when a priori seem to be deleterious) because they confer a selective advantage in a given environment. For example, the allele for sickle cell anemia is caused by a point mutation which is lethal in homo-zygous individuals, but heterozygous individuals are less likely to die of malaria, thereby this allele has been positively selected in geographic areas where malaria is an endemic disease. Moreover, mice and rats are opportunistic species, i.e., they are species that rapidly adapt to varied living conditions. These species are characterized to have high growth rates and produce many offspring. On the other hand, the cheetah is a highly specialized species that is unable to adapt to changing environments. In consequence, cheetah populations are more prone to become extinct than rat and mice populations.
ason Kimble's study of the Archaea in Snowy River in Fort Stanton Cave showed that Archaea play an important role in __________.
Answer:
Ecosystem.
Explanation:
Archaea play an important role in ecosystems with organisms that derive or produce energy from oxidation of methane. Many of Archaea are bacteria which are often a major source of methane in such environments and they can play a role as primary producers. Archaea is important for scientists because it has unique ecological roles and can also generate energy differently i.e. responsible for producing biological methane which no eukaryotes or bacteria can do that.
Mode of action of aldehydes and Quaternary ammonium compounds is
Answer:
Aldehydes have antibacterial, antifungal, antiviral and sporicidal activity. These are helpful to destroy the spores of Bacillus subtilis and Clostridium sporogenes. Glutaraldehyde and formaldehyde are commonly used aldehydes in disinfectants.
Quaternary ammonium compounds work by denaturing the proteins of the bacterial or fungal cell, affecting the metabolic reactions of the cell and causing vital substances to leak out of the cell, causing death.
What is a major role that fungi play in ecosystems
Answer:
Fungi play a crucial role in the balance of ecosystems. They colonize most habitats on earth, preferring dark, moist conditions. They can thrive in seemingly-hostile environments, such as the tundra. However, most members of the Kingdom Fungi grow on the forest floor where the dark and damp environment is rich in decaying debris from plants and animals. In these environments, fungi play a major role as decomposers and recyclers, making it possible for members of the other kingdoms to be supplied with nutrients and to live.
Explanation:
Answer from Gauth math
if you look away from this sentence and focus your eyes on a distant object, the eye muscles _______ to focus images on the retinas
If you look away from this sentence and focus your eyes on a distant object, the eye muscles relax to focus images on the retinas.
This is the last
What are the vestigal organs present in human body??
Answer:
Charles Darwin listed a number of putative human vestigial features, which he termed rudimentary, in The Descent of Man (1871). These included the muscles of the ear; wisdom teeth; the appendix; the tail bone; body hair; and the semilunar fold in the corner of the eye.hope it's helpful .!pls mark me in brainlistWhich critter trait is affected by an environmental factor, such as light, temperature, or
diet? Explain.
Answer:
Tallness.
Explanation:
Tallness is the critter trait that is affected by an environmental factor, such as light, temperature, or diet because the organism remains short if they are not getting food properly as well as temperature. Food provides essential nutrients that contribute in the growth of organism. Suitable temperature of the body allows the different functions in the body to be done which directly affects the growth of the body and the organism becomes taller.
1. The structure that's not a component of wall of sponges is
Answer:
Chitin.
Explanation:
The structure that is not a component of wall of sponges is Chitin. Their body comprise of calcareous or siliceous spicules or protein spongin fibres. Choanocytes are the distinctive cells located in the interior body walls of sponges. Sponges are similar to other animals in many characteristics such as they are multicellular, heterotrophic, lack cell walls and produce sperm cells in order to produce offspring sexually and also different from animals due to lack of tissues and organs.
Explain the role of cellular respiration in a cell.
Answer:
Every cell performs a type of cellular respiration as it is required to produce energy. The point of cellular respiration is to turn high-energy molecules, know as glucose, into ATP, a form of usable energy. There are two types of respiration, aerobic and anaerobic. Aerobic goes through 3 stages and produces the most ATP by using oxygen and releasing carbon dioxide. Anaerobic does the same job but only uses one stage and produces much less ATP. This process gives the cell energy and continues the carbon cycle.
Which is another name for observation?
Answer:
I would say hypothesis is what we use for science as a guess, but also monitoring is a good one.
Explanation:
Another name for observation is inspection.
For each of the following structures, first indicate its function in the fetus; then, note its fate (what happens to it or what it is converted to after birth).
a. Umbilical artery
b. Umbilical vein
c. Ductus venosus
d. Ductus arterious
e. Foramen ovale
Answer:
1. Functions:
a. Umbilical artery >> carries deoxygenated blood from the fetus to the placenta
b. Umbilical vein >> transports oxygenated blood from the placenta to the fetus
c. Ductus venosus >> allows oxygenated blood from the placenta to bypass the liver
d. Ductus arterious >> allows most of the blood from the right ventricle to bypass the fetus's non-functioning lungs
e. Foramen ovale >> oxygenated blood from the umbilical vein to bypass the pulmonary circulation
2. After the bird:
1. Umbilical artery >> medial umbilical ligament
2. Umbilical vein >> round ligament of the liver
3. Ductus venosus >> ligamentum venosum
4. Ductus arteriosus >> ligamentum arteriosum
5. Foramen ovale >> fossa ovalis
Explanation:
The umbilical artery is a paired artery localized in the abdominal and pelvic regions, which carries deoxygenated blood from the fetus to the placenta through the umbilical cord. The medial umbilical ligament is the obliterated part of the umbilical artery that arises from the internal iliac arteries. In utero, the umbilical arteries carry waste products back to the placenta, whereas the umbilical vein carries oxygenated blood from the placenta to the fetus. The round ligament of the liver (also known as ligamentum teres hepatis) is a remnant of the umbilical vein that exists in the embryonic stage, it connects the left lobe of the liver to the umbilicus. The ductus venosus is a slender shunt that allows oxygenated blood from the placenta to bypass the liver, it connects the intra-hepatic portion of the umbilical vein to the inferior vena cava. The ligamentum venosum is an extrahepatic, slender, and fibrous remnant of the fetal ductus venosus that travels between the left portal vein and the inferior vena cava. The ductus arteriosus is a fetal artery that connects the aorta to the pulmonary artery. The ligamentum arteriosum is a nonfunctional vestige of the ductus arteriosus, it is attached to the superior surface of the pulmonary trunk. The foramen ovale is an oval-shaped, small, opening in the wall (septum) between the two upper chambers of the heart. The fossa ovalis is a vestige stricture of the foramen ovale of the embryonic heart, which forms a depression in the right atrium of the heart.
Macronutrients is the most readily available for energy production
Answer:
The correct answer is - true.
Explanation:
All the macronutrients carbohydrates, fats, and protein all three produce energy. Carbohydrates are the most preferred source of energy for the human body as it is the macronutrient that your system most requires.
The human body easily breaks down most carbohydrates and provides a significant amount of energy. The energy-providing process is called cellular respiration starts with glucose as a substrate. Glucose is the simplest carbohydrate.
When an outbreak of foot and mouth disease is discovered among livestock in a country, what is MOST likely the chosen way to control it?
Answer:
You can get infected with hand, foot, and mouth disease if you have the virus on your hands and then touch your eyes, nose, or mouth. To lessen your chance of getting sick, don't touch your eyes, nose, and mouth with unwashed hands.
You can get infected with hand, foot, and mouth disease if you have the virus on your hands and then touch your eyes, nose, or mouth. To lessen your chance of getting sick, don't touch your eyes, nose, and mouth with unwashed hands.
What are the mechanism that use to resist the antimicrobial agents?There has been several mechanisms, like resistance to antimicrobial agents, encapsulation or secretation of proteins that affects and might destroy the phagocyte along with some leukocytes in our body perform phagocytosis as a defense mechanism against the pathogenic bacterium.
These phagocytes contain lysosomes, intracellular granules that possess bactericidal substances. When the phagocyte ingests the pathogen, a phagosome is formed, which merges with the lysosome, forming the phagolysosome, which is where toxic substances and enzymes kill the ingested microorganism.
There are several mechanisms by which a microorganism can survive this process as resistance to antimicrobial agents. Some bacteria use phenolic glycolipids from their cell wall, to eliminate toxic oxygen compounds.
Therefore, You can get infected with hand, foot, and mouth disease if you have the virus on your hands and then touch your eyes, nose, or mouth.
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Complete the comparison of the metabolic pathways leading to thymine in DNA and thymine as a modified base in tRNA.
Thymine in DNA occurs as the result of thymidylate synthase creating _______________ , which then undergoes ____________ to ____________, then to __________, and incorporated into DNA by ___________.
Answer:
The question is incomplete, the complete question is as follow:
Thymine in DNA occurs as the result of thymidylate synthase creating _______, which then undergoes _______ to _______, then to _______, and incorporated into D N A by _______. Thymine in tRNA arises ________, by an S-adenosylmethionine-dependent _______ of a ______ residue in RNA.
Answer:
Thymine in DNA occurs as the result of thymidylate synthase creating dTMP, which then undergoes phosphorylation to dTDP, then to dTTP, and incorporated into DNA by DNA polymerase. Thymine in tRNA arises posttranslationally, by an S-adenosylmethionine-dependent methylation of a UMP residue in RNA.
Explanation:
Thymidylate synthase is a key enzyme that catalyzes the synthesis of 2′-deoxythymidine-5′-monophosphate (dTMP) from 2′-deoxyuridine-5′-monophosphate (dUMP). This enzyme catalyzes the addition of a phosphate group (phosphorylation) of dTMP in order to form thymidine 5'-diphosphate (dTDP). Once synthesized, dTMP can be metabolized to deoxythymidine triphosphate (dTTP), which is a precursor for DNA biosynthesis. On the other hand, transfer ribonucleic acid (tRNA) is methylated after the molecule is synthesized. The transfer of the methyl group is catalyzed by an S-adenosylmethionine–dependent methyltransferase that catalyzes the methylation of uridine monophosphate (UMP) using SAM (S-adenosylmethionine) as the methyl donor.
The second generation of purebred cross of -hom-ozygo us recessive organism, with a —hom-ozygous dominant organism, contain a ratio of approximately _______ expressed dominant traits to recessive traits.
A. 2:1
B. 1:1
C. 1:3
D. 3:1
Answer:
D. 3:1
Explanation:
Gregor Mendel, in one of his numerous studies, performed a cross between purebred dominant (TT) pea plants and purebred recessive (tt) pea plants. All the offsprings of this cross appeared heterozygous tall (Tt) in the F1 generation.
However, when he self-crossed the F1 generation i.e. Tt × Tt, Mendel obtained a phenotypic ratio of 3 tall plants (dominant traits) : 1 short plant (recessive). This showed that the masked gene (recessive) was still present.
