Xác định ứng lực trong các thanh BC,
CF và FE của hệ giàn và chỉ rõ các thanh
chịu kéo hay nén. Cho P1=P2=600 lb,
P3=800 lb

The frequency is 4,6E14 Hz.

What is the frequency?

Frequency is the fee at which modern changes direction in step with 2nd. it's far measured in hertz (Hz), a worldwide unit of degree wherein 1 hertz is identical to 1 cycle in line with 2d. Hertz (Hz) = One hertz is the same as 1 cycle in step with the second. Cycle = One entire wave of alternating present-day voltage.

Frequency describes the number of waves that pass a hard and fast place in a given quantity of time. So if the time it takes for a wave to skip is half of 2d, the frequency is 2 per 2nd. If it takes 1/one hundred of an hour, the frequency is a hundred in step with hour.

Learn more about frequency here:-https://brainly.com/question/254161

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Complete Question

(c) It takes you 5 hours to to bring the turkey from 10.0°C to 75.0 °C. During that time, the electrical grid transfers a constant 2500.0 Watts of power into the the oven. Take the turkey and the air in the oven to be your system. What was the thermal transfer of energy between the system and the surroundings?

Answer:

[tex]Q=4.50 *10^7J[/tex]

Explanation:

From the question we are told that:

Time [tex]t=5hours[/tex]

Temperature rise [tex]dT= 65\textdegree[/tex]

Power [tex]P=2500.0 Watts[/tex]

Generally, the equation for Power is mathematically given by

[tex]P=\frac{Q}{t}[/tex]

Therefore

[tex]Q=2500*5*360[/tex]

[tex]Q=4.50 *10^7J[/tex]

Answer:

1. True

2. False

3. True

4. True

5. True

Answer:

that is pure falsereeeeeeeee

Explanation:

The vector sum is the algebraic sum if the two vectors have the same direction.

The sum vector is zero if the two vectors have the same magnitude and opposite direction

Vector addition is a process that can be performed graphically using the parallelogram method, see  attached, where the second vector is placed at the tip of the first and the vector sum goes from the origin of the first vector to the tip of the second.

There are two special cases where the vector sum can be reduced to the algebraic sum if the vectors are parallel

case 1. if the two vectors are parallel, the sum vector has the magnitude of the sum of the magnitudes of each vector

case 2. If the two vectors are antiparallel and the magnitude of the two vectors is the same, the sum gives zero.

In summary in the sum of vectors If the vectors are parallel it is reduced to the algebraic sum, also in the case of equal magnitude and opposite direction the sum is the null vector

a) Magnitudes: [tex]\| \vec A\| \ge 0[/tex], [tex]\|\vec B\| \ge 0[/tex], [tex]\|\vec C\| \ge 0[/tex]; Directions: [tex]\theta_{A} \in (-\infty, +\infty)[/tex] for [tex]\|\vec A\|\ne 0[/tex]. Undefined for [tex]\|\vec A\| = 0[/tex], [tex]\theta_{B} \in (-\infty, +\infty)[/tex] for [tex]\|\vec B\|\ne 0[/tex]. Undefined for [tex]\|\vec B\| = 0[/tex], [tex]\theta_{C} \in (-\infty, +\infty)[/tex] for [tex]\|\vec C\|\ne 0[/tex]. Undefined for [tex]\|\vec C\| = 0[/tex].

b) Magnitudes: [tex]\|\vec A\| \ge 0[/tex], [tex]\|\vec B\| \ge 0[/tex], [tex]\|\vec C\| = 0[/tex]; Directions: [tex]|\theta_{A}-\theta_{B}| = 180^{\circ}[/tex], [tex]\theta_{C}[/tex] is undefined.

a) Let suppose that [tex]\vec A \ne \vec O[/tex], [tex]\vec B \ne \vec O[/tex] and [tex]\vec C \ne \vec O[/tex], where [tex]\vec O[/tex] is known as Vector Zero. By definitions of Dot Product and Inverse Trigonometric Functions we derive expression for the magnitude and directions of [tex]\vec A[/tex], [tex]\vec B[/tex] and [tex]\vec C[/tex]:

Magnitude ([tex]\vec A[/tex])

[tex]\|\vec A\| = \sqrt{\vec A\,\bullet\,\vec A}[/tex]

[tex]\| \vec A\| \ge 0[/tex]

Magnitude ([tex]\vec B[/tex])

[tex]\|\vec B\| = \sqrt{\vec B\,\bullet\,\vec B}[/tex]

[tex]\|\vec B\| \ge 0[/tex]

Magnitude ([tex]\vec C[/tex])

[tex]\|\vec C\| = \sqrt{\vec C\,\bullet \,\vec C}[/tex]

[tex]\|\vec C\| \ge 0[/tex]

Direction ([tex]\vec A[/tex])

[tex]\vec A \,\bullet \,\vec u = \|\vec A\|\cdot \|u\|\cdot \cos \theta_{A}[/tex]

[tex]\theta_{A} = \cos^{-1} \frac{\vec A\,\bullet\,\vec u}{\|\vec A\|\cdot \|u\|}[/tex]

[tex]\theta_{A} = \cos^{-1} \frac{\vec A\,\bullet\,\vec u}{\|\vec A\|}[/tex]

[tex]\theta_{A} \in (-\infty, +\infty)[/tex] for [tex]\|\vec A\|\ne 0[/tex]. Undefined for [tex]\|\vec A\| = 0[/tex].

Direction ([tex]\vec B[/tex])

[tex]\vec B\,\bullet \, \vec u = \|\vec B\|\cdot \|\vec u\| \cdot \cos \theta_{B}[/tex]

[tex]\theta_{B} = \cos^{-1} \frac{\vec B\,\bullet\,\vec u}{\|\vec B\|\cdot \|\vec u\|}[/tex]

[tex]\theta_{B} = \cos^{-1} \frac{\vec B\,\bullet\,\vec u}{\|\vec B\|}[/tex]

[tex]\theta_{B} \in (-\infty, +\infty)[/tex] for [tex]\|\vec B\|\ne 0[/tex]. Undefined for [tex]\|\vec B\| = 0[/tex].

Direction ([tex]\vec C[/tex])

[tex]\vec C \,\bullet\,\vec u = \|\vec C\|\cdot\|\vec u\|\cdot \cos \theta_{C}[/tex]

[tex]\theta_{C} = \cos^{-1}\frac{\vec C\,\bullet\,\vec u}{\|\vec C\|\cdot\|\vec u\|}[/tex]

[tex]\theta_{C} = \cos^{-1} \frac{\vec C\,\bullet\,\vec u}{\|\vec C\|}[/tex]

[tex]\theta_{C} \in (-\infty, +\infty)[/tex] for [tex]\|\vec C\|\ne 0[/tex]. Undefined for [tex]\|\vec C\| = 0[/tex].

Please notice that [tex]\vec u[/tex] is the Vector Unit.

b) Let suppose that [tex]\vec A \ne \vec O[/tex] and [tex]\vec B \ne \vec O[/tex] and [tex]\vec C = \vec O[/tex]. Hence, [tex]\vec A = -\vec B[/tex]. In other words, we find that both vectors are antiparallel to each other, that is, that angle between [tex]\vec A[/tex] and [tex]\vec B[/tex] is 180°. From a) we understand that [tex]\|\vec A\| \ge 0[/tex], [tex]\|\vec B\| \ge 0[/tex], but [tex]\|\vec C\| = 0[/tex].

Then, we have the following conclusions:

Magnitude ([tex]\vec A[/tex])

[tex]\|\vec A\| \ge 0[/tex]

Magnitude ([tex]\vec B[/tex])

[tex]\|\vec B\| \ge 0[/tex]

Magnitude ([tex]\vec C[/tex])

[tex]\|\vec C\| = 0[/tex]

Directions ([tex]\vec A[/tex], [tex]\vec B[/tex]):

[tex]|\theta_{A}-\theta_{B}| = 180^{\circ}[/tex]

Direction ([tex]\vec C[/tex]):

Undefined

Answer:

you will stc ohxoyxct txxtx xigigjjgjvvixiffjz,iffzikzfjvixii. hi h ohigiogooigoh

Explanation:

k jjvhvojvovvojivivivihvi hj

The question is incomplete. The complete question is :

Two loudspeakers are placed 1.8 m apart. They play tones of equal frequency. If you stand 3.0 m in front of the speakers, and exactly between them, you hear a minimum of intensity. As you walk parallel to the plane of the speakers, staying 3.0 m away, the sound intensity increases until reaching a maximum when you are directly in front of one of the speakers. The speed of sound in the room is 340 m/s.

What is the frequency of the sound?

Solution :

Given :

The distance between the two loud speakers, [tex]d = 1.8 \ m[/tex]

The speaker are in phase and so the path difference is zero constructive interference occurs.

At the point [tex]D[/tex], the speakers are out of phase and so the path difference is [tex]$=\frac{\lambda}{2}$[/tex]

Therefore,

[tex]$AD-BD = \frac{\lambda}{2}[/tex]

[tex]$\sqrt{(1.8)^2+(3)^2-3} =\frac{\lambda}{2}$[/tex]

[tex]$\lambda = 2 \times 0.4985$[/tex]

[tex]$\lambda = 0.99714 \ m$[/tex]

Thus the frequency is :

[tex]$f=\frac{v}{\lambda}$[/tex]

[tex]$f=\frac{340}{0.99714}$[/tex]

[tex]f=340.9744[/tex] Hz

Answer:

No ejection of photo electron takes place.

Explanation:

When a photon of suitable energy falls on cathode, then the photoelectrons is emitted from the cathode. This phenomenon is called photo electric effect.

The minimum energy required to just  eject an electron is called work function.

The photo electric equation is

E = W + KE

where, E is the incident energy, W is the work function and KE is the kinetic energy.

W = h f

where. h is the Plank's constant and f is the threshold frequency.

Now, when the violet light is falling, no electrons is ejected. When the red light is falling, whose frequency is less than the violet light, then again no photo electron is ejected from the metal surface.

Answer:

6v

Explanation:

V=IR

V= 2* 3

V= 6 volts

Answer:

[tex]\longrightarrow \: \: \sf\Delta x .\Delta p = \dfrac{h}{4\pi} [/tex]

[tex]\longrightarrow \: \: \sf24 \times {10}^{ - 15} .\Delta p = \dfrac{6.26 \times {10}^{ - 34}} {4 \times \frac{22}{7} } [/tex]

[tex]\longrightarrow \: \: \sf24 \times {10}^{ - 15} .\Delta p = \dfrac{6.26 \times {10}^{ - 34}} { \frac{88}{7} } [/tex]

[tex]\longrightarrow \: \: \sf24 \times {10}^{ - 15} .\Delta p = \dfrac{6.26 \times {10}^{ - 34} \times 7} { 8 } [/tex]

[tex]\longrightarrow \: \: \sf\Delta p = \dfrac{43.82 \times {10}^{ - 34} } { 8 \times 24 \times {10}^{ - 15} } [/tex]

[tex]\longrightarrow \: \: \sf\Delta p = \dfrac{43.82 \times {10}^{ - 34} } { 192 \times {10}^{ - 15} } [/tex]

[tex]\longrightarrow \: \: \sf\Delta p = \dfrac{43.82 \times {10}^{ - 34} \times {10}^{15} } { 192} [/tex]

[tex]\longrightarrow \: \: \sf\Delta p = \dfrac{43.82 \times {10}^{ -19} } { 192} [/tex]

[tex]\longrightarrow \: \: \sf\Delta p = \dfrac{4382 \times {10}^{ - 2} \times {10}^{ -19} } { 192} [/tex]

[tex]\longrightarrow \: \: \sf\Delta p = \dfrac{4382 \times {10}^{ - 21} } { 192} [/tex]

[tex]\longrightarrow \: \: \sf\Delta p = 22.822\times {10}^{ - 21} [/tex]

[tex]\longrightarrow \: \: \sf\Delta p = 2.2822 \times {10}^{1} \times {10}^{ - 21} [/tex]

[tex]\longrightarrow \: \: \underline{ \boxed{ \red{ \bf\Delta p = 2.2822 \times {10}^{ - 20} \: kg/ms}}}[/tex]

Explanation:

Recall that

[tex]K = \dfrac{v_0^2\sin2\theta}{g}\:\:\:\:\:\:\:\:\:(1)[/tex]

and

[tex]Q = \dfrac{v_0^2\sin^2\theta}{2g}\:\:\:\:\:\:\:\:\:(2)[/tex]

From Eqn(2), we can write

[tex]\sin\theta = \sqrt{\dfrac{2gQ}{v_0^2}}\:\:\:\:\:\:\:\:\:(3)[/tex]

Using the identity [tex]\sin\theta = 2\sin\theta \cos\theta[/tex], we can rewrite Eqn(1) as

[tex]\dfrac{gK}{2v_0^2} = \sin\theta \cos\theta[/tex]

Squaring the above equation, we get

[tex]\dfrac{g^2K^2}{4v_0^4} = \sin^2\theta \cos^2\theta[/tex]

[tex]\:\:\:\:\:\:\:\:\:=\sin^2\theta(1 - \sin^2\theta)\:\:\:\:\:\:\:(4)[/tex]

Use Eqn(3) on Eqn(4) and we will get the following:

[tex]\dfrac{g^2K^2}{4v_0^4} = \dfrac{2gQ}{v_0^2}(1 - \dfrac{2gQ}{v_0^2})[/tex]

This simplifies to

[tex]\dfrac{gK^2}{8v_0^2Q} = 1 - \dfrac{2gQ}{v_0^2}[/tex]

Rearranging this further, we get

[tex]1 = \dfrac{2gQ}{v_0^2} + \dfrac{gK^2}{8v_0^2Q}[/tex]

Putting [tex]v_0^2[/tex] to the left side, we get

[tex]v_0^2 = 2qQ + \dfrac{gK^2}{8Q}[/tex]

Finally, taking the square root of the equation above, we get the expression for the muzzle velocity [tex]v_0[/tex] as

[tex]v_0 = \sqrt{2gQ + \dfrac{gK^2}{8Q}}[/tex]

Explanation:

I=2.5 Ampere ; V=100V ;t = 1 hour=60secs

We know Heat = VIt

H=100×2.5×60=15,000J

Answer:

the answer is 49000 joules at the maximum height

Explanation:

we know the mass (50kg)

we know the acceleration due to gravity(9.8m/s²)

we know the height too(maximum height meaning the 50th step so we multiply 50 with 20cm as each step is 20 cm and we get 1000 cm, convert to m it is 100 m

the formula is potential energy=mgh

m for mass

g for acceleration due to gravity

h for height

multiply them

50x9.8x100

we get 49000

the unit of potential energy is joules so the answer is

49000 joules

Answer:

49000 joules

Explanation:

hope it helpss

Answer:

The SI unit of power is watt

Answer:

21.55 m

Explanation:

Answer:

THIS IS YOUR ANSWER:

☺✍️HOPE IT HELPS YOU ✍️☺

Answer:

Speed=28.1m/s(to 3s.f.) , Time=2.19s(to 3s.f.)

Explanation:

Time=Distance/Speed

=14.5/6.63

=2.19s(to 3s.f.)

Acceleration=Final Velocity(v)-Initial Velocity(u)/Time

9.81=v-6.63/2.19

v-6.63=21.5

v=28.1m/s

Answer:

I think 9.5

Explanation:

............

Answer:

0.032 [tex]m/s^2[/tex]

Explanation:

Given :

Weight of the astronaut = 69 kg

Weight of the physics book = 28 kg

Acceleration of the astronaut = 0.0130 [tex]m/s^2[/tex]

The force that is applied on the astronaut :

[tex]F=ma[/tex]

   [tex]$=69 \times 0.013$[/tex]

   = 0.897 N

Therefore, by Newton's 3rd law, we know that the force applied on the physics book is also F = 0.897 N

Therefore, the acceleration of the physics book is given by :

[tex]$a = \frac{\text{Force on physics book}}{\text{mass of physics book}}$[/tex]

[tex]$a = \frac{0.897}{28}$[/tex]

a = 0.032 [tex]m/s^2[/tex]

Hence, the acceleration of the physics book is  0.032 [tex]m/s^2[/tex].

Answer:

The acceleration of astronaut is 5.27 x 10^-3 m/s^2.

Explanation:

mass of astronaut, M = 69 kg

Mass of book, m = 28 kg

acceleration of book, a = 0.013 m/s^2

Let the acceleration of astronaut is A.

According to the Newton's third law, for every action there is an equal and opposite reaction.

So, the force acting on the book is same as the force acting on the astronaut but the direction is opposite to each other.

M A = m a

69 x A = 28 x 0.013

A = 5.27 x 10^-3 m/s^2

Answer:

 law of conservation of energy states that the total energy of an isolated system remains constant; it is said to be conserved over time.

The question is incomplete. The complete question is :

A wire 0.6 m long and with mass m = 11 g is positioned horizontally near the earth's surface and perpendicular to a horizontal magnetic field of magnitude B = 0.4 T. What current I must flow through the wire in order that the wire accelerate neither upwards nor downwards? The magnetic field is directed into the page.

Solution :

Given :

Length of the wire, L = 0.6 m

Mass of the wire length, m = 11 g

                                             = [tex]11 \times 10^{-3}[/tex] kg

Magnetic field , B = 0.4 T

Know we know that :

ILB = mg

or [tex]$I=\frac{mg}{BL}$[/tex]

 [tex]$I= \frac{(11 \times 10^{-3})(9.81)}{(0.4)(0.6)}$[/tex]

 [tex]I=0.44963\ A[/tex]

 [tex]I = 449.63 \ mA[/tex]

Answer:

B. -40 kgm/s is the answer

Answer:

5.71×10¹⁴ Hz

Explanation:

Applying,

v = λf................. Equation 1

Where v = speed of the electromagnetic radiation, λ = wavelength of the electromagnetic radiation, f = frequency

make f the subject of the equation

f = v/λ............. Equation 2

From the question,

Given: λ = 525 nm = 5.25×10⁻⁷ m,

Constant: Speed of electromagnetic wave (v) = 3.0×10⁸ m/s

Substitute these values into equation 2

f = (3.0×10⁸)/(5.25×10⁻⁷)

f = 5.71×10¹⁴ Hz

Hence the frequency of light is 5.71×10¹⁴ Hz

Answer:

Here , mass of bucket ,m = 3.2 Kg

Now , let the tension in upper rope is T1

the tension in the middle rope is T2

a)

For lower bucket, balancing forces in vertical direction

T2 - mg = 0

T2 = mg

T2 = 3.2 *9.8

T2 = 31.36 N

tension in the middle rope is 31.36 N

For the upper bucket , balancing forces in vertical direction

T1 - T2 - mg = 0

T1 = T2 + 3.2 *9.8

T1 = 62.72 N

the tension in the upper rope is 62.72 N

B)

for a = 1.25 m/s^2

Using second law of motion ,for both the buckets

Fnet = ma

T1 - 2mg = 2m*a

T1 = 2*3.2*(9.8 +1.25)

T1 = 70.72 N

the tension in the upper rope is 70.7 N

Now , the lower bucket

Using second law of motion,

T2 - mg = ma

T2 = 3.2 * (9.8 + 1.25)

T2 = 35.36 N

the tension in the lower rope is 35.36 N

Answer:

The net electric field at the midpoint is 6.85 x 10^7 N/C.

Explanation:

q = − 8.3 μC

q' = + 7.8 μC

d =  9.2 cm

d/2 = 4.6 cm

The electric field due to the charge q at midpoint is

[tex]E = \frac{k q}{r^2}\\\\E = \frac{9\times 10^9\times 8.3\times 10^{-6}}{0.046^2}\\\\E = 3.53\times 10^7 N/C[/tex] leftwards

The electric field due to the charge q' at midpoint is

[tex]E' = \frac{k q}{r^2}\\\\E' = \frac{9\times 10^9\times 7.8\times 10^{-6}}{0.046^2}\\\\E' = 3.32\times 10^7 N/C[/tex]

The resultant electric field at mid point is

E'' = E + E' = (3.53 + 3.32) x 10^7 = 6.85 x 10^7 N/C

a) The mass flow rate through the nozzle is 0.27 kg/s.

b) The exit area of the nozzle is 23.6 cm².

a) The mass flow rate through the nozzle can be calculated with the following equation:

[tex] \dot{m_{i}} = \rho_{i} v_{i}A_{i} [/tex]

Where:

[tex]v_{i}[/tex]: is the initial velocity = 20 m/s

[tex]A_{i}[/tex]: is the inlet area of the nozzle = 60 cm²  

[tex]\rho_{i}[/tex]: is the density of entrance = 2.21 kg/m³

[tex] \dot{m} = \rho_{i} v_{i}A_{i} = 2.21 \frac{kg}{m^{3}}*20 \frac{m}{s}*60 cm^{2}*\frac{1 m^{2}}{(100 cm)^{2}} = 0.27 kg/s [/tex]  

Hence, the mass flow rate through the nozzle is 0.27 kg/s.

b) The exit area of the nozzle can be found with the Continuity equation:

[tex] \rho_{i} v_{i}A_{i} = \rho_{f} v_{f}A_{f} [/tex]

[tex] 0.27 kg/s = 0.762 kg/m^{3}*150 m/s*A_{f} [/tex]

[tex] A_{f} = \frac{0.27 kg/s}{0.762 kg/m^{3}*150 m/s} = 0.00236 m^{2}*\frac{(100 cm)^{2}}{1 m^{2}} = 23.6 cm^{2} [/tex]

Therefore, the exit area of the nozzle is 23.6 cm².

You can find another example of mass flow rate here: https://brainly.com/question/13346498?referrer=searchResults

I hope it helps you!                                                                   

a) Mass flow rate through the nozzle: 0.265 kilograms per second, b) Exit area of the nozzle: 23.202 square centimeters.

We determine the Mass Flow Rate through the nozzle and the Exit Area of the nozzle by means of the Principle of Mass Conservation. A nozzle is a device that works at Steady State, so that Mass Balance can be reduced into this form:

[tex]\dot m_{in} = \dot m_{out}[/tex] (1)

Where:

[tex]\dot m_{in}[/tex] - Inlet mass flow, in kilograms per second.

[tex]\dot m_{out}[/tex] - Outlet mass flow, in kilograms per second.

Given that air flows at constant rate, we expand (1) by dimensional analysis:

[tex]\rho_{in} \cdot A_{in}\cdot v_{in} = \rho_{out}\cdot A_{out}\cdot v_{out}[/tex] (2)

Where:

[tex]\rho_{in}, \rho_{out}[/tex] - Air density at inlet and outlet, in kilograms per cubic meter.

[tex]A_{in}, A_{out}[/tex] - Inlet and outlet area, in square meters.

[tex]v_{in}, v_{out}[/tex] - Inlet and outlet velocity, in meters per second.

a) If we know that [tex]\rho_{in} = 2.21\,\frac{kg}{m^{3}}[/tex], [tex]A_{in} = 60\times 10^{-4}\,m^{2}[/tex] and [tex]v_{in} = 20\,\frac{m}{s}[/tex], then the mass flow rate through the nozzle is:

[tex]\dot m = \rho_{in}\cdot A_{in}\cdot v_{in}[/tex]

[tex]\dot m = \left(2.21\,\frac{kg}{m^{3}} \right)\cdot (60\times 10^{-4}\,m^{2})\cdot \left(20\,\frac{m}{s} \right)[/tex]

[tex]\dot m = 0.265\,\frac{kg}{s}[/tex]

The mass flow rate through the nozzle is 0.265 kilograms per second.

b) If we know that [tex]\rho_{in} = 2.21\,\frac{kg}{m^{3}}[/tex], [tex]A_{in} = 60\times 10^{-4}\,m^{2}[/tex], [tex]v_{in} = 20\,\frac{m}{s}[/tex], [tex]\rho_{out} = 0.762\,\frac{kg}{m^{3}}[/tex] and [tex]v_{out} = 150\,\frac{m}{s}[/tex], then the exit area of the nozzle is:

[tex]\rho_{in} \cdot A_{in}\cdot v_{in} = \rho_{out}\cdot A_{out}\cdot v_{out}[/tex]

[tex]A_{out} = \frac{\rho_{in}\cdot A_{in}\cdot v_{in}}{\rho_{out}\cdot v_{out}}[/tex]

[tex]A_{out} = \frac{\left(2.21\,\frac{kg}{m^{3}} \right)\cdot (60\times 10^{-4}\,m^{2})\cdot \left(20\,\frac{m}{s} \right)}{\left(0.762\,\frac{kg}{m^{3}} \right)\cdot \left(150\,\frac{m}{s} \right)}[/tex]

[tex]A_{out} = 2.320\times 10^{-3}\,m^{2}[/tex]

[tex]A_{out} = 23.202\,cm^{2}[/tex]

The exit area of the nozzle is 23.202 square centimeters.

Answer:

there are 3 photos attached. so check

Explanation:

Answer:

I hope this is correct!

Explanation:

a) work = (force)(displacement)

We know that d = 5m, now we just need to find the force

We need to calculate the acceleration first using a = v^2 - u^2 / 2d

final velocity (v) = 2.1 m/s , initial velocity (u) = 0 m/s , displacement (d) = 5m

a = 2.1^2 - 0^2 / 2(5)

  = 0.441 m/s^2

Now we can find force using f = ma

f = (14kg)(0.441m/s^2)

 = 6.174 newtons

Finally, you can calculate work now that you have force!

work = (6.174n)(5m)

       = 30.87 J (you may need to round sig figs!)

b) Work done by friction = (coefficient of kinetic friction)(mg)(v)

m = 14kg, g = 9.8, coefficient of friction = 0.2

force due to friction = (0.2)(14kg x 9.8)(2.1)

                                 = 57.624 J (again you may need to round to sig figs)

c) Work you perform = total work in direction of motion + work done by friction

total work = 30.87 J, work done by friction = 57.624 J

Work you perform = 30.84 + 57.624

                               = 88.464 J

d) Force you applied = work you performed / distance

work you performed = 88.464 / 5 m

                                   = 17.6929 N (again you may need to round to sig figs)

Hope this helps ya! Best of luck <3

Explanation:

bro I have no idea fam......

Answer:

pendulum, quartz

Explanation: