Why was Bohr's atomic model replaced by the
modern atomic model?

Answer:

 circumference of the satellite orbit  = 4.13 × 10⁷ m

Explanation:

Given that:

the time period T = 88.5 min = 88.5 × 60  = 5310 sec

The mass of the earth [tex]M_e[/tex] = 5.98 × 10²⁴ kg

if  the radius of orbit is r,

Then,

[tex]\dfrac{V^2}{r} = \dfrac{GM_e}{r^2}[/tex]

[tex]{V^2} = \dfrac{GM_e r}{r^2}[/tex]

[tex]{V^2} = \dfrac{GM_e }{r}[/tex]

[tex]{V} =\sqrt{ \dfrac{GM_e }{r}}[/tex]

Similarly :

[tex]T = \sqrt{\dfrac{ 2 \pi r} {V} }[/tex]

where; [tex]{V} =\sqrt{ \dfrac{GM_e }{r}}[/tex]

Then:

[tex]T = {\dfrac{ 2 \pi r^{3/2}} {\sqrt{ {GM_e }} }[/tex]

[tex]5310= {\dfrac{ 2 \pi r^{3/2}} {\sqrt{ {6.674\times 10^{-11} \times 5.98 \times 10^{24} }} }[/tex]

[tex]5310= {\dfrac{ 2 \pi r^{3/2}} {\sqrt{ 3.991052 \times 10^{14} }}[/tex]

[tex]5310= {\dfrac{ 2 \pi r^{3/2}} {19977617.48}[/tex]

[tex]5310 \times 19977617.48= 2 \pi r^{3/2}}[/tex]

[tex]1.06081149 \times 10^{11}= 2 \pi r^{3/2}}[/tex]

[tex]\dfrac{1.06081149 \times 10^{11}}{2 \pi}= r^{3/2}}[/tex]

[tex]r^{3/2}} = \dfrac{1.06081149 \times 10^{11}}{2 \pi}[/tex]

[tex]r^{3/2}} = 1.68833392 \times 10^{10}[/tex]

[tex]r= (1.68833392 \times 10^{10})^{2/3}}[/tex]

[tex]r= 2565.38^2[/tex]

r = 6579225 m

The  circumference of the satellites  orbit can now be determined by using the formula:

 circumference = 2π r

 circumference = 2π  × 6579225 m

 circumference = 41338489.85 m

 circumference of the satellite orbit  = 4.13 × 10⁷ m

Answer:

b) True. potencial diferencie does not depend on orientation

Explanation:

In this exercise we are asked to show which statements are true.

The expression the potential with respect to earth or the electric field with respect to earth refers to the potential or electric charge of the planet that is assumed to be very large and does not change in value during work.

It does not refer to the height of the system.

We can now review the claims

a) False. Potential not to be refers to height

b) True. Does not depend on orientation

c) False The potential does not refer to the altitude but to the Earth's charge

Answer:

External force    W₁ = F L

Friction force    W₂ = - fr L

weight component   W₃ = - mg sin θ L

Y Axis   Force      W=0

Explanation:

When the block rises up the plane with constant velocity, it implies that the sum of the forces is zero.

For these exercises it is indicated to create a reference system with the x axis parallel to the plane and the y axis perpendicular

let's write the equations of translational equilibrium in given exercise

X axis

        F - fr -Wₓ = 0

        F = fr + Wₓ

the components of the weight can be found using trigonometry

         Wₓ = W sin θ

         [tex]W_{y}[/tex] = W cos θ

let's look for the work of these three forces

          W = F x cos θ

External force

          W₁ = F L

since the displacement and the force have the same direction

Friction force

          W₂ = - fr L

since the friction force is in the opposite direction to the displacement

For the weight component

          W₃ = - mg sin θ L

because the weight component is contrary to displacement

Y Axis  

          N- Wy = 0

in this case the forces are perpendicular to the displacement, the angle is 90º and the cosine 90 = 0

therefore work is worth zero

Answer:

A = 6.8 km²

Explanation:

A) The sail should be reflective. This is so that, it can produce the maximum radiation pressure.

B) let's begin with the formula used to calculate the average solar sail in orbit around the sun. Thus;

F_rad = 2IA/c

I is given by the formula;

I = P/(4πr²)

Thus;

F_rad = (2A/c) × (P/(4πr²)) = PA/2cπr²

Where;

A is the area of the sail

r is the distance of the sail from the sun

c is the speed of light = 3 × 10^(8) m/s

P is total power output of the sun = 3.90 × 10^(26) W

Now,F_rad = F_g

Where F_g is gravitational force.

Thus;

PA/2cπr² = G•m•M_sun/r²

r² will cancel out to givw;

PA/2cπ = G•m•M_sun

Making A the subject, we have;

A = (2•c•π•G•m•M_sun)/P

Now, m = 1.06 × 10⁴ kg and M_sun has a standard value of 1.99 × 10^(30) kg

G is gravitational constant and has a value of 6.67 × 10^(-11) Nm²/kg²

Thus;

A = (2 × 3 × 10^(8) × π × 6.67 × 10^(-11) × 1.06 × 10^(4) × 1.99 × 10^(30))/(3.90 × 10^(26))

A = 6.8 × 10^(6) m² = 6.8 km²

Answer:

Vrel= 0.75c

Explanation:

See attached file

Answer:

1.125×10⁻⁹ J

Explanation:

Applying,

E = 1/2CV²................... Equation 1

Where E = Energy stored in the capacitor, C = capacitance of the capacitor, V = Voltage of the battery.

Given; C = 1.0 nF,  = 1.0×10⁻⁹ F, V = 1.5 V

Substitute into equation 1

E = 1/2(1.0×10⁻⁹×1.5²)

E = 1.125×10⁻⁹ J

Hence the energy stored by the capacitor is 1.125×10⁻⁹ J

Answer:

The moment of inertia is  [tex]I= 312.09 \ kg \cdot m^2[/tex]

Explanation:

From the question we are told that

    The  mass of the platform is   m =  137 kg

     The radius is  r  =  1.53 m

    The mass of the person is  [tex]m_p = 68.7 \ kg[/tex]

    The distance of the person from the center is  [tex]d_c =1.19 \ m[/tex]

    The mass of the dog is  [tex]m_d = 25.9 \ kg[/tex]

     The distance of the dog from the person [tex]d_d = 1.45 \ m[/tex]

Generally the moment of inertia of the system is mathematically represented as

      [tex]I = I_1 + I_2 + I_3[/tex]

Where [tex]I_1[/tex] is the moment of inertia of the platform which mathematically represented as

          [tex]I_1 = \frac{m * r^2}{2}[/tex]

substituting values

           [tex]I_1 = \frac{ 137 * (1.53)^2}{2}[/tex]

           [tex]I_1 = 160.35 \ kg\cdot m^2[/tex]

Also  [tex]I_2[/tex]  is the moment of inertia of the person about the axis which is mathematically represented as

          [tex]I_2 = m_p * d_c^2[/tex]

substituting values

          [tex]I_2 = 68.7 * 1.19^2[/tex]

          [tex]I_2 = 97.29 \ kg \cdot m^2[/tex]

Also  [tex]I_3[/tex]  is the moment of inertia of the dog about the axis which is mathematically represented as

          [tex]I_3 = m_d * d_d^2[/tex]

substituting values

          [tex]I_3 = 25.9 * 1.45^2[/tex]

          [tex]I_3 = 54.45 \ kg \cdot m^2[/tex]

Thus  

        [tex]I= 160.35 + 97.29 + 54.45[/tex]

        [tex]I= 312.09 \ kg \cdot m^2[/tex]

Answer:

Explanation:

Charge on an electron (q) = 1.6 * 10 ^ -19 C

Velocity of electron (v) = 0.3037 * 300,000,000 = 91,110,000 m/sec

We know that, Force exerted on moving particle moving through a magnetic field :

[tex]F= q * v * B ( q,v\ and\ B\ are\ mutually\ perpendicular)[/tex]

1.2498 * 10 ^ -12 = 1.6 * 10^ -19 * 91110000 * B

B =  0.08573 T

Answer:In the case of two proton beams the protons repel one another because they have the same sign of electrical charge. There is also an attractive magnetic force between the protons, but in the proton frame of reference this force must be zero! Clearly then the attractive magnetic force that reduces the net force between protons in the two beams as seen in our frame of reference is relativistic. In particular the apparent magnetic forces or fields are relativistic modifications of the electrical forces or fields. As such modifications, they cannot be stronger than the electrical forces and fields that produce them. This follows from the fact that switching frames of reference can reduce forces, but it can’t turn what is attractive in one frame into a repulsive force in another frame.

In the case of wires the net charges in two wires are zero everywhere along the wires. That makes the net electrical forces between the wires very nearly zero. Yet the relativistic magnetic forces and fields will be of the same sort as in the case of two beams of charges of a single sign. This is true even in the frame of reference of what we think as the moving charges, that is, the electrons. In the frame of reference moving at the drift velocity of these current-carrying electrons, it is the protons or positively charged ions that are moving in the other direction. Consequently in any frame of reference for current-carrying wires in parallel, the net electrical force will be essentially zero, and there will be a net attractive magnetic force

Explanation:                                                                              

Explanation:

Particles with similar charges (both positive or both negative) will always repel each other, regardless of their speed or direction.

Answer:

C $0.75 my friend I wish it is right answer

Answer:

(a) The magnitude of induced emf in the loop while the magnetic field is increasing is 9.5 mV

(b) The magnitude of the induced voltage at a constant magnetic field is 124.7 mV

Explanation:

Given;

radius of the circular loop, r = 31.0 cm = 0.31 m

initial magnetic field, B₁ = 0.7 T

final magnetic field, B₂ = 2.3B₁ = 2.3 X 0.7 T = 1.61 T

duration of change in the field, t = 29

(a) The magnitude of induced emf in the loop while the magnetic field is increasing.

[tex]E = A*\frac{\delta B}{\delta t} \\\\[/tex]

[tex]E = A*\frac{B_2 -B_1}{\delta t}[/tex]

Where;

A is the area of the circular loop

A = πr²

A = π(0.31)² = 0.302 m²

[tex]E = A*\frac{B_2 -B_1}{\delta t} \\\\E = 0.302*\frac{1.61-0.7}{29} \\\\E = 0.0095 \ V\\\\E = 9.5 \ mV[/tex]

(b) the magnitude of the induced voltage at a constant magnetic field

E = A x B/t

E = (0.302 x 1.61) / 3.9

E = 0.1247 V

E = 124.7 mV

Therefore, the magnitude of the induced voltage at a constant magnetic field is 124.7 mV

Answer:

D. A convex lens in air

Explanation:

This is because the air tight plastic under water will reflect light rays in the same manner as a convex lens

Answer:

Therefore, we need an invert, and a rectifier, along with the transformer to do the job.

Explanation:

A transformer, alone, can not be used to convert a DC voltage to another DC voltage. If we apply a DC voltage to the primary coil of the transformer, it will act as short circuit due to low resistance. It will cause overflow of current through winding, resulting in overheating pf the transformer.

Hence, the transformer only take AC voltage as an input, and converts it to another AC voltage. So, the output voltage of a transformer is also AC voltage.

So, in order to convert a 6 V DC to 1.5 V DC we need an inverter to convert 6 V DC to AC, then a step down transformer to convert it to 1.5 V AC, and finally a rectifier to convert 1.5 V AC to 1.5 V DC.

Therefore, we need an invert, and a rectifier, along with the transformer to do the job.

Answer:

N₁ = 1800 turns

So, the side of the transformer that plugs into the outlet has 1800 turns.

Explanation:

The transformer turns ratio is given by the following equation:

V₁/V₂ = N₁/N₂

where,

V₁ = Voltage of outlet = 120 V

V₂ = Device Voltage = 3 V

N₁ = No. of turns on outlet side = ?

N₂ = No. of turns on side of device = 45

Therefore,

120 V/3 V = N₁/45

N₁ = (40)(45)

N₁ = 1800 turns

So, the side of the transformer that plugs into the outlet has 1800 turns.

Explanation:

(a) Given that,

Area of a parallel plate capacitor, [tex]A=1.8\ cm^2=1.8\times 10^{-4}\ m^2[/tex]

The separation between the plates of a capacitor, [tex]d=0.01\ mm = 10^{-5}\ m[/tex]

The dielectric constant of, k = 2.1

When a dielectric constant is inserted between parallel plate capacitor, the capacitance is given by :

[tex]C=\dfrac{k\epsilon_o A}{d}[/tex]

Putting all the values we get :

[tex]C=\dfrac{2.1\times 8.85\times 10^{-12}\times 1.8\times 10^{-4}}{0.01\times 10^{-3}}\\\\C=3.345\times 10^{-10}\ F\\\\C=334.5\ pF[/tex]

(b) We know that the Teflon has dielectric strength of 60 MV/m, [tex]E=60\times 10^6\ V/m[/tex]

The voltage difference between the plates at this critical voltage is given by :

[tex]V=Ed\\\\V=60\times 10^6\times 0.01\times 10^{-3} \\\\V=600\ V[/tex]

or

V = 0.6 kV

We have that the Capacitance and potential difference is mathematically given as



Question Parameters:

having a plate area of 1.80 cm2 and a plate separation of 0.010 0 mm

having a plate area of 1.80 cm2 and a plate separation of 0.010 0 mm.

a)

Generally the equation for the Capacitance  is mathematically given as

[tex]C=\frac{ke_0A}{d}\\\\Therefore\\\\C=\frac{2.1*1.80e-4*8.85e12}{0.01e-3}\\\\[/tex]

C=334.68pF

b)

Generally the equation for the Capacitance  is mathematically given as

[tex]Vmax=\frac{Q}{C}[/tex]

Where

Q is the charge on the plates, and hence not given

Therefore, maximum potential difference is

[tex]Vmax=\frac{Q}{334.68pF}[/tex]

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Answer:

testable

Explanation:

high heat can cause browning and or welting

Answer:

A

Explanation:

If it is tested, it will really changed when the plant into low temperature

Explanation:

1 inch = 25.4 mm

1 foot = 12 inches

1 mile = 5260 feet

1 cm = 0.01 m or 10 mm

Now Sammy's height is 5 feet and 5.3 inches.

(a) We need to find Sammy's height in inches.

Since, 1 foot = 12 inches

5 feet = 5 × 12 inches = 60 inches

Now, 5 feet and 5.3 inches = 60 inches + 5.3 inches = 65.3 inches

Sammy's height is 65.3 inches.

(b) We need to find Sammy's height in feet.

Since, 1 foot = 12 inches

[tex]1\ \text{inch}=\dfrac{1}{12}\ \text{feet}[/tex]

So,

[tex]5.3\ \text{inch}=\dfrac{5.3}{12}\ \text{feet}=0.4416\ \text{feet}[/tex]

5 feet and 5.3 inches = 5 feet + 0.4416 feet = 5.44 feet

Sammy's height is 5.44 feet.

Answer:

E = -8.23 ​​10⁻¹⁷ N / C

Explanation:

In the Bohr model, the electric potential for the ground state corresponding to the Bohr orbit is

         E = k q₁ q₂ / r²

in this case

q₁ is the charge of the proton and q₂ the charge of the electron

         E = - k e² / a₀²

let's calculate

         E = - 9 10⁹ (1.6 10⁻¹⁹)² / (0.529 10⁻¹⁰)²

         E = -8.23 ​​10⁻¹⁷ N / C

Answer:

16 times.

Explanation:

The rate of the radiation dose is , R = 200 ×10^{-3} rad/hr

Time consumed, t = 40 hr

The magnitude of Q.F for the neutrons, Q.F = 2

Thus the effective radiation dose is:

[tex]R_{Eff} = Rt(Q.F) \\= 200 \times 10^{-3} \frac{rad}{hr} (40hr)(2) \\= 16 \ rad[/tex]

Thus, the effective dose allowable yearly = 16 times

Answer:

a. to the west.

Explanation:

An electron in a magnetic field always experience a force that tends to change its direction of motion through the magnetic field. According to Lorentz left hand rule (which is the opposite of Lorentz right hand rule for a positive charge), the left hand is used to represent the motion of an electron in a magnetic field. Hold out the left hand with the fingers held out parallel to the palm, and the thumb held at right angle to the other fingers. If the thumb represents the motion of the electron though the field, and the other fingers represent the direction of the field, then the palm will push in the direction of the force on the particle.

In this case, if we point the thumb (which shows the direction we shot the electron) to the south (towards your body), with the palm (shows the direction of the force) facing up to the roof, then the fingers (the direction of the field) will point west.

Answer;

A)S(t)=96t-16t² +432

B)it will take 9 seconds for the ball to reach the ground.

C)864feet

Explanation:

We were given an initial height of 432 feet.

And v(t)= 96-32t

A) we are to Find​ s(t), the function giving the height of the ball at time t

The position, or heigth, is the integrative of the velocity. So

S(t)= ∫(96-32)dt

S(t)=96t-16t² +K

S(t)=96t-16t² +432

In which the constant of integration K is the initial height, so K= 432

b) we need to know how long will the ball take to reach the​ ground

This is t when S(t)= 0

S(t)=96t-16t² +432

-16t² +96t +432=0

This is quadratic equation, if you solve using factorization method we have

t= -3 or t= 9

Therefore, , t is the instant of time and it must be a positive value.

So it will take 9 seconds for the ball to reach the ground.

C)V=s/t

Velocity= distance/ time

=96=s/9sec

S=96×9

=864feet

By applying the integrations,

(a) [tex]S = 96t-16t^2+432[/tex]

(b) Time will be "t = 9".

(c) Height will be "576"

Given:

Height,

Initial velocity,

According to the question,

(a)

Integrate v:

Initial Condition,

→ [tex]S = 96t-16t^2+432[/tex]

(b)

Hits the ground when,

→ [tex]0=96t-16t^2+432[/tex]

→ [tex]t =9[/tex]

(c)

Maximum height when,

→ [tex]0 = 96-32 t[/tex]

→ [tex]t = 3[/tex]

Now,

→ [tex]S = 96\times 3-16\times 3^2+432[/tex]

      [tex]= 576[/tex]

Thus the answer above is correct.

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Answer:

f. 80 and 90

Explanation:

1 x 10⁻¹² W/m² sound intensity falls within 0 sound level

1 x 10⁻¹¹ W/m² sound intensity falls within 10 sound level

1 x 10⁻¹⁰ W/m² sound intensity falls within 20 sound level

1 x 10⁻⁹ W/m² sound intensity falls within 30 sound level

1 x 10⁻⁸ W/m² sound intensity falls within 40 sound level

1 x 10⁻⁷ W/m² sound intensity falls within 50 sound level

1 x 10⁻⁶ W/m² sound intensity falls within 60 sound level

1 x 10⁻⁵ W/m² sound intensity falls within 70 sound level

1 x 10⁻⁴ W/m² sound intensity falls within 80 sound level

1 x 10⁻³ W/m² sound intensity falls within 90 sound level

Given sound intensity (3.66 x 10⁻⁴ W/m²) falls with 1 x 10⁻⁴ W/m² of intensity which is within 80 and 90 sound level.

f. 80 and 90

1. The ocean water collects back in the ocean.

2. Condensation is the process by which water vapor in the air is changed into liquid water. Condensation is crucial to the water cycle because it is responsible for the formation of clouds.

3. an excessive amount of water flowing from downslope along earths surface

4. A.Evaporation occurs when water is warmed by the sun.

5. The water returns into the ocean by the water cycle . It evaporates , then it condensates , then it participates ( Rains ) and then goes back into the ocean.

Hope this answer correct ✌️

Answer:

Explanation:

1) If the mass (M) of a piece of metal is directly proportional to its volume (V), where the proportionality constant is the density (D) of the metal, this is expressed mathematically as shown;

M ∝ V

M = kV

For every proportionality sign, there will always be a proportionality constant 'k'

Since the proportionality constant is the density (D) of the metal, the equation will become;

M = DV

Given the density to be 11.3 g/cm3, the equation will become;

M = 11.3V

Hence, the equation that represents this direct proportion, in which D is the proportionality constant with metal density of 11.3g/cm³ is M = 11.3V

2) If the volume of the metal is 17.3cm³, on substituting this values into the equation in (1) to get the mass of the metal, we will have;

M = 11.3V

M = 11.3 * 17.3

M = 195.49 grams

Hence, the mass of a piece of lead metal that has a volume of 17.3 cm³ is 195.49 grams.

Answer:

The charge is  [tex]q = 1.50 *10^{-5} \ C[/tex]

Explanation:

From the question we are told that

   The electric field strength is  [tex]E = 1860 \ N/C[/tex]

    The force is  [tex]F = 0.02796 \ N[/tex]

Generally the charge on this particle is mathematically represented as

     [tex]q = \frac{F}{E}[/tex]

=>   [tex]q = \frac{0.02796}{ 1860}[/tex]

=>   [tex]q = 1.50 *10^{-5} \ C[/tex]

Answer:

Explanation:

Let the race be of a fixed distance x

[tex]Average Speed = \frac{Total Distance}{Total Time}[/tex]

Troy's Average speed = 3 miles/hr = x / 0.2 hr

x = 0.6 miles

Abed's Average speed = 0.6 / 0.125 = 4.8 miles/hr

Answer:

30.93 cm

Explanation:

Given that:

A person with a near point of 85 cm, but excellent distance vision normally wears corrective glasses

The power of the old pair of lens p = 2.25 diopters

The focal point length = 1/p

The focal point length =  1/2.25

The focal point length = 0.444 m

The focal point length = 44.4 cm

The near point of the person from the glass = (85 -2)cm , This is because the glasses are usually 2 cm from the lens

The near point of the person from the glass = 83 cm

Let consider s' to be the image on the same sides of the lens,

∴ s' = -83 cm

We known that:

the focal length of a mirror image 1/f =1/u +1/v

Assume the near point is at an excellent distance s from the glass where the person wears the corrective glasses.

Then:

1/f = 1/s + 1/s'

1/s = 1/f - 1/s'

1/s = (s' -f)/fs'

s = fs'/(s'-f)

s =( 44.4× -83)/(-83 - 44.4)

s = - 3685.2 / - 127.4

s = 28.93 cm

Thus , the near distance point measured from the eye wearing the old glasses, if they rest 2.0 cm in front of the eye = (28.93 +2.0)cm

= 30.93 cm

Explanation:

Hey, there!

Here, In question given that,

potential difference (V)= 8V

resistance (R)= 10 ohm

Now,

According to the Ohm's law,

V= R×I { where I = current}

or, I = V/R

or, I = 8/10

Therefore, current is 4/5 A or 0.8 A.

(A= ampere = unit of current).

Hope it helps...

Answer:

Kindly check explanation

Explanation:

Length of race = 5km

Maximum speed = 45 yards

Converting from yards to kilometer :

1km = 1093.613 yards

x = 45 yards

(1093.613 * x) = 45

x = 45 / 1093.613

x = 0.0411480 km

Where x = maximum length for which he can maintain his maximum speed expressed in kilometers.

Therefore, with the available information, it can be concluded that Lamar cannot maintain his maximum speed for the entire 5km race and will only be able maintain his maximum speed for 0.0411 kilometers.

Lamar cannot maintain his maximum speed for the entire 5km race and will only be able maintain his maximum speed for 0.0411 kilometers.

Length of race = 5km

Maximum speed = 45 yards

Converting from yards to kilometer :

1km = 1093.613 yards

x = 45 yards

[tex](1093.613 \times x) = 45[/tex]

[tex]x = 45 \div 1093.613[/tex]

x = 0.0411480 km

here x represent maximum length for which he can maintain his maximum speed expressed in kilometers.

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1. Which example best describes a restoring force?

B) the force applied to restore a spring to its original length

2. A spring is compressed, resulting in its displacement to the right. What happens to the spring when it is released?

C) The spring exerts a restoring force to the left and returns to its equilibrium position.

3. A 2-N force is applied to a spring, and there is displacement of 0.4 m. How much would the spring be displaced if a 5-N force was applied?

D) 1 m

4. Hooke’s law is described mathematically using the formula Fsp=−kx. Which statement is correct about the spring force, Fsp?

D)It is a vector quantity.

5. What happens to the displacement vector when the spring constant has a higher value and the applied force remains constant?

A) It decreases in magnatude.

Hope this Helps!! Sorry its late