Which substances cause an immune response?

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Answer 1

Substances that cause an immune response are called antigens. The immune system recognizes and destroys, or tries to destroy, substances that contain antigens.

Antigens can also include non-infectious items like pollen, food fragments, and medications. Antigens are often foreign substances that infiltrate the body, such as viruses, bacteria, fungi, and parasites. Antigens can also be found on the surface of aberrant or mutant protein-containing body cells, such as cancer cells.

The immune system can identify an antigen as foreign when it enters the body, at which point it begins an attack to get rid of it. To identify and eliminate the antigen, this immune response involves the creation of antibodies and the activation of immune cells such T cells and B cells.

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which of the following pairs is not correctly paired? select an answer and submit. for keyboard navigation, use the up/down arrow keys to select an answer. a synovial joint - freely moving b pubic symphysis - cartilaginous joint c skull sutures - amphiarthrosis d all are correctly paired

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The options which are correctly paired include synovial joint - freely moving and pubic symphysis - cartilaginous joint. Thus, the incorrect pair will be C.

What is Amphiarthrosis?


Amphiarthrosis refers to a type of joint that is slightly moveable. Whereas, the skull sutures are fibrous joints and they are immovable in nature. Thus, the skull sutures are not correctly paired with amphiarthrosis.

A synovial joint refers to a type of joint in which the bones are separated by a cavity which is filled with synovial fluid. Synovial fluid is the fluid which helps to reduce the frictional force between the bones and also nourishes the articular cartilage that covers the surfaces of the bones.

A pubic symphysis refers to the type of cartilaginous joint which connects the pubic bones of the pelvis in the body together. It is classified as a symphysis because of the presence of fibrocartilage that binds the bones together.

The skull sutures are immovable joints which bind the bones of the skull part together. They are classified as the fibrous joints and are formed by the union of connective tissue fibers present between the bones. They are important because they can help in the growth and overall development of the skull bones during the period of childhood.

Therefore, the correct option will be C.

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why is a chloroplast kept in darkness for some time prior to being fixed for electron micrscopy does not contain starch

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The reason for keeping a chloroplast in darkness for some time prior to fixation for electron microscopy is to deplete the starch content within the chloroplast.

Starch is a storage carbohydrate that accumulates in chloroplasts during the light period through photosynthesis.

By keeping the chloroplast in darkness, the plant is not actively performing photosynthesis, and therefore, the starch reserves are gradually depleted.

When preparing samples for electron microscopy, it is important to fix the chloroplasts.

If the chloroplast contains starch, it can be affected during the fixation process, leading to distortions in the final electron micrographs.

Thus, by depleting starch the chloroplast is closer to its natural state, allowing for more accurate observations and analysis under the electron microscope.

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The major mechanisms that regulate the body balances of water and many of the inorganic ions that determine the properties of the extracellular fluid are the reflexes that alter excretion via the _____

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The major mechanisms that regulate the body balances of water and many of the inorganic ions alter excretion via the kidneys.

What are reflexes?

A reflex is an automatic and immediate response to a stimulus by a muscle or gland. A reflex occurs without conscious thought or effort, allowing the body to respond swiftly to a stimulus. The reflex arc is the nerve pathway that mediates a reflex action. Because of their quickness, reflexes are essential survival mechanisms that protect the body from harm, allowing it to react quickly and effectively when danger arises.

The reflexes that alter excretion via the kidneys are the major mechanisms that regulate the body balances of water and many of the inorganic ions that determine the properties of the extracellular fluid.

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a cell with two complete sets of chromosomes is a cell.

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A cell that has two full sets of chromosomes is said to be diploid. Two full sets of chromosomes are present in a diploid cell.

The majority of human cells are diploid, with 23 chromosomal pairs totaling 46 chromosomes. This consists of a pair of sex chromosomes and 22 pairs of autosomes. Chromosomes are found in the nucleus of cells in both plants and animals, including humans.

There are 46 chromosomes in all, including 22 pairs of numbered chromosomes (autosomes) and one pair of sex chromosomes (XX or XY). DNA may be precisely duplicated during these cell divisions thanks to chromosomes. So, once more. Our cells' nuclei include chromosomes, which enable precise DNA duplication during cell division. This guarantees that our internal processes go forward.

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Correct Question:

A cell with two complete sets of chromosomes is a cell called _____.

Fungal groups and relatives Classify each description into the correct fungal group or relative. If a description applies to more than one group, place it into both groups. Have the smallest known oukaryotic genome Produce zoospores Sister group to fung Use polar tube to infect host Alternation of haploid and diploid generations Found in digestivo tracts of herbivores Blastocladiomycota Neocallimastigomycota Microsporidia

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The smallest eukaryotic genome ever discovered: Zoospore-producing microsporidia include Blastocladiomycota and Neocallimastigomycota. Sister group to fungi: Microsporidia. Microsporidia can infect a host by using a polar tube.

From where do microsporidia originate?

Microsporidia spores can be consumed or inhaled by humans, which causes microsporidiosis. According to studies, some Encephalitozoon species have been found in the urinary system of people with widespread diseases, raising the possibility of sexual transmission. The infectious form is the spore.

Which is the tiniest bacteria, virus, or fungus?

Since viruses are the smallest germs and may move through the air with a cough or sneeze, they are typically the simplest to get. Spore size, nuclear make-up, and the interaction between the organism and its host cell are characteristics of microsporidia.

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describe the four protein chains that make up the immunoglobulin monomer, and draw a typicalmonomer immunoglobulin in the box below. label the variable regions and constant regions

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Immunoglobulins (antibodies) are made up of four protein chains that make up the immunoglobulin monomer. There are two light chains and two heavy chains. These chains are connected by disulfide bonds that form Y-shaped molecules.

The immunoglobulin monomer is a single Y-shaped molecule consisting of four protein chains: two identical light chains and two identical heavy chains. Variable regions are shown in blue, and constant regions are shown in green.

The variable regions are unique to each antibody, allowing it to recognize and bind to specific antigens. The constant regions are the same in all antibodies of the same class (e.g. IgG, IgM), and they determine the functional properties of the antibody.

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motor output is guided by sensory feedback with the exception of ______ movements.

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Motor output is guided by sensory feedback with the exception of option D) ballistic movements.

For effective sensory-motor control, skeletal muscle feedback is essential. To maintain both dynamic and static muscle tone, specialized receptors in the muscle, such as muscle spindles, Golgi tendon organs, and joint feedback, give this feedback.

The spinal level of motor neurons connected to spinal reflexes receives a large portion of this sensory feedback, which is crucial for maintaining muscle tone.

Muscle contractions that reach their maximum velocities and accelerations in a brief amount of time are referred to as ballistic movement. They have rapid contraction times, great force generation, and rapid firing rates.

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Complete question is:

A) innate movements

B) unpracticed movements

C) practiced movements

D) ballistic movements

E) reflexive movements

The carotid sinus reflex protects the blood supply to the brain, whereas the aortic reflex is more concerned with maintaining adequate blood pressure in the systemic circuit as a whole: true or false

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True. The aortic reflex is more concerned with maintaining adequate blood pressure in the systemic circuit as a whole than the carotid sinus reflex.

The carotid sinus reflex is a natural protective mechanism that protects the brain's blood supply from sudden changes in blood pressure.

It involves nerve receptors known as baroreceptors that identify changes in blood pressure and transmit signals to the brain and the heart. These reflexes prevent fluctuations in blood pressure by constriction or dilation of the blood vessels.

The aortic reflex is a cardiovascular reflex that involves baroreceptors in the aortic arch. It helps to keep the blood pressure in check.

When blood pressure increases, baroreceptors in the aortic arch detect the change and send a message to the cardiovascular center in the medulla oblongata, which response by decreasing the cardiac output and dilating blood vessels to reduce peripheral resistance.

Thus, the aortic reflex is more concerned with maintaining adequate blood pressure in the systemic circuit as a whole than the carotid sinus reflex.

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there were two types of dinosaur: those such as tyrannosaurus rex that had hip structures similar to

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Yes, there were two main types of dinosaurs: Saurischian and Ornithischian. Saurischian dinosaurs, such as the Tyrannosaurus rex, had hip structures similar to modern birds, with the hip socket facing upward and inward. Ornithischian dinosaurs, however, had hip structures that faced outward and downward, like those of modern lizards.


There were two types of dinosaurs: those such as Tyrannosaurus Rex which had hip structures similar to those of modern birds and those that had hip structures like modern reptiles. The Tyrannosaurus Rex falls under the first category. The type of hip structure the dinosaurs possessed is an indication of their evolution.

Hip Structure of Dinosaurs:

Dinosaurs are classified based on their hip structures. There are two main groups: Ornithischia (bird-hipped) and Saurischia (lizard-hipped). The Ornithischia, as the name implies, have hip structures that resemble those of birds. On the other hand, the Saurischia has a hip structure that is similar to modern reptiles, such as lizards or crocodiles. Tyrannosaurus Rex and other carnivorous dinosaurs are part of the Saurischia. The long axis of the pubis bone in the Saurischia points forward. Furthermore, their thigh bones are parallel to one another, which indicates that the dinosaurs walked with their legs placed directly beneath their bodies.

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Part A Fill in the pathway of air traveling through the respiratory system after it enters the anterior nares. Drag the appropriate labels to their respective targets.

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The air travels from the Anterior Nares to the Nasal Cavity, then to the Pharynx, then to the Larynx, then to the Trachea, then to the Bronchi, then to the Bronchioles, and finally to the Alveoli.

However, here's a general pathway of air traveling through the respiratory system after it enters the anterior nares (no labels to drag): Air travels through the anterior nares (nostrils) and enters the nasal cavity.

Air is warmed, moistened, and filtered by the mucous membrane lining the nasal cavity. The air then passes through the pharynx, which is divided into three regions: the nasopharynx, the oropharynx, and the laryngopharynx.

The nasopharynx is behind the nasal cavity, the oropharynx is behind the oral cavity, and the laryngopharynx is between the hyoid bone and the esophagus and trachea.

The bronchi divide into bronchioles, which are small airways that end in air sacs called alveoli where gas exchange takes place between the air and blood vessels.

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Stomata are located on the underside of the leaf and are flanked by guard cells. These guard cells close the stomata by
Select one:
a. taking in water by osmosis due to an accumulation of K+. This results in swell of the guard cells that closes the stomata.
b. taking in water by osmosis due to a loss of K+. This results in swelling of the guard cells that close the stomata.
c. losing water by osmosis due to an accumulation of K+. This results in a shrinking of the guard cells that close the stomata.
d. losing water by osmosis due to a loss of K+. This results in a shrinking of the guard cells that close the stomata.

Answers

The answer should be D.

in a sanger sequencing reaction, deoxyribonucleotides terminate a replicating segment of dna, while dideoxyribonucleotides allow it to continue.T/F

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The statement is False. In a Sanger sequencing reaction, deoxyribonucleotides terminate a replicating segment of DNA, while dideoxyribonucleotides allow it to continue.

Deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) is a complex molecule that contains the genetic instructions used in the development and function of all living organisms. DNA is composed of four types of nucleotides: adenine, thymine, guanine, and cytosine. These nucleotides are arranged in a specific order to form a sequence that is unique to each individual organism.

The sequence of DNA is responsible for determining an organism's physical characteristics, such as eye color, hair texture, and height, as well as its susceptibility to certain diseases. DNA is located in the nucleus of a cell and is organized into structures called chromosomes. Humans have 23 pairs of chromosomes, while other organisms may have different numbers.

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The process of translation involves all of the following EXCEPT:A) charging tRNA molecules with amino acidsB) initiation directed by specific sequencesC) elongation relying on base pairingD) termination controlled by proteins recognizing stop codonsE) actually, all of these are key parts of translation

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The translation procedure entails the right choice E) Really, these are key pieces of interpretation.

The messenger RNA (ribonucleic acid) nucleotide sequence determines the primary structure of the protein during translation, a protein synthesis activity. This happens in the cytoplasm with the help of ribosomes and other cell hardware.

Charge of tRNA molecules by proteins, initiation by specific sequences, elongation by base pairing, and control of termination by proteins that recognize stop codons are all required for this process.

A messenger RNA (mRNA) is "decoded" during translation, and the information it contains is then used to construct a polypeptide, or chain of amino acids. A polypeptide is essentially a protein for most purposes, with the technical distinction being that some large proteins are composed of multiple polypeptide chains.

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coenzymes are nonprotein compounds that are required for the activity of certain enzymes. one critical coenzyme central to metabolism is nad . in fact it is one of 5 coenzymes required by______ , the critical enzyme for producing acetyl-coa. nad is synthesized from_____ as was discovered to be critical for health by two american scientists, ______ , in the early 20th century. dietary lack of this critical molecule produces pellagra, characterized by the following symptoms: _____ . people with these problems were found in parts of the u.s. where diets lacked vegetables and consisted principally of corn. interestingly, soaking the corn in ____, a common practice in mexico, releases the critical coenzyme from proteins, making it bioavailable,

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Coenzymes are nonprotein compounds that are required for the activity of certain enzymes. one critical coenzyme central to metabolism is nad . in fact it is one of 5 coenzymes required by pyruvate dehydrogenase, the critical enzyme for producing acetyl-coa. nad is synthesized from niacin (vitamin B3) as was discovered to be critical for health by two american scientists, Joseph Goldberger and Tom Spies, in the early 20th century. dietary lack of this critical molecule produces pellagra, characterized by the following symptoms: dermatitis, diarrhea, dementia, and death. people with these problems were found in parts of the u.s. where diets lacked vegetables and consisted principally of corn. interestingly, soaking the corn in alkaline, a common practice in mexico, releases the critical coenzyme from proteins, making it bioavailable,

NAD is required by pyruvate dehydrogenase. Joseph Goldberger and Tom Spies discovered niacin (vitamin B3). Symptoms of pellagra include dermatitis, diarrhea, dementia, and death. Corn is soaked in alkaline.Coenzymes are nonprotein compounds that are required for the activity of certain enzymes. One critical coenzyme central to metabolism is NAD. In fact, it is one of the 5 coenzymes required by pyruvate dehydrogenase, the critical enzyme for producing acetyl-CoA. NAD is synthesized from niacin (vitamin B3) and was discovered to be critical for health by two American scientists, Joseph Goldberger and Tom Spies, in the early 20th century. Dietary lack of this critical molecule produces pellagra, characterized by the following symptoms: dermatitis, diarrhea, dementia, and death.People with these problems were found in parts of the U.S. where diets lacked vegetables and consisted principally of corn. Interestingly, soaking corn in alkaline, a common practice in Mexico, releases the critical coenzyme from proteins, making it bioavailable.

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different types of biological macromolecules perform different functions. what type of macromolecule determines the traits a plant will inherit from its parent plants?

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The type of macromolecule that determines the traits a plant will inherit from its parent plants is DNA (deoxyribonucleic acid).

DNA is a large biological macromolecule composed of nucleotides that carry genetic information in the form of a code.

The DNA molecule contains the instructions necessary for a plant to develop and function. These instructions are passed down from parent plants to their offspring through the transmission of DNA during sexual reproduction. The specific sequence of nucleotides in the DNA molecule determines the expression of genes that code for various traits in the plant, such as height, flower color, and leaf shape.

Therefore, DNA is the biological macromolecule that ultimately determines the traits a plant will inherit from its parent plants.

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Fever inhibits bacterial growth AND speeds up the body's reactions. O enhances bacterial growth AND speeds up the body's reactions. speeds up the body's reactions AND triggers complement activation. O inhibits bacterial growth AND triggers complement activation.

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The correct statement is A. Fever inhibits bacterial growth AND speeds up the body's reactions

Fever is defined as a body temperature that is higher than normal, and it is one of the most common symptoms of sickness, it is a typical immune response in humans to infections, certain medications, or other medical conditions such as autoimmune diseases. Fever is a mechanism used by the body to protect itself by inhibiting bacterial growth and speeding up the body's reactions. Bacterial growth is inhibited by the immune system's response to an infection when a fever is present. The heat created by the fever causes the bacteria to become less stable and unable to survive, resulting in a reduction in their population size.

Fever may also interfere with bacterial reproduction by causing damage to the bacterial cell membranes, inhibiting their growth. The other given options are incorrect because: Option B, oxygen (O2) enhances bacterial growth and speeds up the body's reactions. Oxygen is needed for respiration and the growth of bacteria. Oxygen does not inhibit bacterial growth but enhances bacterial growth. Option C, speeds up the body's reactions and triggers complement activation: This statement is incorrect because fever does not activate the complement system. Option D, inhibits bacterial growth and triggers complement activation: Although the statement inhibits bacterial growth is correct, the second part of the statement is incorrect because fever does not activate the complement system.

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22. For the past 10 to 25 years, farmers have planted erop seeds that have been genctically modified spray their fields to get rid of weeds without harming their crops. Recently, more and more ers have discovered that their fields have Roundup-resistant pigweed growing along with their crop. Use what you've learned in this activity to explain how this came about. 23. Many popular products from hand soap to clothing advertise that they have antibacterial quali- ties. Most microbiologists recommend against their routine use in our daily lives. How can you explain this using your knowledge from this activity?

Answers

22. Farmers have been using the same pesticide frequently for many years, which has led to the issue of Roundup-resistant pigweed.

Only plants that are naturally resistant to the herbicide survive in this environment and pass on their resistance genes to their progeny.

This eventually creates a population of weeds that are immune to the herbicide and impossible to eradicate.

23. Advertising for antibacterial products frequently touts their ability to destroy germs, including hand soap and clothing.

However, excessive usage of these items can result in the emergence of microorganisms that are resistant to antibiotics.

This occurs when bacteria are repeatedly exposed to the same antibiotic, creating an environment where only naturally resistant germs may survive and proliferate.

This eventually creates a population of bacteria that are immune to the antibiotic and are no longer destroyed by it.

In order to prevent the development of antibiotic-resistant bacteria, microbiologists advise against using antibacterial products on a regular basis in our daily lives.

Herbicides

Pigweed resistance to Roundup is a problem brought on by farmers' excessive dependence on a single pesticide. Roundup has been used repeatedly over a long period of time as a result of the adoption of genetically modified crops that are resistant to herbicides.

Only the plants that are naturally resistant to the herbicide will survive and reproduce in this environment. The resulting population of herbicide-resistant weeds can then emerge as a result of these plants' ability to pass on their resistance genes to their progeny.

Due to this issue, Roundup is less effective, and farmers are forced to use more costly and frequently ineffective management techniques.

Anti-bacterial products

Antibacterial products are meant to kill bacteria, however, using them excessively can cause the emergence of microorganisms that are resistant to antibiotics.

Only bacteria that are naturally resistant to the antibiotic may survive and grow in an environment where that antibiotic has been used repeatedly. This can eventually result in a population of bacteria that are immune to the antibiotic and are difficult to cure.

This is a significant problem since it lessens the efficiency of antibiotics and makes it more challenging to treat bacterial infections. In order to help prevent the development of bacterial diseases, it is crucial to minimize the regular use of antibacterial products and rely on excellent hygiene practices.

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Characteristics of hydrogenated oils include all of the following EXCEPT
a. they are stored in adipose tissue.
b. they lower HDL and raise LDL cholesterol in the body.
c. some of their fatty acids change shape from cis to trans.
d. products containing them become rancid sooner, contributing to a shorter shelf life

Answers

All of the following traits apply to hydrogenated oils, with the exception that products containing them become rancid more quickly, resulting in a lower shelf life.

When oils are hydrogenated, what happens?

Hydrogen is added to oils to make them more solid or "spreadable" (a process known as hydrogenation). Although they can be sold directly as "spreads," hydrogenated oils are also utilized in the food industry to make a variety of delicacies, including biscuits and cakes.

What traits do hydrogenated oils have?

Vegetable oil that is liquid becomes a solid or semi-solid fat by hydrogenation. The FDA asserts that producers utilize hydrogenated oils to increase the shelf life, flavor stability, and texture of packaged foods. Oils that have been partially hydrogenated include trans fatty acids.

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The ____ are parasitic and infect with special cells called sporozoites. a) ciliates b) dinoflagellates c) apicomplexans d) Giardia. e) apicomplexans.

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The apicomplexans are parasitic and infect with special cells called sporozoites that is option C.

The eukaryotic protozoan parasites known as apicomplexan parasites are related to ciliates and dinoflagellates. Four decades ago, the division of Apicomplexa into Conoidasida and Aconoidasida indicated the presence or lack of a certain ring-containing apical cell structure known as the conoid.

The cell type that infects the fresh hosts is called a sporozoite. For instance, the sporozoites in Plasmodium are cells that develop in a mosquito's salivary gland, leave the insect after a blood meal, and then go to the liver cells where they proliferate. These sporozoite-infected cells eventually rupture and discharge merozoites into the circulation.

The sporozoites move by gliding, and this movement is what makes them motile. These sporozoites replicate and develop into merozoites in the liver.

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what is the margin of error in bioelectrical impedance analysis?

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The margin of error in bioelectrical impedance analysis is typically around 3-5%.

Bioelectrical impedance analysis (BIA) is a technique for determining body composition. It works by sending a small, harmless electric current through the body and measuring how quickly it passes through various tissues. This information can be used to calculate the body's muscle mass, fat mass, and water content.

Most bioelectrical impedance analysis devices have a margin of error of around 3-5%. However, this can vary depending on a variety of factors, including the device used, the person being tested, and the conditions under which the test is performed.

In general, BIA is considered to be a fairly accurate method of measuring body composition, especially when compared to other non-invasive techniques such as skinfold calipers or hydrostatic weighing.

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Click and drag the labels into the appropriate box to identify whether the function of the connective tissue component of a muscle is definite or theorized. the muscle to a Aids in elastic recoil of bone Helps the muscle function more efficienty Prevents the muscle Attaches from over stretching muscle 53.18 Surrounds the muscle Forms the calcaneal tendon Surrounds a single muscle fiber Creates extra thrust in jumping humans together Definite Function of Connective Tissue Theorized Function of Connective Tissue Prey 35 of 50

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The question is a drag and drop task, thus no answer can be provided as it requires the user to drag and drop the labels into the appropriate box to identify whether the function of the connective tissue component of a muscle is definite or theorized.

However, here is the explanation of the functions of connective tissue in a muscle: The function of connective tissue in a muscle are definite as well as theorized.

The definite function of connective tissue are as follows:

Surrounds the muscle

Forms the calcaneal tendon

Prevents the muscle from overstretching

Aids in elastic recoil of bone by attaching the muscle to a bone

Helps the muscle function more efficiently

The theorized function of connective tissue are as follows:

Surrounds a single muscle fiber

Creates extra thrust in jumping human prey together.

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Which feature unites paramecia, malarial parasites, and dinoflagellates into a single group? A. The use of cillia. B. The presence of a nucleus

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The feature that unites paramecia, malarial parasites, and dinoflagellates into a single group is the presence of a nucleus. The correct option is B.

Paramecia are single-celled microorganisms that belong to the phylum Ciliophora. They are unicellular and are characterized by the presence of cilia and two types of nuclei: micronucleus and macronucleus.Malarial parasites are the organisms that cause malaria, a disease that affects millions of people worldwide. The parasites belong to the Plasmodium species and are transmitted through the bites of infected female Anopheles mosquitoes.Dinoflagellates are a group of single-celled aquatic organisms that are characterized by two flagella, one wrapped around their waist and the other extending behind. They are photosynthetic and are found in freshwater and marine environments.Therefore, the feature that unites paramecia, malarial parasites, and dinoflagellates into a single group is the presence of a nucleus.Therefore, the correct option is 'B' the presence of a nucleus.

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although both adult stem cells and embryonic stem cells are used for research, embryonic stem cells are of particular interest among researchers. which medical advancements are possible using these stem cells? what ethical issues could arise from using embryonic cells as opposed to adult stem cells? 15px

Answers

Embryonic stem cells are more advantageous than adult stem cells in research as they can differentiate into any cell type, making them more versatile. They are of special interest to researchers because of their ability to differentiate into every type of cell in the human body.

What is the ethical issue?

Embryonic stem cells have the potential to treat a variety of illnesses, including those caused by aging, as well as genetic disorders, cancers, and traumatic injuries. They have a wide range of potential applications in the treatment of degenerative diseases, stroke, heart attack, and spinal cord injuries.

Embryonic stem cells, on the other hand, are frequently accompanied by ethical concerns. Embryonic stem cells are taken from the blastocyst stage of an embryo, which involves the destruction of the embryo. This is frequently seen as controversial since it may be viewed as destroying a human life at its earliest stages.

There are ethical issues associated with the use of embryonic stem cells since they are usually taken from unused embryos produced for in vitro fertilization. These embryos are typically discarded or frozen, and some people believe that their use for research purposes is unethical. However, supporters argue that embryonic stem cell research has the potential to save millions of lives, making it an ethical necessity.

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The expected genotypic percentage of yellow plants (CyCy) at Hardy- Weinburg equilibrium is 26.6%. However, inthe day 21 readings, the observed genotypic ratio is 11.6%. Which of the following statements is best supported by the data?
The population is evolving, and there appears to be selection against genotypie CyCy

Answers

According to the data, the statement that is best supported by the data is that the population is evolving and there seems to be selection against the genotypic CyCy.

The Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium is a genetic principle that suggests that if no other forces were involved, genotype and allele frequencies would stay constant from one generation to the next, and evolution would not occur. The principle is used to evaluate whether a population is experiencing evolutionary changes. The Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium is a mathematical relationship between the frequencies of alleles and genotypes in a population that is not evolving. It describes a theoretical population that is at equilibrium with respect to one or more gene loci and provides a baseline for estimating evolutionary forces acting on populations.

In a given population, the Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium is a good model for describing the transmission of alleles to the next generation in the absence of mutation, migration, genetic drift, or natural selection. When genetic data from a population deviate from Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium expectations, this might suggest that one or more of these evolutionary forces are acting on the population.

*Complete question: The expected genotypic percentage of yellow plants (CyCy) at Hardy- Weinburg equilibrium is 26.6%. However, in the day 21 readings, the observed genotypic ratio is 11.6%. Which of the following statements is best supported by the data?

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Which natural disaster starts over the ocean, pushes storm surges onto shore, and causes flooding?

Flood
Tornado
Hurricane
Wildfire

Answers

the answer is hurricane

what is the process where the best adapted individuals in a population survive and reproduce to pass on their traits to their offspring?

Answers

The process where the best adapted individuals in a population survive and reproduce to pass on their traits to their offspring is known as Natural Selection.

Natural selection is a mechanism of evolution in which organisms that are better adapted to their environment tend to survive and produce more offspring. The term "survival of the fittest" is often used to describe natural selection, but it can be misleading because it suggests that survival is a matter of strength or power.

However, natural selection actually favors organisms that are better suited to their environment, which may involve a variety of traits such as speed, camouflage, or the ability to survive on limited resources. The traits that are favored by natural selection are passed on to the next generation, while less advantageous traits are not.

Natural selection operates on the genetic variation that exists in a population, and the outcome of natural selection is the adaptation of organisms to their environment.

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Animals of one common phylum are NOT bilaterians but are eumetazoans. What phylum is it? A. Chordata B. Annelida C. Porifera D. Cnidaria

Answers

Animals of one common phylum are NOT bilaterians but are eumetazoans is cnidaria. The existence of cnidae in these organisms distinguishes them.

Some of these species include corals, sea anemones, jellyfish, and hydras. Asymmetrical organisms belong to the phylum Porifera. Radially symmetrical organisms are found in the phyla Cnidaria and Ctenophora. All of the following phyla, including Platyhelminthes, exhibit bilateral symmetry. Bilateral symmetry, often referred to as plane symmetry, is exhibited by 99% of all animals and is common in the majority of phyla, including Chordata, Annelida, Arthropoda, Platyzoa, Nematoda, and most Mollusca. Animals from the phyla Porifera, Cnidaria, Ctenophora, and Placozoa make up the non-bilaterian animals.

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keratin is a protein expressed in skin but not in white blood cells. how many alleles for keratin are in gametes?

Answers

In gametes, there are either one (if the person is homozygous) or two keratin genes (if the individual is heterozygous).

The number of alleles for keratin in gametes depends on the genetic makeup of the individual. Keratin is a protein that is expressed in skin cells but not in white blood cells. It is encoded by a gene that is present in the genome of an individual, and each person inherits two copies of this gene (one from each parent).

These two copies, or alleles, may be identical or different, and they determine the individual's genetic information for keratin. If both alleles are the same, the individual is homozygous for that gene. If the alleles are different, the individual is heterozygous.

During meiosis, the process by which gametes are formed, the two alleles for each gene segregate, meaning that each gamete receives only one of the two alleles.

Therefore, the number of alleles for keratin in gametes is either one (if the individual is homozygous) or two (if the individual is heterozygous).

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Describe the three different types of bipedalism. For each one, be sure to discuss the frequency of bipedal locomotion, describe the extent of bipedal adaptations, provide at least one sample primate who practices this type of bipedalism, and describe why the sample primate uses this form of bipedalism

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There are three main types of bipedalism: facultative, obligate, and facultative-obligate.

Facultative bipedalism is the most common, and it occurs when primates walk bipedally but also move around on all fours. Examples of primates with facultative bipedalism include baboons, chimpanzees, and gorillas. These primates use bipedalism as a way to transport objects, to feed, and to reach things that are otherwise out of reach.

Obligate bipedalism occurs when primates move around on two legs only and do not move around on all fours. Humans are a classic example of obligate bipedalism, as we are almost exclusively bipedal when we move around. Other primates who exhibit obligate bipedalism include macaques, vervets, and lorises. They use bipedalism to navigate through dense forests, which is helpful for accessing fruits and other resources in the treetops.

Finally, facultative-obligate bipedalism occurs when primates occasionally move around on all fours and at other times move around on two legs only. Gibbons and siamangs are examples of primates who exhibit facultative-obligate bipedalism. They use bipedalism as a way to move quickly between trees, and they use all fours when they are climbing.

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Mendelian ratios are modified in crosses involving autotetraploids.
Assume that one plant expresses the dominant trait green seeds and is homozygous (WWWW). This plant is crossed to one with white seeds that is also homozygous (wwww).
1. If only one dominant allele is sufficient to produce green seeds, predict the F1 phenotypic ratio of such a cross. Assume that synapsis between chromosome pairs is random during meiosis.
2.Predict the phenotypic ratio of the F2 generation.
____ green : ____ white
3. Having correctly established the F2 ratio in Part B, now predict the F2 phenotypic ratio of a "dihybrid" cross involving two independently assorting genes, A and W, for this cross.
WWWWAAAA x wwwwaaaa
The F2 ratio would be:
____ dominant W and dominant A individuals :
____ dominant W and recessive a individuals :
____ recessive w and dominant A individuals :
____ recessive w and recessive a individuals

Answers

Phenotypic ratio of F1 is 4:0 (green: white seeds). Phenotypic ratio of F2 is 9:7 (green: white seeds). Phenotypic ratio of F2 of dihybrid cross = 9:3:3:1.

What is the phenotypic ratio?

The F1 phenotypic ratio will be all green seeds, as only one dominant allele is sufficient to produce green seeds. This will result in a phenotypic ratio of 4:0 green: white seeds.

F2 Phenotypic ratio for the F2 generation, we will get a phenotypic ratio of 9:7 green: white seeds.

Parents- WWWW x A genotype produces all WAWA gametes, while wwww produces all wawa gametes. On crossing these parents, hybrid produced will be:

WWAW x wawA

Offspring genotypes: WWAW – green, WWAw – green, WwAW – green, WwAw – green, WWaA – green, WwaA – green, Wwaa – white, wwAW – white, wwAw – white, wwaA – white, wwaa – white.

F2 Phenotypic ratio of a dihybrid cross, the ratios are as follows

Parents - WWWWAAAA x wwwwaaaa

The possible gametes from the WWAW genotype are WAWA, WAWa, WaWA, and WaWa. The wawa genotype produces only wawa gametes. The multiplication of these two results in the following:

WWAW x wawa = WAWAaWAWa x wawa = WAWaaWaWA x wawa = WaWAWawa x wawa = WaWaWaAW x wawa = WawaAaWaAw x wawa = Wawaa waWA x wawa = waWAwawa x wawa = wawa

The phenotypic ratio will be the same as the F2 generation’s phenotypic ratio, which is 9:7 green: white seeds.

The F2 ratio would be 9 dominant W and dominant A individuals: 3 dominant W and recessive a individuals: 3 recessive w and dominant A individuals: 1 recessive w and recessive a individuals.

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