Which of these is a commonly abused prescription?opiate pain relieversheroinecstasymotion sickness pills

Answers

Answer 1

Pain reliever is a commonly abused prescription.

An analgesic drug, also known as a pain reliever or painkiller, is any member of the class of drugs used to alleviate pain (that is, analgesia or pain management). It is commonly used to elicit cooperation for a medical procedure. Although analgesia and anesthesia are neurophysiologically overlapping and thus various drugs have both analgesic and anesthetic effects, analgesics are conceptually distinct from anesthetics, which temporarily reduce, and in some cases eliminate, sensation.

The type of pain also influences analgesic selection: Traditional analgesics are less effective for neuropathic pain, and there is often benefit from classes of drugs that are not normally considered analgesics, such as tricyclic antidepressants and anticonvulsants.

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Related Questions

treatment for increased intracranial pressure includes all of the following except which technique? pilbeams

Answers

Answer: Intracranial pressure (ICP) is the pressure exerted by fluids such as cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) inside the skull and on the brain tissue. ICP is measured in millimeters of mercury (mmHg) and at rest, is normally 7–15 mmHg for a supine adult.[1] The body has various mechanisms by which it keeps the ICP stable, with CSF pressures varying by about 1 mmHg in normal adults through shifts in production and absorption of CSF.

Explanation:

Giovanni abuses cocaine; Hans has a dog phobia. ... The individual in the film appears to gain pleasure from these activities.

Answers

Giovanni abuses cocaine Hans has a dog phobia Giovanni has aversive conditioning; Hans has systematic desensitization.

Desensitization is a psychological manner by which a reaction is again and again elicited in conditions where the movement tendency that arises out of the emotion proves to be inappropriate.

Cynophobia is the overwhelming fear of dogs. people with this tension disease feel excessive worry and tension when they reflect onconsideration on, see or stumble upon a canine. In excessive instances, this phobia can motivate human beings to keep away from places wherein puppies are probably.

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True or False: Research shows that eating disorders are more common when the family environment is negative, with possible history of child abuse or neglect, or exposure to high parental expectations.

Answers

According to research, eating disorders are more prevalent in families with a poor home environment, a history of child abuse or neglect, or exposure to excessive parental expectations.

A mental illness known as an eating disorder is characterized by abnormal eating habits that are harmful to a person's physical or mental health. At any given time, only one eating problem can be identified. Anorexia nervosa, where the person severely fears gaining weight and restricts food or over-exercises to manage this fear, binge eating disorder, where the patient eats a large quantity in a short period of time, bulimia nervosa, where individuals eat a large quantity (binging), then try to rid themselves of the food (purging); A group of other specified feeding or eating disorders includes pica, in which the patient consumes non-food items, rumination syndrome, in which the patient regurgitates undigested or barely digested food, avoidant/restrictive food intake disorder (ARFID), in which people restrict their intake of certain foods due to psychological issues, and others. Eating disorder sufferers frequently struggle with anxiety problems, depression, and substance misuse. Obesity is excluded from this list of disorders. Comorbidity, or co-occurrence, of an eating disorder and OCD, is common. According to estimates, 20–60% of ED patients have a history of OCD.

As a result, the assertion is accurate.

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An individual who poses a threat to the safety of his or her family, friends, or the AEMT is experiencing a/an:

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An individual who poses a threat to the safety of his or her family, friends, or the AEMT is experiencing a psychiatric emergency.

As determined by the patient, family, or social unit, psychiatric emergencies are sudden changes in thought, behavior, mood, or social interaction that call for emergency treatment to protect the patient and/or others from a life-threatening situation.

The symptoms of a behavioral emergency include extreme agitation, threatening to harm yourself or others, yelling or screaming, lashing out, irrational thoughts, throwing objects and other volatile behavior.

The most prevalent emergency situations are severe self-neglect, self-harm, depressive or manic episodes, aggressive psychomotor agitation, severely impaired judgment, intoxication, or withdrawal from psychoactive substances.

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sally goes to a specialist to check her bmi. the specialist has sally lay down and releases small-doses of radiation to accurately measure her fat, bone density, and muscle. which method of assessing body fatness is sally undergoing? question 6 options: dual energy x-ray absorptiometry measuring waist circumference underwater weighing bod pod

Answers

Dual energy x-ray absorptiometry is the method of assessing body fatness which sally is undergoing.

Spectral imaging is used in dual-energy X-ray absorptiometry (DXA, or DEXA), which calculates bone mineral density (BMD). Two different-energy X-ray beams are pointed at the patient's bones. The bone mineral density (BMD) can be calculated from the absorption of each beam by bone after soft tissue absorption is removed. The most often used and extensively researched method of determining bone density is dual-energy X-ray absorptiometry.

In contrast to the nuclear bone scan, which is sensitive to some metabolic illnesses of the bones in which bones are trying to mend from infections, fractures, or tumours, the DXA scan is primarily used to diagnose and monitor osteoporosis. It is occasionally used to determine body composition.

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A nurse is caring for a client who has Addisons' disease and is at risk for Addisonian crisis. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?a.) Provide a low-carbohydrate dietb.) Weigh the client dailyc.) Administer oral corticosteroidsd.) Restrict fluid intake

Answers

An Addison's disease patient who may experience an Addisonian crisis is being evaluated by a nurse. The client should be weighed regularly by the nurse.

Weight loss, muscle weakness, exhaustion, low blood pressure, and skin hyperpigmentation (darkening) are all symptoms of Addison's disease, an endocrine illness. Finding out the client's daily weight will let the nurse know if dehydration is taking hold, which could signal a crisis on the horizon. It happens when the adrenal glands do not produce sufficient amounts of the hormones cortisol and, occasionally, aldosterone. Weight loss, muscle weakness, exhaustion, low blood pressure, and hyperpigmentation (darkening) of the skin in both exposed and non-exposed areas of the body are symptoms of the disease. Hormone therapy and diet are the mainstays of Addison's disease treatment.

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Please help #5; The timing of death and the centrality of the person who has died are important factors for the impact on family members.
T or F

Answers

True - The timing of death and the centrality of the person who has died are important factors for the impact on family members.

What is Psychological effects?

The death of a family member can have a deep psychological impact on individuals. Depending on the individual's relationship with the deceased, they may experience a variety of emotions, such as grief, sadness, guilt, anger, denial, or depression. In some cases, the person may even experience physical symptoms, such as headaches, nausea, or muscle tension. The death of a family member can also lead to feelings of isolation, loneliness, and emptiness. Over time, bereaved individuals may also struggle with anxiety and difficulty concentrating. There are a few things people can do to help cope with the psychological effects of death in the family, such as seeking counseling, attending support groups, engaging in self-care activities, and participating in activities to remember the loved one.

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Which statement best describes how physical activity impacts national health care costs?
O
Physical activity includes household chores, which saves on expenses for cleaning, cooking,
and laundry.
O
Physical activity has little effect on chronic disease, which means health care costs are not
affected.
Physical activity increases health care costs due to an increased number of orthopedic
injuries.
O Physical activity helps prevent chronic illness, which reduces the need for medical treatment.
O

Answers

Answer:

Physical activity helps prevent chronic illness,which reduces the need for medical treatment.

Explanation:

Physical activity reduces the risk of a number of chronic illness like hypertension and diabetes

A women who is 22 weeks pregnant is feeling pretty well but has a sore back and body aches. What is most likely happening with the fetus developing in her uterus

Answers

Formation of hair and eyelashes

Drag each label to the correct location on the table.
Identify the first and second line of defense.
fever
First Line of Defense
skin saliva
tears
Second Line of Defense
natural killer cells
inflammatory response

Answers

first line of defense are innate- surface barriers- skin and mucous membranessecond line of defense are innate- internal defenses- phagoctes,natural killer cells, inflammation, antimicrobial proteins, fever.

What is the 2nd line of defense?A collection of cells, tissues, and organs that cooperate to defend the organism makes up the second line of defense. Immune system looks like this. The second line of defenses includes inflammation, fever, phagocytosis, interferon, and complement.White blood cells are transported to the appropriate locations throughout the body as the heart pumps blood there. White blood cells are in the bloodstream and rely on the heart's pumping motion to travel to various parts of the body where they can fight an infection.first line of defense are innate- surface barriers- skin and mucous membranessecond line of defense are innate- internal defenses- phagoctes,natural killer cells, inflammation, antimicrobial proteins, fever.

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To ensure rapid weight gain and correct nutrient deficiencies, children suffering from uncomplicated, but severe, acute malnutrition may be given ________ .

Answers

Children with simple but severe acute malnutrition may be given ready-to-use therapeutic food to guarantee quick weight gain and repair nutritional deficits.

Any underlying problems that the children with malnutrition may have must be treated, and the key nutrients that malnutrition results from must be replaced. A better, more balanced diet might enhance the likelihood of quick weight gain. Dietary adjustments and supplements are the major treatments for malnutrition. Because fortified foods contain more nutrients, they can also aid in the treatment of disorders linked to malnutrition.

1. Eat lots of fruits and vegetables to avoid malnutrition

2. Make sure the diet contains enough of starchy foods like bread, rice, potatoes, milk, and certain everyday items.

Complete question:To ensure rapid weight gain and correct nutrient deficiencies, children suffering from uncomplicated, but severe, acute malnutrition may be given ____.

a. oral rehydration therapy

b. extra helpings of common local foods

c. large amounts of any food that is available

d. organ meats such as liver

e. ready-to-use therapeutic food

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an individual with a major neurocognitive disorder may experience , a failure to identify people or objects that were previously familiar.

Answers

Agnosia, or the inability to recognize individuals or things that were once familiar, can be experienced by someone who has a serious neurocognitive disease.

The neurocognitive disorders are a group of diagnoses that includes major neurocognitive disorder. Mild and major neurocognitive disorders are included in the category of mental diseases known as neurocognitive disorders. One of the main differences between major and mild neurocognitive disorders is that people with major neurocognitive disorders experience a significant decline in function, including a loss of independence, as a result of profound cognitive impairment, whereas people with mild neurocognitive disorders only experience a modest decline in cognition and, as a result, function relatively independently.

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True or False: The DASH diet emphasizes fruits, vegetables, whole grains, and fat-free or low-fat milk and milk products.

Answers

True!!
I'm 99% sure this is right
:)

Answer: it's very true, just look it up.

Explanation:

Nikko is a pre-school teacher. He loves to have his students do balance exercise as part of their fitness program. The kids really enjoy them, but his supervisor asks him why he is giving such young children this exercise. What is the BEST response to Nikko's supervisor?
A. Balance is great for coordination and reaction times.
B. Any time that preschoolers are exercising, it is a good thing.
C. Balance exercise require a lot of extra equipment, but it's worth it.
D. Younger children are the age group that most need to develop balance.

Answers

Answer:

A. Balance is great for coordination and reaction times.

Explanation:

Just did the quiz.

The best response for Nikko to give to his supervisor is: "Balance is great for coordination and reaction times."

What is balance exercise?

Balance exercise can be beneficial for children of all ages, including preschoolers. It helps to improve coordination, balance, and reaction times, which can be important for a child's physical development and overall physical fitness. In addition, balance exercise can also help improve focus and concentration, as well as confidence and self-esteem. While any type of exercise is generally a good thing for preschoolers, balance exercises can be particularly beneficial for this age group.

Therefore, The best response for Nikko to give to his supervisor is: "Balance is great for coordination and reaction times."

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a 25-year-old woman with a history of systemic lupus erythematosus presents with diffuse petechiae and fatigue. physical examination demonstrates lymphadenopathy and

Answers

The most likely mechanism for thrombocytopenia in a patient with a history of systemic lupus erythematosus is: Antibody-mediated platelet destruction.

Thrombocytopenia is the condition where the platelet count of the body becomes very low. The condition may arise due to some disease, due to pregnancy, or a side effect of some medication. Platelets are the blood cells that help in the clotting of blood in the injured or wounded body part.

Antibody is a immune system component formed in the case when the body becomes infected by pathogens. The antibody recognizes these pathogens and aids in their destruction. Antibody is proteinaceous in nature.

The given question is incomplete, the complete question is:

A 25-year-old woman with a history of systemic lupus erythematosus presents with diffuse petechiae and fatigue. Physical examination demonstrates lymphadenopathy and splenomegaly. Laboratory findings include normocytic anemia (hemoglobin = 6.1 g/dL) and thrombocytopenia (30,000/mL). What is the most likely underlying mechanism in the development of thrombocytopenia in this patient?

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as many as ____ percent of all men with severe depression experience some degree of erectile dysfunction.

Answers

As many as 52 percent of all men with severe depression experience some degree of erectile dysfunction.

Erectile dysfunction, additionally referred to as impotence, is outlined by problem obtaining and keeping an erection. It are often an embarrassing factor to speak concerning. It has been reportable that over half men between the ages of forty and seventy expertise some sort of impotence.

Depression could be a common disturbance. Globally, it's computable that fifty of adults suffer from the disorder. It's characterized by persistent disappointment ANd an absence of interest or pleasure in previously profitable or enjoyable activities. it should conjointly disturb sleep and craving.

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to cause cancer, proto-oncogenes require 1 (or) 2 allele(s) to be mutated and are therefore considered dominant (or) recessive. this results in of function.

Answers

To cause cancer, proto-oncogenes require both alleles to be mutated and therefore are considered dominant. The mutation results in a gain of function.

Several protein-controlled feedback systems regulate the cell cycle. Kinases and cyclins are two classes of proteins that regulate the cell cycle. By attaching to kinases, cyclins selectively activate cyclin-dependent kinases (CDK). A phosphate group from ATP is transferred from one molecule in a cell to another by kinases, which are enzymes. They act as a control switch in many cellular processes, controlling other cellular processes and turning a function on or off. They frequently play a part in starting a chain of events. At crucial points in the cell cycle, a group of proteins known as cyclins are created quickly. Following cyclin activation, CDK enzymes phosphorylate additional target molecules to either activate or inactivate them.

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alzheimer's disease that begins in middle age progresses more slowly than later-onset alzheimer's disease.

Answers

It is false that alzheimer's disease that begins in middle age progresses more slowly than later-onset alzheimer's disease.

Alzheimer's disease is a progressive medicine disorder that causes the brain to shrink (atrophy) and brain cells to die. dementedness} is that the commonest reason behind dementia — never-ending decline in thinking, behavioural and social skills that affects somebody's ability to perform severally. Alzheimer's is assumed to be caused by the abnormal build-up of proteins in and around brain cells.

Alzheimer's that begins in middle age between somebody's 30s and mid-60s and is incredibly rare. Dementia is that the commonest reason behind dementia among older adults. Share this infographic and facilitate unfold the word regarding understanding differing types of insanity.

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TRUE/FALSE. In order for sound to reach the spiral organ (of Corti), the auditory ossicles must vibrate the oval window and set the perilymph and endolymph in motion.

Answers

In order for sound to reach the spiral organ (of Corti), the auditory ossicles must vibrate the oval window and set the perilymph and endolymph in motion. This statement is true.

The auditory ossicles must shake the oval window and activate the perilymph and endolymph for sound to reach the spiral organ (of Corti). The semicircular ducts wouldn't work if the cristae ampullares weren't functional. The spiral ear organ's hair cells are never regenerated.

One of the two kinds of fluid in the inner ear—the other is endolymph—is perilymph. It encircles the bony labyrinth's membranous labyrinth. Scala vestibuli and scala tympani house the cochlea's internal part.

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remy often exhibits no remorse for his actions, such as physically hurting or manipulating other people, so he doesn't think he has a problem. remy's behavior is atypical. this illustrates the weakness of using as a method of distinguishing abnormal and normal. deviation from social norms personal distress infrequency impairment in daily functioning

Answers

Remy exhibits no remorse for actions like physically hurting or manipulating other people, so he doesn't think he has a problem. This is a atypical problem. This illustrates the weakness of using personal distress as a method of distinguishing abnormal and normal.

Remorse is the feeling of guilt or sadness when one does something wrong (especially to someone else). A person who exhibits remorse feels sorry for the wrong action done by him/her.

Personal distress is the psychological emotional reaction when a person is distressed, discomforted and feels anxiety all at the same time due to the problem of some other person. Personal distress is a self-oriented feeling.

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Question 6
While cocarcinogens and tumor promoters in cigarette smoke are well established, they are not
carcinogenic and clearly enhance the carcinogenicity of cigarette smoke carcinogens through
mechanisms that usually lead to
A. apoptosis
B. stimulation of cell proliferation
C. promotion of hypomethylation
D. oxidative damage

Answers

Cocarcinogens and tumor promoters in cigarette smoke are well established as not being carcinogenic but they clearly enhance the carcinogenicity of cigarette smoke carcinogens through mechanisms that usually lead to stimulation of cell proliferation which is therefore denoted as option B.

What is a Carcinogen?

This is referred to as a substance, organism or agent which is capable of causing cancer.

An example of this type of substance is cigarette smoke or a radioactive element which alters the DNA and stimulates cell proliferation and this means the growth or production of cells by multiplication of parts and is therefore the reason why it was chosen as the correct choice.

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it is important that women of child-bearing age are up to date on all of their vaccines, because if a woman is not immunized prior to pregnancy then this infection can cause miscarriage or defects in the development of the fetal heart, brain, and eyes, and also lead to deafness in the newborn. question 4 options: chicken pox mumps poliomyelitis rubella or german measles

Answers

Rubella is very dangerous for a pregnant woman and her developing baby.

What is meant by rubella?A virus causes rubella, a contagious illness.A low-grade fever, a sore throat, and a rash that begins on the face and spreads to the rest of the body are common signs of rubella infection. Latin roots, which translate to "little red," are the source of the term rubella. At first, measles or scarlet fever were believed to be variations of rubella. The term "German measles" came into general usage in 1814, the year that it was first identified as a distinct illness in German medical literature.Those who get rubella while pregnant run the danger of miscarriage or stillbirth, as well as serious birth abnormalities that might have devastating, lasting effects on the unborn child.The developing baby's body can be impacted by CRS practically everywhere.

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What should not be used as a sanitizer?

Answers

Due to its hazardous properties, methanol is not a suitable ingredient for hand sanitizers and should not be used. The FDA is still looking into the presence of methanol in some hand sanitizers. The organization will release further details as they become available.

The FDA singled out nine products made by the Mexican company Eskbiochem SA de CV, but it did not specify where in the United States the products were sold. The items are:

*Esk of All-Clean Hand Sanitizer Biochem Sanitizer for Hands

*75% Alcohol Clean Care No Germ Advanced Hand Sanitizer

*Gel hand sanitizer Lavar 70

*Clean Care No Germ Advanced Hand Sanitizer 80% Alcohol The Good Gel Antibacterial Gel Hand Sanitizer

*75% Alcohol Clean Care No Germ Advanced Hand Sanitizer

*80% Alcohol Clean Care No Germ Advanced Hand Sanitizer

*Advanced Saniderm Hand Sanitizer

The FDA stated in a statement on Friday that when researchers tested two of the products, Lavar Gel and ClearCare No Germ, they found methanol. However, they made a point of saying that they were not aware of any reports of the items having any unfavourable responses.

Methanol has no safe concentration in hand sanitizer. According to the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention, it can cause skin irritation and, if consumed, can result in a variety of issues such as headache, dizziness, impaired vision, kidney failure, coma, and death.

Products containing methanol can be damaging when applied to the hands, but they are particularly hazardous when consumed. The greatest risk is to young children who unintentionally swallow the product and to teens or adults who use it as an alcohol replacement.

According to a study published in April by the CDC, calls to American poison control centres about cleaning products increased in the early stages of the pandemic. Numerous calls included young children, and one had a preschool-aged girl who drank from a bottle of hand sanitizer before falling and hitting her skull.

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Studies cited in the text that were looking at the possible hormonal explanations for gay, lesbian, and bisexual orientations focused on all of the following except ________.
a. index/ring finger ratio
b. the older brother effect
c. exposure to DES
d. spinal column length

Answers

Studies cited in the text that were looking at the possible hormonal explanations for ga_y, les_bian, and bisexual orientations focused on all of the following except spinal column length.

Option D is correct.

What Is Sexual Orientation?

Sexual orientation is described  to as a person's pattern of emotional, romantic, and sexual attraction to people of a particular gender (male or female).

Sexuality plays  an important part of who we are as humans. Aside from the ability to reproduce, sexuality also defines how we see ourselves and how we physically relate to others.

Sexual orientation is usually divided into these categories:

Heterosexual: Attracted to people of the opposite gender

Bisexual: Attracted to people of either gender

Homosexual: Attracted to people of one's own gender

Pansexual: Attracted to people of any gender identity

Asexual: Not sexually attracted to other people.

From the study cited in the text, bisexual orientations focused on all of the following

a. index/ring finger ratio

b. the older brother effect

c. exposure to DES

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What are the best ways to avoid getting sick?
A. wash your hands
B. shake a persons hand
c. stand by a person coughing not covering there mouth

Answers

Answer: Wash your hands.

Explanation: Washing your hands is key to avoiding getting sick because it removes bacteria and any gross germs attached to your skin.  If you wash them properly, you should be able to avoid getting sick.

Let me know if this is right! :)

(A)nswer:

Explanation:

correlations between a person's preferences ratings for personality characteristics in a mate and ratings of the mate's personality characteristics measured across different sources of data are group of answer choices

Answers

Correlations between a person's preferences ratings for personality characteristics in a mate and ratings of the mate's personality characteristics measured across different sources of data are moderately positive. Thus, the correct option is B.

What is Personality trait and mate preference?

Personality traits reflect the people's characteristic patterns of thoughts, feelings, and behaviors of a person. Personality traits imply consistency and stability in someone who scores high on a specific trait like extraversion which is expected to be sociable in different situations and over the different time periods.

Mate choice is an important cause of the sexual selection in a species. It can drive the evolution of the extravagant ornaments and displays, and it also promotes speciation that is the development of new species through the reproductive isolation which is generated by rapid divergence of sexual traits in a population.

Therefore, the correct option is B.

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Your question is incomplete, most probably the complete question is:

Correlations between a person's preferences ratings for personality characteristics in a mate and ratings of the mate's personality characteristics measured across different sources of data are:

A. weakly positive.

B. moderately positive

C. weakly negative.

D. close to zero.

Prevention techniques to lower risk of disease include (select all that apply) Select 6 correct answer(s)


Adopt a healthy lifestyle

Preventive screenings & Self-examinations


Genetic Testing


Keep your immune system healthy


Eating fast food


Practice good hygiene



Get vaccinations​

Answers

If these are your only options and you HAVE to choose 6, here are the answers.

If you can choose less than 6, I suggest only the first 4-5.

1. Adopt a Healthy Lifestyle
2. Keep your immune system healthy
3. Practice good hygiene
4. Get vaccinations
5. Preventative screenings and Self-examinations
6. Genetic Testing

All options are correct EXCEPT "eating fast food".

Write Jordan a letter in English comparing Mexican culture and American culture in a minimum of ten descriptive sentences

Answers

A letter comparing Mexican culture and American culture is that American culture combines many more cultures due to significant immigration from every major continent.

What is Culture?

This is referred to as a way of life of a group of people and it encompasses the social behavior, institutions etc. It is also represented by how they dress, their language etc and it varies all over the world.

Mexican culture is unique because it is a combination of Spanish culture and that of the indigenous people of Mexico while American culture combines many more cultures due to the high immigration of people from different parts of the world.

There is also greater religious diversity in America leading to secularism being dominant in America while Mexican religion isn't diverse thereby making it the correct descriptive points.

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Answer:

Hola Jordan

It's so cool that you get to visit Mexico. I found some very interesting things about living there. Did you know that Mexico has a sport for bull fighting? They also have big parades and festivals. They have traditions like clay pottery and basket weaving.

Some things in Mexico can be very different from how you or I live in the United States. For example there food is different from ours. They have Tacos, Tamales, posole and many other delicious meals. The Mexico flags colors are red, green and white while the US's flag is Red, White and blue. In Mexico the people speak Spanish and not English.

Otherwise, just like my family and I, we do many things the same. For example we eat some on the same food like tacos and such. We celebrate cinco de mayo. And we all speak some of the Spanish Language.

Have a great trip! Bring me back a souvenir!

Saludos,

Explanation:

Hope this helps :)

from the time that children are born through adolescence, a family is in the stage. question 10 options: independence parenting launching

Answers

The correct answer is "Parenting" as from the time that a children are born then through adolescence,

Parenting is the process of raising and educating a child from birth or infancy until adulthood. It includes emotional, social, and physical development, as well as providing guidance and support to the child in order to help them reach their full potential. Parenting requires a great deal of patience, understanding, and love. It also involves setting and enforcing boundaries, encouraging Positive reinforcement, and teaching the child important life skills. Parenting styles vary widely among families, cultures, and religions, and the effectiveness of parenting is greatly influenced by the child’s personality, environment, and individual needs. Good parenting is an important factor in a child’s life, as it can help shape the child’s behavior, values, and relationships with others.

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T/F The person-centered approach is based on a set of specific therapeutic techniques designed to promote behavior change. FALSE.

Answers

False. The person-centered approach is based on a set of core principles and attitudes, not specific therapeutic techniques.

Cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT) is a type of psychotherapy that focuses on identifying and changing maladaptive thoughts and behaviors. CBT involves examining how a person's thoughts, feelings, and behaviors are connected and how they affect one another. The goal of CBT is to help the person identify and modify irrational thoughts and behaviors to more adaptive and healthier ones. This is done through a variety of techniques such as cognitive restructuring, exposure therapy, and problem-solving. Cognitive restructuring involves identifying and challenging irrational beliefs and replacing them with more realistic and balanced ones. Exposure therapy helps the person confront fears and anxieties by gradually exposing them to the situation or object that triggers them. Problem-solving helps the person develop strategies to cope with and manage challenging situations. CBT is often used to treat a wide range of mental health disorders such as anxiety, depression, and eating disorders.

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Other Questions
Traits exhibiting simple dominant or recessive inheritance are controlled by the expression of _____ set(s) of allelescodominanceOneinvariantheterozygotehomozygote Find the perimeter of the triangle XYZ with verticles X (1, 3) , Y(-4, -1) and Z(4, -1). Round your answer to two decimal places Check the binomial distribution to see whether it can be approximated by the normal distribution. Round p and q to 1 decimal place, as needed. n = 95 P = 0.96 9 -0.04 np - and ng Is a normal approximation appropriate ? Yes No tom gunning's label for early cinema, and tendencies that continue in avant-garde and special effects cinema, is the TRUE OR FALSE threats made early in a negotiation are more effective when made explicitly and threats made late in the negotiation are more effective when they are implicit. fILL IN THE BLANK. dr. potter is retiring as a veterinarian in private practice. he wants to start a(n) ___ , vets on the go, that will provide low-income individuals with pets in the united states with veterinary assistance at no cost. 5.11.5 Configure Rogue Host ProtectionYou are a network technician for a small corporate network. You would like to take advantage of the self healing features provided by the small enterprise wireless solution you have implemented. You are already logged in as WxAdmin on the Wireless Controller console from ITAdmin.In this lab, your task is to perform the following: Configure self healing on the wireless network.o Automatically adjust AP radio power to optimize coverage when interference is present.o Set 2.4GHz and 5GHz radio channels to use the Background Scanning method to adjust for interference. Configure the background scanning needed for rogue device detection, AP locationing, and self healing. Background scans should be performed on all radios every 30 seconds. Configure load balancing for all radios by adjusting the threshold to 40dB. Configure band balancing to allow no more than 30% of clients to use the 2.4GHz radios. Reduce the power levels to -3dB for three access points in Building A to reduce RF emanations. Use the wireless survey results in the exhibit to identify the access points.The amount to reduce TX Power by is a judgment call based on the wireless survey results. In practice, you would repeat the wireless survey to verify the proper TX Power settings.Task SummaryConfigure Self Healing Hide DetailsAutomatically adjust AP radio powerUse Background Scanning on 2.4GHz channelsUse Background Scanning on 5GHz channelsConfigure Background Scanning Hide DetailsRun a background scan every 30 seconds on the 2.4GHz radioRun a background scan every 30 seconds on the 2.4GHz radioConfigure Load Balancing Hide DetailsRun load balancing on the 2.4GHz radio with a 40dB thresholdRun load balancing on the 5GHz radio with a 40dB thresholdConfigure Band Balancing for 30% on 2.4GHzAdjust the AP Power Level Hide DetailsReduce 2.4GHz Radio Transmit power in Center AP by 1 to 3dbReduce 5GHz Radio Transmit power in Center AP by 1 to 3dbReduce 2.4GHz Radio Transmit power in East AP by 1 to 3dbReduce 5GHz Radio Transmit power in East AP by 1 to 3dbReduce 2.4GHz Radio Transmit power in West AP by 1 to 3dbReduce 5GHz Radio Transmit power in West AP by 1 to 3dbExplanationIn this lab, you perform the following: Configure self healing on the wireless network.o Automatically adjust AP radio power to optimize coverage when interference is present.o Set 2.4GHz and 5GHz radio channels to use the Background Scanning method to adjust for interference. Configure background scanning necessary for rogue device detection, AP locationing, and self healing. Background scans should be performed on all radios every 30 seconds. Configure load balancing for all radios by adjusting the threshold to 40dB. Configure band balancing to allow no more than 30% of clients to use the 2.4GHz radios. Reduce the power levels to -3dB for three access points in Building A to reduce RF emanations. Use the wireless survey results in the exhibit to identify the access points.Configure your wireless access points as follows:1. Configure Self Healing as follows:a. From the top, select the Configure tab.b. From the left menu, select Services.c. Select Automatically adjust AP radio power to optimize coverage when interference is present.d. Under Automatically adjust 2.4GHz channels using, select Background Scanning from the drop-down menu.e. Under Automatically adjust 5GHz channels using, select Background Scanning from the drop-down menu.f. On the right, click Apply.2. Configure Background Scanning as follows:o Select Run a background scan on 2.4GHz radio.o Enter 30 seconds.o Select Run a background scan on 5GHz radio.o Enter 30 seconds.o On the right, click Apply.3. Configure Load Balancing as follows:o Select Run load balancing on 2.4GHz radio.o In the Adjacent radio threshold(dB) field, enter 40.o Select Run load balancing on 5GHz radio.o In the Adjacent radio threshold(dB) field, enter 40.o On the right, select Apply.4. Configure Band Balancing as follows:. Select Percent of clients on 2.4GHz radio.a. Enter the percentage.b. On the right, click Apply.5. Adjust the AP Power Level as follows:. From the left menu, select Access Points.a. From the top right, select Exhibit to determine which access points to adjust.b. Select Edit next to the access point to be modified.c. Under Radio B/G/N(2.4G) next to TX Power, make sure Override Group Config is selected.d. From the TX Power drop-down list, select -3dB (1/2).e. Under Radio A/N/AC(5G) next to TX Power, make sure Override Group Config is selected.f. From the TX Power drop-down list, select -3dB (1/2).g. Click OK.h. Repeat steps 6b - 6f for additional access points. You are given a dataset on movie reviews with a 1,000 labeled reviews. The labels are one of five movie genres: Action, Comedy, Drama, Horror, and Sci-Fi. The dataset has roughly 200 movie reviews for each movie genre.Your first task is to learn a supervised classifier to identify just the reviews for Comedy movies from the dataset. Such a task is: a series lr circuit consists of a 2.0-h inductor with negligible internal resistance, a 100-ohm resistor, an open switch, and a 9.0-v ideal power source. after the switch is closed, what is the maximum power delivered by the power supply? group of answer choices 81 w 0.40 w 8.1 w 0.81 w 0.090 w Interpret parts of the algebraic expression to describe the real-world scenario.The value of a comic book in dollars has been found to be 0.20y + 1.50, where y is the number of years since it was released.By how much is the value of the comic increasing per year?How much was the initial value of the comic? Arcade tokens and game tickets only have value because they are able to be exchanged for prizes in the arcade. This makes them - Answer F representative money G commodity money H fiat money J currency Can I get some help with this? Post-AssessmentQuestion 2 of 5Why is buying a car considered "bad debt"?It decreases in value over timeIt increases your net worth as it build equityIt gives you transportation to and from your jobIt is worth more than any other investmentSubmitContinueE Which quantity is multiplied by pi in the formula for the area of a circle? how much consumer surplus will be derived from the purchase of this product at the monopolistically competitive price? help fast Which products are the result of a reaction between potassium fluoride, KF, and sodium hydroxide, NaOH?KNa and FOHKOH and NaFNa and KFOHK and FNaOH Andy was recently diagnosed with schizophrenia. His family has learned the major symptoms of this disorder. Which of these is NOT one of those major symptoms? Groups of students who share ________ characteristics tend to do better at losing weight and keeping it off than do groups of dissimilar students. amazon has built capabilities around internet technology and e-commerce to facilitate information exchanges with its customers in a cost-effective manner. this represents which of the following service dimension? a. reach b. affiliation c. none of the these is correct. d. richness In a study Gardner and Steinberg (2005) people were tested on a computer driving task in which they faced a decision about whether to stop or go through yellow lights and risk being hit by another car. Adolescents, college students and adults were tested. Each group tested with and without peers present in the room. when peers were present