A screening test is a procedure or test that is done to see if a woman or her baby might have certain problems. A screening test does not provide a specific diagnosis—that requires a diagnostic test (see below). A screening test can sometimes give an abnormal result even when there is nothing wrong with the mother or her baby. Less often, a screening test result can be normal and miss a problem that does exist. During pregnancy, women are usually offered these screening tests to check for birth defects or other problems for the woman or her baby. Talk to your doctor about any concerns you have about prenatal testing.
First Trimester Screening
First trimester screening is a combination of tests completed between weeks 11 and 13 of pregnancy. It is used to look for certain birth defects related to the baby’s heart or chromosomal disorders, such as Down syndrome. This screen includes a maternal blood test and an ultrasound.
Maternal Blood Screen
The maternal blood screen is a simple blood test. It measures the levels of two proteins, human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) and pregnancy associated plasma protein A (PAPP-A). If the protein levels are abnormally high or low, there could be a chromosomal disorder in the baby.
Ultrasound
An ultrasound creates pictures of the baby. The ultrasound for the first trimester screen looks for extra fluid behind the baby’s neck. If there is increased fluid found on the ultrasound, there could be a chromosomal disorder or heart defect in the baby.
Second Trimester Screening
Maternal Serum Screen
The maternal serum screen is a simple blood test used to identify if a woman is at increased risk for having a baby with certain birth defects, such as neural tube defects or chromosomal disorders such as Down syndrome. It is also known as a “triple screen” or “quad screen” depending on the number of proteins measured in the mother’s blood. For example, a quad screen tests the levels of 4 proteins AFP (alpha-fetoprotein), hCG, estriol, and inhibin-A. Generally, the maternal serum screen is completed during the second trimester.
Fetal Echocardiogram
A fetal echocardiogram is a test that uses sound waves to evaluate the baby’s heart for heart defects before birth. This test can provide a more detailed image of the baby’s heart than a regular pregnancy ultrasound. Some heart defects can’t be seen before birth, even with a fetal echocardiogram. If your healthcare provider finds a problem in the structure of the baby’s heart, a detailed ultrasound may be done to look for other problems with the developing baby.
Anomaly Ultrasound
An ultrasound creates pictures of the baby. This test is usually completed around 18–20 weeks of pregnancy. The ultrasound is used to check the size of the baby and looks for birth defects or other problems with the baby.
Diagnostic Tests
If the result of a screening test is abnormal, doctors usually offer further diagnostic tests to determine if birth defects or other possible problems with the baby are present. These diagnostic tests are also offered to women with higher risk pregnancies, which may include women who are 35 years of age or older; women who have had a previous pregnancy affected by a birth defect; women who have chronic diseases such as lupus, high blood pressure, diabetes, or epilepsy; or women who use certain medications.
Chorionic Villus Sampling (CVS)
CVS is a test where the doctor collects a tiny piece of the placenta, called chorionic villus, which is then tested to check for chromosomal or genetic disorders in the baby. Generally, a CVS test is offered to women who received an abnormal result on a first trimester screening test or to women who could be at higher risk. It is completed between 10 and 12 weeks of pregnancy, earlier than an amniocentesis.
Amniocentesis
An amniocentesis is test where the doctor collects a small amount of amniotic fluid from the area surrounding the baby. The fluid is then tested to measure the baby’s protein levels, which might indicate certain birth defects. Cells in the amniotic fluid can be tested for chromosomal disorders, such as Down syndrome, and genetic problems, such as cystic fibrosis or Tay-Sachs disease. Generally, an amniocentesis is offered to women who received an abnormal result on a screening test or to women who might be at higher risk. It is completed between 15 and 18 weeks of pregnancy. Below are some of the proteins for which an amniocentesis tests.
AFP
AFP stands for alpha-fetoprotein, a protein the unborn baby produces. A high level of AFP in the amniotic fluid might mean that the baby has a defect indicating an opening in the tissue, such as a neural tube defect (anencephaly or spina bifida), or a body wall defect, such as omphalocele or gastroschisis.
reached.
Select the correct answer.
Jerry does a strength training program that uses dumbbells. This program uses which type of resistance?
A. Body weight
B.Resistance bands
C. Weight machines
D.Free weights
Answer:
D. free weight
Explanation:
PLZ MARK ME AS A BRAINLIEST.The answer is simple since dum bbells are not machine-operated, so it IS NOT c. weight machines and dum bbells are not related to the first two choices, so that leaves us with one choice which is the correct one and that would be d. Free weights.
List four strategies for preventing tobacco use.
Answer:
1. Dont
2. Dont
3. Dont
4. Dont
Explanation:
Dont
Answer:
BELOW
Explanation:
If governments wants to prevent tobacco use they can:
-Charge high tobacco prices
-Use mass media campaigns
If an individual wants to prevent tobacco use:
-Stay away from tobacco as much as possible.
-Don't listen to anyone who tells you it is good or it helps
-Remember that it is harmful for your body.
HOPE THIS HELPED
Which of the activities you have been doing are aerobic and why? Which are anaerobic and why?
Answer:
Activites that are aerobic include running, jump roping, and biking. These are categorized as aerobic activities because the oxygen supplies energy for continuous movement. Activities that are anaerobic include weight lifting, push ups, sit ups. These are categorized as anaerobic because they can be done without oxygen, the energy comes from your muscles.
Explanation:
Aerobic: relating to, involving, or requiring oxygen (needs oxygen)
Anaerobic: relating to or requiring an absence of free oxygen (no oxygen)
PLZZ HELPPP
list the 4 (four) careers and the education/training required.
Answer:
(1.Clinical, developmental or social psychologist
(2.Social worker
(3.Counselor
(4. Superintendent, principal or administrator.
Explanation:
You didn’t specify if an explanation was needed so I can’t give an explanation on these jobs separately
I hope this helps!
If Moroccan shepherds allow their livestock to over-graze their land, the plants can no longer protect the fertile top soil from being removed by wind and rain.
What can turn fertile soil into barren, arid land.
Answer: desertification
Explanation: plato
Define what it means
surround yourself with the people that bring out the best in you
Answer: if you find yourself with people who make you feel good, and to whom in return you can do the same - that is a wonderful starting point for a relationship that is even better than "good" - together you will grow even more.
Explanation:
who believes in love??
Answer:
I do but it's not very common for me to find it .-.
which of the following determines a persons body frame?
a. weight and density of a person's bone structure.
b. age and gender.
c. height and ethnicity.
d. nutrition and exercise.
Answer:
A
Explanation:
There are three basic human body types: the endomorph, the mesomorph, and the ectomorph. Ectomorph is naturally more like a poll, lean and taller structure, mesomorph is the most desired since it is a naturally muscular build and can put on muscle easily, and Endomorph naturally carries more fat and can put on fatty weight easier. A mix of two is also called a Hybrid
Weight and density of a person's bone structure are the factors which determines a person's body frame. Thus, the correct option will be A.
What is Body frame?Frame size or body frame is a description of the supportive structure of the skeletal system of an individual which is used to adjust for the skeletal mass and size in the measures of body composition and its weight.
Body frame size of a person can be easily determined by a person's wrist circumference in relation to their total height.
Body frame of a person can be determined through the use of the weight and bone density of a person's bone structure.
A mesomorph type of body frame has a large bone structure, large muscle fibers and the naturally perfect athletic physique type. Mesomorph body frames are considered as the best body type for bodybuilding.
Therefore, the correct option will be A.
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In a(n)___
attack, smooth muscles involuntarily contract and
cause chest tightness?
Answer:
Heart
Explanation:
not too sure tho, sorry
Answer:
heart attack
Explanation:
PLEASE HELP IM TIMED
Which statements best describe the cladogram? Select three options. idk how to put in a picture sorry. :(
Reptiles are the most primitive.
Birds and reptiles are most closely related.
Frogs are more closely related to fish than birds.
Frogs are more closely related to birds than fish.
Fish are the most primitive.
Answer: B, D, and E.
Explanation:
Birds and reptiles are most closely related, Frogs are more closely related to birds than fish and fish are the most primitive are three statements that are correct because a cladogram is considering a diagram that is used in cladistics.
This type of diagram is there to show relations between organisms and in this case, it is true that birds and reptiles are related most closely, frogs are more closely related to birds and the fish( C is incorrect) is the most primitive( that is why answer A. is not correct).
Sense organs, such as the eyes, nose, tongue, and ears, are vital parts of nervous system. Which of the following is a main function of the nervous system that these sense organs perform?
Answer:
The nervous system is involved in receiving information about the environment around us (sensation) and generating responses to that information (motor responses). The nervous system can be divided into regions that are responsible f
hope this helped,brainliest?
These organs are known as the sensory organs. This is because they contain a plethora of nerve endings to sense the environment around them in general. There are 16 sense, that are more in depth then the five basic senses, ie. sight, hearing, taste, smell, and touch. A specific example of one of the senses is the ear's ability to sense an equilibrium (balence) through the vistibular system.
For many teens, adolescence can be a __________ period characterized by __________. A. confusing . . . Emotional serenity B. fun . . . Stability C. difficult . . . Change D. difficult . . . Stability
Answer:
C. difficult . . . Change
Explanation:
GOT IT RIGHTTTT
For many teens, adolescence can be a difficult period which is characterized by the changes in the body. Thus, the correct option is C.
What is Adolescence period?Adolescence is the period of transition between the childhood and adulthood phase. Children who are entering the adolescence phase are going through many changes which include the physical, intellectual, personality and social development. Adolescence begins at the age of puberty, which nowadays occur earlier than other phases on the average age than in the past time.
Adolescence can be roughly divided into three different stages which are early adolescence that generally lasts from the age eleven to fourteen, middle adolescence which lasts from the ages fifteen to seventeen, and the late adolescence occurs in the ages between eighteen to twenty-one.
Therefore, the correct option is C.
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Josephine performs tests to make sure that her patient’s blood is circulating properly. She also uses ultrasound to determine if there are any problems with the patient’s blood vessels. What type of diagnostic services professional is Josephine?
a cardiothoracic surgeon
Explanation:
Select the correct answer. Which of the following is a correct description of how you should determine your RPE? A. Base your ranking on how bad your legs feel B. Base your ranking on how out of breath you are C. Base your ranking on total feelings of exertion D. Base your ranking on how you compare to your friend's score
Answer:
C. Base your ranking on total feelings of exertion
Basing your ranking on total feelings of exertion is a correct description of how you should determine your RPE (Option C).
The Borg Rating of Perceived Exertion (RPE) can be used to measure the intensity level of your physical activity. Perceived exertion refers to the perceived feeling of how hard your body is exercising.RPE scale values may range from 0 to 10 (0 refers to no exertion and 10 refers to a maximum effort).In conclusion, basing your ranking on total feelings of exertion is a correct description of how you should determine your RPE (Option C).
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If you we’re throwing a very light ball, do you think it would be better to have a long or short arm?
Electrolytes are minerals in your body that have an electric charge. These minerals can become imbalanced when a person's daily water needs are not being met.
Which behavior puts a person at the greatest risk for death due to electrolyte imbalance?
A
Binge Eating
B
Calorie Counting
C
Purging
D
Juicing
Which of the following is true of the hormone melatonin?
A. Melatonin increases feelings of relaxation and sleepiness,
B. Melatonin decreases feelings of relaxation and sleepiness.
C. Melatonin is released by the hypothalamus.
D. None of the above,
What is a sensory effector
Answer:
Effectors are muscles or glands which work in response to the stimulus received from the motor neurons. Hence the correct order is:
Receptor→ Sensory Neuron→ Spinal cord →Motor neuron → Effector.
Explanation:
which describes the tempurature for successfully sperm production
what is the importance of Health education in our life?
Answer:
Health education programs help empower individuals and communities to live healthier lives by improving their physical, mental, emotional and social health by increasing their knowledge and influencing their attitudes about caring for their well-being.
Explanation:
1) Differentiate between muscular strength and muscular endurance.
Tell me the differences between both and give examples of each.
Answer:
muscular strength is the measure of the exertion of force on physical objects whereas muscular endurance is how long one can exert that force for
Explanation:
strength is lifting 50 pounds easily one time, but endurance is lifting 25 pounds repetitively for an extended period of time
Team sports develop a person's social health through learning to respect members of the opposite team. Please select the best answer from the choices provided. T F
Answer:
true
Explanation:
It is true that the team sports develop a person's social health through learning to respect members of the opposite team.
What is team sport?Team sports are competitions in which one group, or team, competes against a certain group, or squad. Team members collaborate to accomplish a common goal.
A team sport is an operation in which a group of people on the same team collaborate to achieve a common goal, which is generally to come out on top.
This can be accomplished in a variety of ways, including outscoring the opposing team.
Trying to fight for a common goal with a group of teammates and coaches teaches you how to work as a team and communicate effectively to solve problems.
This knowledge is useful when dealing with problems at work or at home.
Team sports improve a person's social health by teaching them to respect members of the opposing team.
Thus, the given statement is true.
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3. The best place to find your pulse is at the
A. Carotid artery
B. Aorta
C. Coronary artery
D. Superior vena cava
Answer:
The carotid artery.
Explanation:
This is the artery on your neck, and a common/easy place to find a pulse.
ason, a 15-year-old, is mowing the grass in his front lawn as his two sisters, Lisa, a 12-year-old, and Chris, a 14-year old, play nearby. As he pushes the mower, some of the grass begins to back up at his mower’s discharge opening. He reaches into the discharge chute to try to brush away a clump of grass, when he rises, he accidentally bumps his sister’s nose. It is not broken, but it is bleeding pretty badly. What do you do?
Answer:Call 911
Explanation:
Explain how neglect might affect each part of a child’s health triangle.
Answer:
It is the failure to provide for a child's physical or emotional needs. Emotional neglect may take the form of indifference or withholding love and support. This may result in the child running away from the home, being distant from friend and family, don't want to be around anyone just want to be alone.
Explanation:
When one of the triangle's sides is weakened, the entire construction becomes unstable. As a result, when one side of the health triangle is neglected, that side suffers.
Child’s health triangle:If one side is ignored and weakened, you're more likely to develop health problems in the other two states.
It's when a parent fails to meet a child's physical or emotional requirements.
Emotional neglect can take the shape of apathy or a refusal to love and support.
As a result, the youngster may run away from home, become estranged from friends and family, and refuse to be near anybody, preferring to be alone.
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Overload is the act of exercising a muscle to fatigue.
true or false
Answer:
true
Explanation:
Answer:
true
Explanation:
Select the correct answer.
The universal need includes:
OA.
Knowing that your feelings matter.
ов.
Being rich.
Ос.
Having a lot of friends.
OD. All of the above
Answer:
Determine if the statements are correct choose yes or no for each statement
Explanation:
because your feelings matter more than being rich an having lots of friends
What is the BEST definition of a processed food?
Group of answer choices
a food that has been frozen and reheated
a food that has been cooked
a food that contains preservatives, dyes, and other chemicals
a food that has been run through a food processor
Answer:
a food that contains preservatives, dyes, and other chemicals
Explanation:
Fast food; or log-term use.
Processed food refers to a food product that has undergone various mechanical or chemical processes. The correct option is option (c).
Processed food refers to a food product that has undergone various mechanical or chemical processes, often including the addition of preservatives, dyes, and other chemicals to enhance flavor, extend shelf life, or improve texture.
These processes typically involve altering the original form or composition of the food.
Therefore, Processed food refers to a food product that has undergone various mechanical or chemical processes. The correct option is option (c).
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Help!! Will give brainliest!!! And giving good points!
Answer:
the answer is C. 60
A person with high cholesterol would be recommended to lower their cholesterol by following which two guidelines?
A
increase physical activity and increase colorful vegetables
B
keep a food and exercise journal
C
increase sleep and stop eating fast food
D
lose weight and eat microwave meals
Answer: C
The answer to number one is C, and number 2 is false, it should be at least 1/2
