Which of the following choices is not an example of a giant molecule​

Answers

Answer 1

Explanation:

A substance containing a large number of atoms which are covalently bonded, is called a giant molecule or a giant covalent lattice. There are four examples of molecules made from non-metals which form giant structures. They are silicon, silicon dioxide and two forms of the element carbon called diamond and graphite polymers are a different kind of large molecule.

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Related Questions

A solution that has a pH of 6.8
a. is acidic.
b. is basic.
C.
is alkaline.
d. has a neutral pH.
PLS HELPPPP

Answers

A solution that has a pH of 6.8

it is acidic as it has got ph value less than 7....But as it has got ph value near to 7 it is weak acidic..

Why are these considered organic molecules

Answers

Answer:

A molecule of the kind normally found in living systems. Organic molecules are usually composed of carbon atoms in rings or long chains, to which are attached other atoms of such elements as hydrogen, oxygen, and nitrogen.

Explanation:

They are made from many carbon atoms. A molecule is said to be organic if it contains carbon atoms (C) linked to hydrogen atoms (H). The organic molecules can be distinguished during a combustion since the carbon atoms will turn into carbon dioxide (CO2) and the hydrogen atoms into water (H2O).

The frequency of a lethal allele in a population is greatest when it is: Group of answer choices dominant manifested in infancy recessive co-dominant

Answers

Answer:

recessive

Explanation:

A lethal allele is a gene variant associated with a mutation in an essential gene, which has the potential to cause the death of an individual. In general, lethal genes are recessive because these alleles do not cause death in heterozygous individuals, which have one copy of the normal allele and one copy of the allele for the lethal disease/disorder. In recessive lethal diseases, heterozygous individuals are carriers of the recessive lethal allele and can eventually pass the 'defective' allele on to offspring even though they are unaffected; whereas dominant lethal diseases are caused by dominant lethal alleles, which only need to be present in one copy to be fatal. In consequence, the frequency of recessive lethal alleles is generally higher than dominant lethal alleles because they can be masked in carrier individuals. Some examples of human diseases caused by recessive lethal alleles include, among others, Tay-Sachs disease, sickle-cell anemia, and cystic fibrosis.

The frequency of a lethal allele in a population is greatest when it is: C. recessive.

A lethal allele can be defined as an allele that is responsible for the death of a living organism, especially by preventing its development. Thus, a lethal allele causes a complete mortality in the living organism carrying it, in a hom-ozygous condition.

Basically, a lethal allele is recessive in nature because it is expressed in the phenotype of an organism. Some examples of diseases caused by lethal alleles in humans are:

Cystic fibrosisSickle-cell anemiaAchondroplasia

In conclusion, a lethal allele that is recessive has the greatest frequency in a population.

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Which of the following is true of crossing over? It involves the exchange of chromosome segments between homologous chromosomes. It occurs in meiosis I. It increases genetic variability. All of the choices are correct.

Answers

Answer: All of the choices are correct.

Explanation:

Meiosis is a type of cell division of the nucleus that occurs in cells that will give rise to gametes (egg or sperm). These are haploid cells (n), that is, they possess only one chromosome of each of the pairs (23 in total). Through meiosis from a diploid cell (2n), four haploid cells are obtained, thanks to two successive divisions called meiosis I and meiosis II.  Both comprise prophase, metaphase,  anaphase and telophase.

Homologous chromosomes are a pair composed of a paternal and a maternal chromosome. They have the same DNA sequence arrangement from one end to the other, but different alleles. These chromosome copies have the same genes at the same loci where they contribute tips along each chromosome that facilitate a pair of chromosomes to align correctly with each other before they separate during meiosis. Sister chromatids are those that make up a chromosome after duplication of the genetic material.  

The homologous chromosomes of maternal and paternal origin, mate and this process is called "synapsis" and form what is known as a tetrad or bivalent chromosome, giving the impression that it is a chromosome with four chromatids. In these tetrads, junctions called chiasmata are formed, areas in which both homologues exchange genetic material or genes, a process known as crossing-over. The chiasmata allow the chromosomes to be held together until their separation in anaphase l. So, genetic recombination is the process by which a segment of genetic material from a maternal chromosome is cut and then joined to a paternal chromosome (or vice versa) during prophase I of meiosis. So it happens between non-sister chromatids of a paternal and a maternal chromosome.

After crossing over, the homologous chromosomes are arranged randomly at the cell's  the equator of the cell at random (methaphase), facing each other, still united in the areas where crossing over occurred. Each chromosome is associated with a meiotic spindle fiber of the meiotic spindle and they are pulled along the meiotic spindle and driven toward the respective poles (anaphase). The chromosomes are now arranged at the poles and the reorganization of the nuclear envelope and the nucleolus begins. Finally, cytokinesis occurs and the rearrangement of cellular components and reorganization of the cytoskeleton. As a result of meiosis I,  2 haploid cells are obtained and then meiosis II occurs, where the sister chromatids are separated, generating two more cells (a total of 4).

Genetic variability is generated because the gametes produced during meiosis will not inherit the same chromosomes as the mother cell, but due to crossing over, the inherited chromosomes will be genetically different.

100 POINTS!!!!!! Help FAST!!!!!!!!!!!!!!The picture below shows the bone structures of human, cow, and horse.
Picture shows similar bone structures of human, cow, and horse.

Based on the diagram, which of these statements is correct about humans, cows, and horses?

They have developed from the same organism.
They have completed their evolutionary process.
Humans have evolved from several ancestors.
Horses have evolved from cows and humans.

Answers

Answer:

option A they have developed from the same organism

Explanation:

Organs of animals (belonging to different species) which have similar structure but different functions are homologous organs. Such organs have evolved from the same ancestors , however their function are different.  

For example – wings of bats, limb of human etc.  

Here in this case  also the bone structures of human, cow, and horse are same but their functions are different, thus they are homologous organs and hence they have evolved from same ancestors.  

The correct answer is option A

Answer:

"They have developed from the same organism."

All theories are hypotheses, but not all hypotheses are theories. Francis wants to know if a specific hypothesis he is researching is a theory. Which describes how Francis would know the hypothesis is a theory?
He could restate the hypothesis as a fact and no longer an explanation.
He could determine whether the hypothesis is based on repeated experiments.
He could perform the experiment and adjust data to match the desired results.
He could design and perform a new controlled experiment to test the hypothesis.

Answers

Answer:

He could determine whether the hypothesis is based on repeated experiments.

Explanation:

A theory is a hypothesis that has been proven correct by many expirements.

Francis could design and perform a new controlled experiment to test the hypothesis to determine whether it is a theory. Therefore, the correct statement is option D.

What is a theory?

A hypothesis is a scientific explanation for a phenomenon that is based on prior observation. However, a theory is a well-supported and widely accepted explanation for a natural phenomenon that has been tested and based on scientific fact.

A hypothesis has the potential to become a theory if tested through carefully designed and controlled experiments by collecting data needed for the experiment.

If the results of an experiment conducted by Francis are consistent with the hypothesis, the information can be used to develop a theory that can be used to explain a broader range of phenomena. However, if the results are not by the hypothesis, Francis cannot consider the hypothesis as a theory that must be supported by evidence.

Therefore, Francis needs to design and perform a new controlled experiment to test the hypothesis to determine whether it is a theory.

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In what way is DNA replicated?
A. Dispersive
B. Complete
C. Semi-Conservative
D. Conservative

Answers

DNA is replicated in a semi-conservative manner (option C). Details about DNA replication can be found below.

What is DNA replication?

DNA replication is the process by which a new strand of DNA is synthesized prior to the process of cellular division.

DNA replication occurs in the S-phase of the interphase stage, before the nucleus of the cell divides.

DNA is replicated in a semi-conservative manner in such a way that one strand serves as a template for the other.

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the people who put together the factors of production to produce goods is called

Answers

Answer:

an entrepreneur or innovater

Spermatogenesis is a process in which the tests produce
red blood cells
sperms
white blood cell
eggs

Answers

Answer:

Produce sperms.

Explanation:

This occurs in three stages; proliferation and spermatogia differentiation, meiosis, spermeogenesis.

Answer:

._.xd

Explanation:

xd

The neurons that carry from the brain to the muscle are called ?

Answers

Answer:

Motor Neurons

Answer:

The neurons that carry messages to the muscles are called motor neurons.

Applying: Given the following DNA sequence from the template strand of a given gene: 5'CTTGCGTCACCTGAGACCTGGCATCG3' a) Write the mRNA that will be transcribed from the DNA sequence above (be sure to label the 5' and 3' ends) b) Write the peptide sequence translated from the mRNA produced in part a.

Answers

Answer:

mRNA   ⇒  5´-CGAUGCCAGGUCUCAGGUGACGCAAG- 5´

Protein ⇒ N - MET   PRO  GLY  LEU   ARG - C

Explanation:

The first step before protein arrangement is to synthesize messenger RNA, mRNA. This is the transcription process and occurs in the nucleus. When the DNI molecule separates into two strands to form the transcription bubble, we can identify two separate segments: coding strand and template strand. The coding strand goes in direction 5´ to 3´, while the complementary strand -template strand- grows in direction 3´ to 5. This last segment is the one that is going to be complemented by the mRNA.  

Once mRNA synthesis is over, the molecule leaves the nucleus to start the transcription process in the cytoplasm. The ribosome reads mRNA in the 5´ to 3´ direction, and, according to the codons that are being readen, tRNA transfers the correct amino acids to build the polypeptide chain. A codon is a short sequence of three nucleotides that store the genetic information for the aminoacids´ assembly. Each tRNA has two important sites. One of them that couples with the codon of the mRNA molecule, named anticodon. The other site couples with an amino acid. tRNA allows amino acids to align according to the nucleotidic sequence in the mRNA molecule.    

The protein is synthesized from the amino terminus to the carboxy terminus, adding amino acids to the chain according to the codon sequence in the mRNA. mARNs also have a start and end codon that are the signals of the synthesis initiation and finish. When the ribosome reaches the end codon, protein synthesis is over.      

• The start codon is AUG and places near the 5´extreme of the molecule.  

• The end codons are UAA, UAG, UGA.

Protein synthesis initiates in the AUG start codon -Metionin-, and ends when reaching either of the stop codons UAA, UAG, UGA.

When talking about amino and carboxy terminus, the word Terminus refers to the extremes of the polypeptide. The first extreme to be translated carries the amino-terminal group, while the other extreme carries the carboxy-terminus group.

Conventionally, proteins are written from left to right, beginning by the N-terminal extreme carrying the free amine group, and ending by the C-terminal extreme carrying the carboxyl free group. However, we need to know that the free amine group actually places at the end of a protein.

In the exposed example we have the following DNI template strand ⇒5'CTTGCGTCACCTGAGACCTGGCATCG3'

Transcription:

The template DNI strand is read in direction 3´→ 5´ to build the mRNA molecule in direction 5´→ 3´.

template DNI strand  ⇒ 5'-CTTGCGTCACCTGAGACCTGGCATCG-3'

                     mRNA   ⇒  3´-GAACGCAGUGGACUCUGGACCGUAGC- 5´

Translation:  

rRNA and tRNA read mRNA in the direction 5´→ 3´ to build the protein.

Start codon AUG -Metionin-, near the 5´ extremeEnd UAA, UAG, UGA.  

The first portion of mRNA is not read nor translated. This is the untranslated region (UTR), placed before the start codon.

mRNA   ⇒  3´-GAACGCAGUGGACUCUGGACCGUAGC- 5´

Remember that transcription occurs from 5´ to 3´ extremes, so we need to read the codons in this direction too, beginning on the 5´ extreme.

To make it easier, we can turn the mRNA direction, and write it from 5´to 3´.

mRNA   ⇒  3´-GAACGCAGUGGACUCUGGACCGUAGC- 5´

mRNA   ⇒  5´-CGAUGCCAGGUCUCAGGUGACGCAAG- 5´

Now, we need to find the initiation codon: AUG coding for Metionin.

mRNA   ⇒  5´-CG AUG CCA GGU CUC AGG UGA CGC AAG- 5´

Codons are separated by a space left between them. AUG is the start codon placed near the 5´ extreme.

Now, let us find the end codon, near the 3´extreme.

mRNA   ⇒  5´-CG AUG CCA GGU CUC AGG UGA CGC AAG- 5´

rRNA will read mRNA until it reaches UGA codon, which is the stop signal.tRNA will add amino acids from the start codon, not before.

tRNA anticodons ⇒ UAC GGU CCA GAG UCC  

Anticodons are separated by a space left between them.

Protein ⇒ N - MET   PRO  GLY  LEU   ARG - C

Each mRNA codon codifies for an amino acid. The start codon codifies for methionine. AUG= Met, CCA= Pro, GGU= Gly, CUC= Leu, AGG= Arg, UGA= Stop codon. The amino terminus is represented as an N and the carboxy terminus is a C. The first extreme to be translated carries the amino-terminal group, while the other extreme carries the carboxy-terminus group.

How would the DNA of a fish compare to the DNA of a lion

Answers

Answer:

The double helix can be found almost everywhere in DNA. AGTC is found in lions, humans, and fish. The double helix is the most stable structure for maintaining genomic integrity in AGTC. The gene structures (that is, sequence) differ, as do promoters and other elements, but the DNA structure remains the same.

Please name and briefly explain two of the ways meiosis results in genetically unique daughter cells.

Answers

Answer:

Recombination and independent assortment.

Explanation:

Recombination and independent assortment in meiosis are the two ways of meiosis that results in genetically unique daughter cells. Recombination is also called crossing over that is the exchange of genetic material that occurs in the germ line. During crossing over, part of one daughter chromosome is exchanged with another that causes diversity whereas independent assortment refers to the allele a gamete receives for one gene does not influence the allele received for another gene.

1. Which of the following would classify a protozoan as an Amoebozoa?
A.)Having a pellicle B.)Movement by pseudopods C.)Having an oral groove D.)Having an endoplasm E.)Having an ectoplasm

2. Which of the following would be analogous to a sperm penetrating an egg?
A.)Plasmogamy B.)Mitosis C.)Germination D.)Meiosis E.)Karyogamy

3. Which of the following can infect the brain? A.)Euglena B.)Trichomonas
C.)Trypanosoma D.)Plasmodium E.)Giardia

4. Flukes and tapeworms are in the same phylum because they are which of the following? A.)Long B.)Thin C.)Round D.)Short E.)Flat

5. Which of the following is used to keep the protozoa from swelling?
A.)Endoplasm B.)Plasmalemma C.)Ectoplasm D.)Contractile vacuole
E.)Pellicle

Answers

Answer:

D.Having an endoplasmC. GerminationA. EuglenaC. RoundE. Pellicle

In large populations, small fluctuations in survivorship or reproduction among individual organisms are unlikely to affect allele or genotype frequencies in the population.

a. True
b. False

Answers

Answer: True.

Explanation:

A population is defined as the set of individuals that inhabit a given geographic area. A population has a certain allele frequency, which is the measure of the relative proportion of alleles in a given population, expressed as a percentage or unit. It is estimate using the number of times the allele is found in a locus and dividing it by the total number of alleles. While the genotypic frequency refers to the number of times that each of the genotypes generated by the two-by-two combinations of the alleles involved in the locus under study appears in relation to the total number of genotypes (which will be equal to the total number of individuals included in the study).

The population can be increased or decreased according to the birth and death rates. Generally, unless specific alterations occur, such as the spread of a disease, immigration, emigration, natural disasters, and others, the size of the population will remain constant. This means that the birth rate is quite similar to the death rate. And the larger the population, the more difficult it is to disturb this balance between births and deaths. So if small fluctuations in survival or reproduction occur between individuals, it is unlikely that this will affect the frequency of alleles and/or genotypes.   This is explained using the Hardy-Weinberg principle states that the genetic composition of a population remains in equilibrium as long as no mutation occurs, and nor natural selection nor any other factor acts. After a generation of random mating, the frequencies of the genotypes of a locus are fixed at an equilibrium value. Then, the genetic variation in a population will remain constant from one generation to the next in the absence of extreme disturbing factors such as those mentioned above (diseases, natural disasters, and others).

Note that for this principle to be fulfilled, the population must be diploid (have two alleles of each gene), must reproduce sexually in a random manner, and must be large enough to minimize the effect of genetic drift (random fluctuations in allele frequencies from one generation to the next, due to random events that can cause certain traits to become dominant or disappear from a population).

que organismos tienen nutrición autotrofa​

Answers

green plants

plantas verdes

Which structures allow lycophytes to grow bigger than mosses and liverworts?
A. gametophytes and sporophytes
b. xylem and phloem
C. haploid and diploid
D. roots and stems

Answers

The structure that allows lycophytes to grow bigger than mosses and liverworts is xylem and phloem which is option B

Lycophytes are spore bearing vascular plants. Being a vascular plant, they possess vessels ( vascular tissues) which include:

ylem: this is used for conducting water usually from the root to the rest of the plant partsPhloem: this is the vascular tissue that is used to conduct food( sugar) produced in the leaves of plants to other parts of the plant.

The possession of the vessels makes the lycophytes appear bigger.

Mosses and liverworts belongs to the plant phylum Bryophyta. They do not have any vascular tissues that can be used to conduct water and food. This restricts their size.

Therefore, the structure that allows lycophytes to grow bigger than mosses and liverworts is xylem and phloem

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Answer:

xylem and phloem

Explanation:

Lycophytes have specialized tissue that transports nutrients and provides structural support.

Si el sobrino de mi papá tiene un hijo que viene siendo mío?

Answers

Answer:

yo creon q sobrino lejan

o

Primo segundo creo que sería

Explain using the meaning of abiotic and your understanding of the characteristics of life.

Answers

Answer:

Abiotic simply means a non-living thing.

Therefore, my understanding of the characteristics of life are those things that show that something is living.

Things like:

Movement

Respiration

Nutrition

Irritability

Growth

Excretion

Reproduction

Death.

Which trait is totally determined by genes

Answers

Answer:

hair color is determined by genetics

Explanation:

Eye color, hair texture or color, unattached earlobes or attached.

List the reactions of glycolysis that: _________

a. are energy-consuming (under standard state conditions).
b. are energy-yielding (under standard state conditions).
c. consume ATP.
d. yield ATP.
e. are strongly influenced by changes in concentration of substrate and product because of their molecularity.
f. are at or near equilibrium in the erythrocyte

Answers

Answer:

b. are energy-yielding (under standard state conditions).

d. yield ATP.

Explanation:

The reactions of glycolysis produces the ATP molecules from the breakdown of glucose molecule. Glycolysis produces 2 molecules of ATP, 2 molecules of NADH, and 2 molecules of pyruvate: Glycolysis breakdown glucose with the help of oxygen produces energy in the form of ATP, NADH, and pyruvate so e can conclude that glycolysis are energy-yielding process for the cell.

2 diferensias entre ell dominio archea y eubacteria

Answers

En las arqueas, generalmente se encuentra en la forma L-isomérica, mientras que las bacterias y eucariotas tienen la forma D-isomérica. Una segunda diferencia es la presencia de un enlace éter en oposición a los lípidos enlazados a éster que se encuentran en eubacterias y eucariotas.

The area within the lungs where gas exchange occurs is called?

Answers

Answer:

The alveoli are the sites of gas exchange; they are located at the terminal regions of the lung and are attached to the respiratory bronchioles. The acinus is the structure in the lung where gas exchange occurs. The sac-like structure of the alveoli increases their surface area.

Hi,Cyclone occur over the oceans of equatorial region why give reason​

Answers

Answer:

Cyclones are actually water born storms in the equatorial regions.

Mainly, water near this equator get heated up as it receives direct sunlight, the hot air rises up and to fill this empty space cold air from poles rush to these equatorial regions. And hence the cyclones are mostly formed in Equatorial regions.

Answer:

Tropical cyclones are enormous engines that run on warm, wet air. That's why they only develop around the equator, in warm ocean waters. The warm, wet air at the surface of the ocean rises upward. There is less air at the surface because this air is moving up and away from it.

OAmalOHopeO

climbers often bear big fruits True or false

Answers

Answer:

False

Explanation:

The climbers doesn't often bear big fruits. It gives small fruits and berries like Grapes, Kiwi, etc. Hence, your statement is incorrect (false).

Which of the following is not an example of where primary succession typically occurs?

After a fire
A retreating glacier
Emerging islands
Formation of new lakes

Answers

Answer:

After a fire

Explanation:

Primary succession is one of the two types of ecological succession in which a barren area of land (with no soil) is colonized by organisms called PIONEER SPECIES for the very first time.

Primary succession is characterized by a BARREN area that had no form of previous growth or colonization. These barren area can include a retreating glacier, an emerging islands or the formation of new lakes.

Note that, the succession that occurs AFTER A FIRE or any form of environmental disturbance is SECONDARY SUCCESSION.

Five more than the quotient of a number and eight is 42

Answers

Answer:

5+x/8=42

Explanation:

This is your answer to the equation.

If you want to solve it, then subtract 5 from both sides to get x/8=37. Then multiply both sides by 8 to get x=296

Hope this helps!! :)

3. What is the term for movement of molecules from an area of relatively lower to higher concentration that requires energy?

passive transport

diffusion

active transport

osmosis

Answers

active transport (the answer)

Which part of visible light transfers the most energy?
Gamma
ray
Ultra-
violet Infrared
Radio
Ah
X-rays Visible Microwave
O red
O blue
mmm
O green
O yellow
Wavelength (nm)
10-
10-
1
102
10-
10*
10°
1010
Frequency (Hz)
10%
10"
101
1015
101
10"
10°
107

Answers

Answer: It's most likely Gamma Rays.

Explanation:

Witch of the following is an example of a good hypothesis? A. The vinegar is the acid and the soap is the base. B. I think the glow sticks will be brighter in the hot water. C. When placed in hot water , sugar cubes will dissolve more slowly then granulated sugar. D. Hot water makes things disk faster.

Answers

The answer is B
Hope that helps!
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