(i) Parties contest elections. (ii)Parties put ahead unique policies and programmes and voters pick out from them. (iii) Parties play a decisive function in making legal guidelines for a country. (iv)Parties structure and run goverments.
What are the three necessary functions of political events in a democratic government?Major functions of the Political Parties are as follows – i Parties contest elections. ii Parties put ahead exceptional policies and programmes. iii Parties play a decisive position in making laws of a country. iv Parties form and run the government.
What are the 3 challenges being faced by means of political parties in India discuss?The three challenges confronted by using political parties in India are: i Lack of inside democracy. ii Challenge of dynastic succession iii Growing role of money and muscle power. iv Often events do not appear to offer a significant choice to the voters.
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in which of the following ways does the british democracy differ from most other parliamentary democracies in europe?
The British democracy differs from the majority of other parliamentary democracies in Europe in that the ruling party may adopt policies with essentially no checks from other levels of government.
The Westminster Parliament represents the idea of full power to legislate on all topics, free from any restrictions from underlying principles of international law or human rights, and now also from EU legislation.
The UK is a parliamentary democracy in europe. After the passage of the First Reform Act in 1832, which gave the vote to 7% of males and reallocated house seats for fairer representation, the UK became a democracy. This was the initial reform in a series that aimed to increase the electorate.
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Correct Question:
In what ways does the british democracy differ from most other parliamentary democracies in europe?
true or false. testosterone administration induces a red shift in democrats
Answer:
True, testosterone administration induces a red shift in democrats
________ refers to the bargained-for legal value that one party agrees to pay or provide to secure the promise of another.A) ConsiderationB) AgreementC) ReformationD) Restitution
Consideration refers to the bargained-for legal value that one party agrees to pay or provide to secure the promise of another. The correct answers is option a.
What is consideration?Consideration is a necessary element of a contract. It is the value given in return for the promise or performance of another. In simpler terms, consideration is the "price" that is paid for the promise of the other party. Consideration must have legal value and be bargained for. In the absence of consideration, the contract would be considered a gift. A contract is not enforceable without consideration. Consideration can take various forms, including money, goods, services, or a promise to do something. In short, it is the mutual exchange of something of value that distinguishes a contract from a gift.
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. The ______ test is used if the classification involves either a suspect class or a fundamental constitutional right.
A. minimum rationality
B. quasi-strict scrutiny
C. rational basis
D. prior restraints
E. strict scrutiny
Which is an example of intermediate punishment? state prison sentence electronic monitoring federal prison sentence long-term incarceration
Answer: Electronic monitoring is an example of intermediate punishment.
Explanation:
Intermediate punishment is a type of criminal sentencing that is between traditional probation and incarceration in a correctional facility. It involves the use of alternative sanctions that allow offenders to serve their sentence in the community, while still being supervised and held accountable for their actions. Electronic monitoring, also known as house arrest, involves the use of technology to track an offender's movements and ensure compliance with the conditions of their sentence.
Answer:
Electronic monitoring is an example of intermediate punishment.
______: When people use illegitimate means to gain success, in particular professional and organized criminality, including drug trafficking.
Innovation : When people use illegitimate means to gain success, in particular professional and organized criminality, including drug trafficking.
Those who pursue illegal activity while holding onto their dream of success, such as those who engage in illegal drug dealing to make money, are pursuing the "American Dream" in this way. Dr. Melton also made the argument that some people leave society and end up as drug addicts or drifters after realizing they cannot achieve the "American Dream," which can result in abnormal behavior.
Innovation: The acceptance of cultural goals by an individual or group but rejection of the accepted, established methods for achieving those goals. Families involved in organized crime are one example. They adhere to the "American Dream," but they go beyond the law to achieve their objectives.
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true/false. prosecuting attorneys exercise discretion when determining whether or not to bring charges against the arrestee.
True. Prosecuting attorneys are responsible for deciding whether to bring criminal charges against an individual who has been arrested.
This decision is made based on various factors, such as the strength of the evidence, the seriousness of the offense, and the interests of justice. Prosecutors have discretion in determining whether or not to bring charges, and their decision can have significant consequences for the individual facing the charges. In some cases, prosecutors may decide not to bring charges if they feel that the evidence is weak or if the offense is minor. However, in other cases, they may pursue charges aggressively, seeking the maximum possible penalty for the alleged offense.
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Compare and contrast the Uniform Crime Report, the National Crime Victimization Survey, and the Self Report. What are
the differences in the way data are collected for the three primary crime data sources? What are the limitations/weaknesses
of each of the three primary crime data sources (b) Explain the impact of COVID-19 on patterns of crime in (i) your
metropolitan area, county, or state.
A. We can see here that the Uniform Crime Report (UCR), National Crime Victimization Survey (NCVS), and Self-Report are three primary sources of crime data in the United States.
While each source provides insight into criminal behavior, they differ in the way data is collected and the information they provide.
What is crime?Crime refers to any behavior or action that is prohibited by law and punishable by the government or state. Crimes can range from minor offenses, such as traffic violations or petty theft, to serious offenses. The definition of what constitutes a crime varies by jurisdiction and can change over time as laws are updated and revised.
The UCR is compiled by the Federal Bureau of Investigation (FBI) and provides data on crimes reported to law enforcement agencies across the country. The UCR collects data on eight specific crimes referred to as Part I offenses, including mu'der, ra-pe, robbery, aggravated assault, burglary, larceny-theft, motor vehicle theft, and arson.
The NCVS is a survey conducted by the Bureau of Justice Statistics (BJS) that collects data on victimization experiences of individuals, including both reported and unreported crimes. The survey includes questions on personal and property victimization, reporting to law enforcement, and the perceived effectiveness of the criminal justice system.
Self-report surveys are typically administered to individuals and ask about their involvement in criminal behavior. These surveys are often anonymous and may include questions about drug use, theft, and violent behavior.
Self-report surveys are useful in providing insight into criminal behavior that may not be reported to law enforcement, but are limited by potential social desirability bias and inaccuracies in reporting.
B. The COVID-19 pandemic has had a significant impact on patterns of crime in many areas. In some regions, crime rates have decreased due to stay-at-home orders and decreased opportunities for criminal activity.
In conclusion, while the UCR, NCVS, and Self-Report provide important insights into criminal behavior, each has limitations and weaknesses. Researchers and policymakers should be aware of these limitations when using crime data to inform policies and decisions.
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Under common law, which of the following was true in regard to arson?a. Negligence was sufficient to establish arsonb. Criminal intent was not necessaryc. The requirement of burning did not require that the dwelling be burned completelyd. You could commit arson
Under common law, criminal intent was not necessary in regard to arson. Arson is the criminal act of intentionally and requirement of burning did not require that the dwelling be burned completely under common law. Arson was established if the damage or destruction of the property was caused by fire.
Additionally, common law arson was a crime that required actual, malicious intent to set fire to a structure or property. A person could not be convicted of unlawfully setting fire to buildings or other property. Criminal intent was not necessary under the common law of arson. Criminal intent was the foundation for the most serious charges in most criminal cases under the common law, but arson was an exception.
Negligence was insufficient to establish arson under the common law of arson. The arson if they didn't intend to start a fire or cause harm. Common law is a body of law that has been established through legal decisions made by judges over the centuries. The doctrine of precedent is used in common law. The doctrine of precedent, also known as stare decisis, requires that lower courts must follow the decisions of higher courts that have dealt with similar cases in the past.
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The Supreme Court held that the Fourteenth Amendment protected freedom of speech from state
infringement in the _________ case.
a. Schenk v. United States
b. McCulloch v. Maryland
c. Gibbons v. Ogden
d. Gitlow v. New York
The Supreme Court held that the Fourteenth Amendment protected freedom of speech from state infringement in the d. Gitlow v. New York case.
What is Gitlow v. New York case?Gitlow v. New York is a landmark U.S. Supreme Court case, decided on June 8, 1925, which upheld the constitutionality of the Espionage Act of 1917, which made it illegal to advocate the overthrow of the United States government by force or violence.
The majority of the justices ruled that the First Amendment didn't prohibit states from suppressing or punishing speech that posed a serious danger to national security, even if it didn't immediately incite an illegal act.
What is the Fourteenth Amendment?The Fourteenth Amendment to the United States Constitution was passed by Congress on June 13, 1866, and ratified by the states on July 9, 1868. It granted citizenship to all individuals born or naturalized in the United States and prohibited states from denying any person "life, liberty, or property, without due process of law.
The correct option is option d.
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Paul buys a bottle of Great Wine. He drinks it and becomes very ill. Doctors find the wine contained anti-freeze.Paul may not sue Great Wine because he assumed the risk of drinking alcohol, an inherently dangerous product. a. True
b. False
"Paul buys a bottle of Great Wine. He drinks it and becomes very ill. Doctors find the wine contained anti-freeze. Paul may not sue Great Wine because he assumed the risk of drinking alcohol, an inherently dangerous product" the statement is true.
In this case, it is true that Paul may not sue Great Wine because he assumed the risk of drinking alcohol, an inherently dangerous product. Although the bottle of Great Wine contained anti-freeze, which was the cause of Paul's illness, he still drank the wine voluntarily and as such assumed the risk that comes with drinking alcohol. The consumption of alcohol is considered an inherently dangerous product, as it is widely known to have risks associated with it such as addiction, health issues, and many others. Therefore, Paul can not sue Great Wine for his illness as he assumed the risk of drinking alcohol.Learn more about anti-freeze: https://brainly.com/question/1382943
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U.S. firms, their foreign subsidiaries, or foreign firms that are licensees of U.S. technology cannot sell a product to a country in which the sale is considered by the U.S. government to affect theoverall balance of payments of the United States.national security of the United States.relationship of the U.S. with the world community.competitive balance of world trade.competitive balance of free competition inside the U.S.
U.S. technology cannot sell a product without an export licence to a country in the sale is considered by the U.S. government to affect the overall balance of payments of the United States is; National security of the United States.
What is an export license?
An export license is a government document issued by a country's export control agency, authorizing the export of certain goods in specific quantities to a particular destination. An export license is usually required for any items that are controlled, regulated, or banned by national and international export control laws.
The export control agency is responsible for regulating and overseeing all activities related to the export of goods, including granting export licenses and enforcing export regulations.
Why are export licenses necessary?Export licenses are necessary for a variety of reasons, including to: Prevent the proliferation of weapons of mass destruction Protect national security Ensure compliance with international laws and regulations Combat terrorism and other criminal activities Promote economic development and stability.
There are different types of export licenses, and the specific requirements and regulations will depend on the type of goods being exported and the destination country. However, in general, the purpose of an export license is to ensure that the export of certain goods does not pose a threat to national security, international relations, or other important interests.
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fill in the blank. the risk of a car bomb in a bank is about 1% whereas there is a 60% chance of an attack
The risk of a car bomb in a bank is about 1% whereas there is a 60% chance of an attack with a firearm.
The risk of a car bomb attack is very low, but it is still possible. It is important to be aware of the potential threat and take appropriate safety measures, such as installing protective barriers and surveillance systems.
Additionally, bank staff should be trained to be aware of suspicious activity and report it to the authorities. Finally, individuals should also take safety precautions such as parking in well-lit areas, avoiding leaving valuables in plain sight, and being aware of their surroundings.
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The complete question is:
Fill in the blank.
The risk of a car bomb in a bank is about 1% whereas there is a 60% chance of an attack with a ________.
In 100 words or more, discuss what the different options are for sketch perspectives and what the forensic lab plays within crime scene investigation.
Sketch perspectives are an essential part of crime scene investigation, as they provide a visual representation of the scene and help investigators to accurately document and interpret the evidence collected. There are different options for sketch perspectives, including hand-drawn sketches, computer-generated sketches, and 3D modeling.
What is investigation?Investigation refers to the process of gathering information or evidence to establish facts and solve problems. It involves systematic and thorough inquiry or examination of a particular issue or event.
Forensic labs play an important role in crime scene investigation as they analyze and interpret the evidence collected by investigators. Forensic lab technicians use specialized equipment and techniques to analyze physical evidence, such as fingerprints, DNA, and ballistics, to identify suspects and provide evidence for criminal cases.
They work closely with investigators to provide accurate and timely results, which can help to solve crimes and bring perpetrators to justice. The forensic lab is a crucial component of the criminal justice system and plays an essential role in the investigation and prosecution of crimes.
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____: the process by which one party supplants another as the dominant party in a two-party political system.
A political realignment is the process by which one party supplants another as the dominant party in a two-party political system.
In American politics, the term "realignment" refers to the process in which a party's electoral support base undergoes a fundamental shift, resulting in long-term changes in the balance of power between the two major political parties. The electoral realignment can be attributed to a variety of factors, including demographic shifts, significant events or policy decisions, changes in political culture, and changes in party organizations' strategies.
A realignment occurs when a political party undergoes a major shift ins its political ideology and agenda, resulting in significant changes in its base of support. This shift may result in the creation of a new electoral majority, or it may result in a significant weakening or even the complete collapse of a party's former electoral coalition. As a result, the opposing party may rise to power, and a new era of political dominance may emerge.
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fill in the blank. expansionary fiscal policy will cause gross domestic product to and the interest rate to .
Expansionary fiscal policy will cause gross domestic product to increase and the interest rate to rise.
Expansionary fiscal policy involves increasing government spending and/or reducing taxes, which increases aggregate demand in the economy. This increased demand can lead to higher economic growth and an increase in gross domestic product (GDP).
However, an increase in demand can also lead to higher inflation, which can cause the central bank to raise interest rates in order to cool down the economy and control inflation. As interest rates rise, this can reduce investment and consumption, which can partially offset the positive effects of expansionary fiscal policy on GDP growth.
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QUESTION 2 "So, the Advocate Dali Mpofu is correct, we can afford free education for all South African children. But where I come from, I do not jubilate at free education, I want to revisit the curriculum; I want to know which publishing companies benefit from the education of our children, where they come from and what their philosophy of education is". Moss Mashamaite (2014). (a) Discuss the above extract with reference to Freire's views on education. (6)
According to the above extract Freire's views on education can be summed up as-
For Freire, education is never neutral. All education is political – either educating to support and maintain the status quo or helping to critique and change reality. Problem-posing education does not and cannot serve the interests of the oppressor.
Education mean today?Education is defined as a cycle of learning that helps a person acquire and understand more complex stuff. According to the training they have received, the knowledge that has been had about a person provides an example of thought and behavior.
The renowned definition of education?Education is an intentional process with certain goals in mind, such as information transmission or the development of abilities and moral character. The growth of comprehension, reason, compassion, and honesty are only a few examples of these objectives.
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According to Rule 217.12(1), Unprofessional Conduct, one example of an unsafe practice includes failing toA. provide a two-week notice when leaving employment.B. attend a scheduled staff meeting.C. arrive at work on time twice during the last month.D. manage client records properly.
To remain professionally accountable, it is important to provide a two-week notice when leaving employment. (A)
According to Rule 217.12(1), Unprofessional Conduct, failing to provide a two-week notice when leaving employment is an example of an unsafe practice. (A)
In other words, it is a breach of professional standards to not give a two-week notice prior to leaving a job.
By providing such a notice, the employee is respecting the employer’s time and allowing them to properly plan for a replacement. Not doing so can be disruptive to the organization and create a disorganized workflow.
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Question 1
Blood type AB is the rarest blood type, occurring in only 4% of the population in the United States. In Australia, only 1.5% of the population has blood type AB. Suppose a random sample of 50 U.S. residents and 40 Australians is obtained. Consider the random variables described below:
X: the number of US residents (out of 50) with blood type AB.
Y: the number of Australians (out of 40) with blood type AB.
Z: the total number of individuals (out of 90) with blood type AB.
Which of the following is true about the random variables X, Y, and Z? Check all that apply.
X is a binomial random variable with n = 50 and p = 0.04
Y is a binomial random variable with n = 30 and p = 0.015
Z is a binomial random variable with n = 90 and p = 0.055
Question 2
In Texas, 30% of parolees from prison return to prison within 3 years. Suppose 15 prisoners are released from a Texas prison on parole. Assume that whether or not one prisoner returns to prison is independent of whether any of the others return to prison. Let the random variable X be the number of parolees out of 15 that return to prison within 3 years. What are the values of the parameters for the binomial random variable X?
n =
p =
X is a binomial random variable with n = 50 and p = 0.04, Y is a binomial random variable with n = 40 and p = 0.015.
The value of n is 15 and p is 0.30 of the parameters for the binomial random variable X
1. X is a binomial random variable with n = 50 and p = 0.04
Y is a binomial random variable with n = 40 and p = 0.015
Z is not a binomial random variable, as it represents the total number of individuals with blood type AB, which is not a fixed number of trials with a constant probability of success.
2. The binomial distribution models the number of successes in a fixed number of independent trials, where each trial has the same probability of success. In this case, X represents the number of parolees out of 15 that return to prison within 3 years, where each parolee is either a success (returns to prison) or a failure (does not return to prison). Since each prisoner's return to prison is independent of the other prisoners' returns, we can model X as a binomial random variable with n = 15 (the number of trials) and p = 0.3 (the probability of success, or the proportion of parolees who return to prison within 3 years).
Therefore, final answer for question 1 is n = 40 and p =0.015 and for question 2 is n = 15 and p = 0.30.
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De jure discrimination and de facto discrimination are two ways in which some Americans are treated as less equal than others. Examples of public policies designed to address each of these forms of discrimination are
a. affirmative action (de jure), and the Voting Rights Act of 1965 (de facto).
b. the Voting Rights Act of 1965 (de jure), and the Brown decision (de facto).
c. the Supreme Court's busing decisions (de jure), and affirmative action decisions (de facto).
d. None of these answers is correct.
e. the Brown decision (de jure), and affirmative action (de facto).
Option A, that is affirmative action (de jure), and the Voting Rights Act of 1965 (de facto).
WHAT'S AFFIRMATIVE ACTIONAffirmative action is a public policy that was put in place to correct de jure discrimination that African Americans faced.
This policy was designed to increase the representation of historically marginalized groups in education, employment, and other sectors where they had been previously excluded. The Voting Rights Act of 1965 is a law that was put in place to address de facto discrimination in the form of voter suppression.
The act was passed to ensure that every citizen of the United States could vote without facing any discrimination. Together, affirmative action and the Voting Rights Act of 1965 are important policies designed to address both de jure and de facto discrimination.
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3 reasons why discrimanaton against gender is illegal in the South African Constitution
The reasons why discrimination against gender is illegal in the South African Constitution are equality dignity and non-discrimination.
The three reasons can be elaborated as -
Equality: The South African Constitution upholds the principle of equality, which states that everyone has a right to the same level of protection and advantage under the law and that no one may be subjected to unfair discrimination on account of any factor, including gender. Hence, discrimination based on gender is against the law and against the constitution.
Human dignity: The Constitution also affirms that every individual has intrinsic worth and forbids actions that lessen or undermine that worth. Discrimination against women or other genders is illegal because it frequently rests on presumptions and prejudices that violate their fundamental dignity.
Non-discrimination: The Constitution clearly forbids discrimination on the basis of gender in addition to racial, ethnic, and religious distinctions in a number of settings, such as the workplace, educational institutions, and public services. This means that discriminating against people based on their gender is prohibited by law for businesses and governmental organisations.
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What did the 13th 14th and 15th amendments do during reconstruction?
The Reconstruction Amendments, sometimes known as the 13th, 14th, and 15th Amendments to the Constitution, played a significant role in granting African Americans citizenship rights and protections.
Slavery was officially abolished by the 13th Amendment. African Americans were made equal citizens of the United States via the 14th Amendment.
The Dred Scott v. Sanford ruling, in which Chief Justice Roger B. Taney of the Supreme Court stated that black Americans were not citizens and as a result had "no rights which the white man was bound to respect," was reversed by this amendment.
Black American men now have the right to vote thanks to the 15th Amendment. Northern African Americans were steadfast supporters of these amendments, pushing for equality on behalf of both themselves and their recently freed colleagues.
Democrats in Pennsylvania's neighboring state of New Jersey resisted ratification, despite the fact that Pennsylvania was one of the first states to do so in February 1865.
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valley mart told its employees that they would be fired if they actively supported a unionizing effort. valley mart has committed an unfair labor practice T/F
The statement "valley mart told its employees that they would be fired if they actively supported a unionizing effort, valley mart has committed an unfair labor practice" is true because it is considered an unfair labor practice under the National Labor Relations Act (NLRA).
The correct answer is true.
The NLRA is a federal law that protects employees' rights to organize and engage in concerted activity to improve their wages, benefits, and working conditions. This includes the right to form or join a union, bargain collectively with their employer, and engage in other concerted activities for mutual aid and protection.
Valley Mart's statement that employees would be fired if they actively supported a unionizing effort is considered an unfair labor practice under the NLRA because it is a form of interference, restraint, or coercion that can intimidate employees and chill the exercise of their protected rights.
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fill in the blank. a solution to the free-rider problem is the government's power to___, which is something businesses and individuals___have the power to do.
A solution to the free-rider problem is the government's power to force people to pay for the goods they benefit from, which is something businesses and individuals do not have the power to do.
Anyone who wants others to pay for a public good but intends to use it themselves is considered a free rider; if many people engage in this behavior, the public good may never be provided.
Because free riders try to use the public good without paying for it, markets frequently struggle to produce them.
The free rider issue can be solved by taking steps to ensure that those who use a public good pay for it. Governmental actions, social pressures, and payment collection are examples of such measures—in circumstances where markets have found a way to do so.
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When talking to his investment clients, broker Adam often refers to tax shelters. This term typically means?
Explanation:
The term "tax shelter" typically refers to a legal method of reducing taxable income and, therefore, the amount of tax owed. Tax shelters can take many different forms, including investment opportunities such as individual retirement accounts (IRAs), 401(k) plans, and annuities, as well as certain types of business expenses or deductions.
At one point, U.S. presidents accumulated so much power that Arthur Schlesinger Jr. warned of which of the following?
an imperial presidency
a dynamic presidency
a dual presidency
an amorphous presidency
U.S. presidents once grew to have so much authority that Arthur Schlesinger Jr. foresaw an imperial administration.
Imperial administration refers to a type of government that exercises authority over a vast and diverse territory or empire, often involving the rule of one individual or a small group of individuals. In this type of administration, there is a central government that exercises control over various regions, territories, and subject peoples.
The concept of imperial administration has been present throughout history, from ancient empires such as the Roman Empire to modern empires like the British Empire. Imperial administration often involves a hierarchical system of government, with the central government delegating authority to local officials and administrators.
Imperial administration can be both efficient and effective, as it allows for centralized decision-making and coordination of resources. However, it can also be criticized for being overly bureaucratic, oppressive, and authoritarian, as it often relies on force and coercion to maintain control over subject populations.
Overall, imperial administration remains a topic of study and debate, with scholars and policymakers grappling with the advantages and disadvantages of this type of government.
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Please answer What are some advantages and disadvantages of having so many levels of government below the federal government? Please explain:
Advantages, such as shielding us from tyranny, dispersing power, expanding citizen participation, and increasing effectiveness, as well as disadvantages, such as claiming to protect slavery and segregation.
How is federal government better than?The provincial or local governments can be given orders by the central government. Compared to unitary governments, the federal government is superior because It helps to avoid conflict; Governments share power rather than having it centralized. Under unitary government, either there is only one level of government or the sub-units are subordinate to the central government. The central government can issue directives to the provincial or local governments.
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Which of the following areas of intellectual property law is the least impacted by state statutory or common law? a.) patents b.) copyrights c.) trademarks d.) trade secrets
Trade secrets are the area of intellectual property law that is least impacted by state statutory or common law.
Unlike patents, copyrights, and trademarks, which are governed by federal statutes, trade secret law is primarily based on common law principles that vary from state to state. While there are some federal laws that protect trade secrets, such as the Economic Espionage Act of 1996, the majority of trade secret law is governed by state law. This is because trade secret law is based on the legal principle of confidentiality, which is enforced through contracts and state tort law. As a result, trade secret law varies significantly depending on the jurisdiction in which it is applied.
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(p. 130) According to the chapter, the 2009 Credit Card Responsibility and Disclosure Act: A. requires credit cards companies to disclose specific reasons for increasing interest rates.
B. requires persons under 21 to show independent income or use a co-signer to acquire a credit card.
C. prohibits credit card companies from charging more than 18% interest.
D. requires students to disclose expected college loan debt when applying for a credit card.
According to the chapter, the 2009 Credit Card Responsibility and Disclosure Act: requires persons under 21 to show independent income or use a co-signer to acquire a credit card. (B)
The Credit Card Accountability Responsibility and Disclosure Act of 2009, also known as the Credit CARD Act of 2009, is a federal statute that was signed into law by President Barack Obama on May 22, 2009.
The act is intended to protect consumers from abusive credit card practices and to improve transparency in the credit card sector.The Credit CARD Act of 2009 is a comprehensive credit card reform law that includes a number of provisions aimed at safeguarding customers from unfair and deceptive practices.
Some of the Credit CARD Act of 2009's key provisions include the following:Credit card issuers must give customers a minimum of 21 days to pay their bills;Credit card issuers must notify customers of changes to their account terms at least 45 days ahead of time;Credit card issuers are prohibited from charging interest on fees and penalties;
Credit card issuers are required to apply payments to high-interest balances first;
Credit card issuers are required to mail monthly statements to customers 21 days prior to their payment due date;
Credit card issuers must provide customers with a notice before increasing their interest rate;
Credit card issuers must provide customers with a warning before assessing an over-limit fee on their account; and
Persons under the age of 21 are required to demonstrate independent income or use a co-signer to acquire a credit card.
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the supreme court determined that enslaved people were property and therefore had no legal rights in .
The Supreme Court determined that enslaved people were property and therefore had no legal rights in Dred Scott v. Sandford case.
The Dred Scott v. Sandford case was heard by the United States Supreme Court on March 6, 1857, and ruled on March 6, 1857. This ruling was delivered by the United States Supreme Court’s Chief Justice Roger B. Taney. The case was between a slave named Dred Scott and his master’s widow, who was then residing in Missouri. Scott’s master had moved to Illinois and the Wisconsin territory, both of which were free territories. Dred Scott argued that he and his family should be freed since they had lived in free territory. Taney dismissed this argument and stated that enslaved people were property and therefore had no legal rights.Learn more about Dred Scott v. Sandford case: https://brainly.com/question/28042544
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