Which is produced around a wire when an electrical current is in the wire? magnetic field solenoid electron flow electromagnet

Answer:

a) 1.05

b) 43.6°

Explanation:

a) The index refraction that describes the material can be found using Brewster's law:

[tex] \theta_{1} = arctan(\frac{n_{2}}{n_{1}}) [/tex]

where:

n₁ is the refractive index of the initial medium through which the light propagates (air) = 1

n₂ is the index of the material=?

θ₁ = 46.5°    

[tex] n_{2} = n_{1}tan(\theta_{1}) = tan(46.5) = 1.05 [/tex]

Hence, the material's index refraction is 1.05.

b) The angle of refraction can be found as follows:

[tex] n_{1}sin(\theta_{1}) = n_{2}sin(\theta_{2}) [/tex]

[tex]sin(\theta_{2}) = \frac{n_{1}sin(\theta_{1})}{n_{2}} = \frac{sin(46.5)}{1.05} = 0.69[/tex]

[tex] \theta_{2} = arcsin(0.69) = 43.6^{\circ} [/tex]

Therefore, the angle of refraction is 43.6°.

I hope it helps you!

Answer:

e) west

Explanation:

According to Lorentz left hand rule, the left hand is used to represent the motion of an electron in a magnetic field. Hold out the left hand with the fingers held out parallel to the palm, and the thumb held at right angle to the other fingers. If the thumb represents the motion of the electron though the field, and the other fingers represent the direction of the field, then the palm will push in the direction of the force on the particle.

In this case, if we point the thumb to the south (towards your body), with the palm facing up, then the fingers will point west.

Answer:

50 cm long

When 35cm long wrench is compared to 50cm long wrench, we find that the 50cm long wrench produces more turning effect of force because it has longer distance between fulcrum and line of action of force. At conclusion, the more the turning effect of force the more it is easy to unscrew bolts.

Answer:

10.75 A

The current is in opposite direction since it causes a repulsion force between the wires

Explanation:

Force per unit length on the wires = 4.30×10^−5 N/m

distance between wires = 2.6 cm = 0.026 m

current through one wire = 0.52 A

current on the other wire = ?

Recall that the force per unit length of two wires conducting and lying parallel and close to each other is given as

[tex]F/l[/tex] = [tex]\frac{u_{0}I_{1} I_{2} }{2\pi r }[/tex]

where [tex]F/l[/tex] is the force per unit length on the wires

[tex]u_{0}[/tex] = permeability of vacuum = 4π × 10^−7 T-m/A

[tex]I_{1}[/tex] = current on the first wire = 0.520 A

[tex]I_{2}[/tex] = current on the other wire = ?

r = the distance between the two wire = 0.026 m

substituting the value into the equation, we have

4.30×10^−5 = [tex]\frac{4\pi *10^{-7}*0.520*I_{2} }{2\pi *0.026}[/tex] =  [tex]\frac{ 2*10^{-7}*0.520*I_{2} }{0.026}[/tex]

4.30×10^−5 = 4 x 10^-6 [tex]I_{2}[/tex]

[tex]I_{2}[/tex] = (4.30×10^-5)/(4 x 10^-6) = 10.75 A

The current is in opposite direction since it causes a repulsion force between the wires.

Answer:

physical feature of a wave is related to the depth of the wave base is The circular orbital motion

B. The wave base is the depth, and the still water level is the horizontal level

Answer:

The induced emf in the coil is 7.843 V

Explanation:

Given;

number of turns of the coil, N = 1300 turn

diameter of the coil, d = 2.4 cm = 0.024 m

initial magnetic field, B₁ = 0 T

final magnetic field, B₂ = 0.12 T

change in time, dt = 9.0 ms = 9 x 10⁻³ s

Area of the coil is given by;

A = πr²

radius of the coil, r = 0.024 / 2

radius of the coil, r = 0.012 m

A = π(0.012)²

A = 4.525 x 10⁻⁴ m²

The induced emf in the coil is given by;

E = NA(dB/dt)

E =  NA [(B₂ - B₁) /dt]

E = 1300 x 4.525 x 10⁻⁴ (0.12 - 0) / (9 x 10⁻³)

E = 7.843 V

Therefore, the induced emf in the coil is 7.843 V

Answer: The correct answer for this question is letter (B) The electromagnetic waves reach Earth, while the mechanical waves do not. The sun generates both mechanical and electromagnetic waves. Space, between the sun and the earth is a nearly vacuum. So mechanical wave can not spread out in the vacuum.

Hope this helps!

Answer:

The electromagnetic waves reach Earth, while the mechanical waves do not

Answer:

692 J/kg/°C

Explanation:

Electric energy added = amount of heat

Power × time = mass × SHC × increase in temperature

Pt = mCΔT

(15 V × 3 A) (10 min × 60 s/min) = (0.6 kg) C (85°C − 20°C)

C = 692 J/kg/°C

Answer:

The values is  [tex]B = 3.2 *10^{-8} \ T[/tex]

The  direction is out of the plane

Explanation:

From the question we are told that

  The  magnitude of the electric field is  [tex]E = 9.6 \ V/m[/tex]

The  magnitude of the magnetic field is mathematically represented as

       [tex]B = \frac{E}{c}[/tex]

where c is the speed of light with value

      [tex]B = \frac{ 9.6}{3.0 *10^{8}}[/tex]

     [tex]B = 3.2 *10^{-8} \ T[/tex]

Given that the direction off the electromagnetic wave( c ) is  northward(y-plane ) and  the electric field(E) is eastward(x-plane ) then the magnetic field will be acting in the out of the page  (z-plane  )

Answer:

we see it is a linear relationship.

Explanation:

The magnetic flux is u solenoid is

      B = μ₀ N/L   I

where N is the number of loops, L the length and I the current

By applying this expression to our case we have that the current is the same in all cases and we can assume the constant length. Consequently we see that the magnitude of the magnetic field decreases with the number of loops

      B = (μ₀ I / L)  N

the amount between paracentesis constant, in the case of 4 loop the field is worth

      B = cte 4

N       B

4       4 cte

3       3 cte

2       2 cte

1        1 cte

as we see it is a linear relationship.

In addition, this effect for such a small number of turns the direction of the field that is parallel to the normal of the lines will oscillate,

Answer:

An aircraft, flying in the vicinity of 18,000 ft altitude from west to east over the US at 12 Z today, will __LOSE___ altitude if the altimeter is not corrected

Answer:

Change in the frequency (in Hz) = 104.96 Hz

Explanation:

Given:

Speed of sound in air (v) = 343 m/s

Speed of car (v1) 36 m/s

Frequency(f) = 500 Hz

Find:

Change in the frequency (in Hz)

Computation:

Frequency hear by the observer(before)(f1) = [f(v+v1)] / v

Frequency hear by the observer(f1) = [500(343+36)] / 343

Frequency hear by the observer(f1) = 552.48 Hz

Frequency hear by the observer(after)(f2) = [f(v-v1)] / v

Frequency hear by the observer(f2) = [500(343-36)] / 343

Frequency hear by the observer(f2) = 447.52 Hz

Change in the frequency (in Hz) = f1 - f2

Change in the frequency (in Hz) = 552.48 Hz - 447.52 Hz

Change in the frequency (in Hz) = 104.96 Hz

Answer:

ΔP.E = 6.48 x 10⁸ J

Explanation:

First we need to calculate the acceleration due to gravity on the surface of moon:

g = GM/R²

where,

g = acceleration due to gravity on the surface of moon = ?

G = Universal Gravitational Constant = 6.67 x 10⁻¹¹ N.m²/kg²

M = Mass of moon = 7.36 x 10²² kg

R = Radius of Moon = 1740 km = 1.74 x 10⁶ m

Therefore,

g = (6.67 x 10⁻¹¹ N.m²/kg²)(7.36 x 10²² kg)/(1.74 x 10⁶ m)²

g = 2.82 m/s²

now the change in gravitational potential energy of rocket is calculated by:

ΔP.E = mgΔh

where,

ΔP.E = Change in Gravitational Potential Energy = ?

m = mass of rocket = 1090 kg

Δh = altitude = 211 km = 2.11 x 10⁵ m

Therefore,

ΔP.E = (1090 kg)(2.82 m/s²)(2.11 x 10⁵ m)

ΔP.E = 6.48 x 10⁸ J

Explanation:

Given that,

Linear speed of both disks is 5 m/s

Mass of disk 1 is 10 kg

Radius of disk 1 is 35 cm or 0.35 m

Mass of disk 2 is 3 kg

Radius of disk 2 is 7 cm or 0.07 m

(a) The angular velocity of disk 1 is :

[tex]v=r_1\omega_1\\\\\omega_1=\dfrac{v}{r_1}\\\\\omega_1=\dfrac{5}{0.35}\\\\\omega_1=14.28\ rad/s[/tex]

(b) The angular velocity of disk 2 is :

[tex]v=r_2\omega_2\\\\\omega_2=\dfrac{v}{r_2}\\\\\omega_2=\dfrac{5}{0.07}\\\\\omega_2=71.42\ rad/s[/tex]

(c) The moment of inertia for the two disk system is given by :

[tex]I=I_1+I_2\\\\I=\dfrac{1}{2}m_1r_1^2+\dfrac{1}{2}m_2r_2^2\\\\I=\dfrac{1}{2}(m_1r_1^2+m_2r_2^2)\\\\I=\dfrac{1}{2}\times (10\times (0.35)^2+3\times (0.07)^2)\\\\I=0.619\ kg-m^2[/tex]

Hence, this is the required solution.

Answer:

2.98 kN, 69.1° below the horizontal

Explanation:

Sum of forces in the x direction:

Fₓ = 3 kN cos 30° − 2 kN cos 40°

Fₓ ≈ 1.07 kN

Sum of forces in the y direction:

Fᵧ = -3 kN sin 30° − 2 kN sin 40°

Fᵧ = -2.79 kN

Magnitude of the resultant force is:

F² = Fₓ² + Fᵧ²

F = 2.98 kN

The direction of the resultant force is:

tan θ = Fᵧ / Fₓ

θ = -69.1°

Each electron winds up with kinetic energy of

(270 keV)

plus

(whatever KE it had when it started accelerating).

Answer:

The ability of a water strider to move along the surface of water without breaking the surface is due to:

SURFACE TENSION

Explanation:

this is because Water molecules are more attracted to each other than they are to other materials, so they generate a force to stay together called surface tension. Which allows the strider to move without breaking the surface

Answer:

Given that

capacitor being charged by a current i c has a displacementcurrent equal to i c between the plates∴

displacement current iD =i c=0.280 Aradius of the circular plate r = 4 cm=0.04 m

( A ) . displacement current density j D = iD / ( π r 2 )=0.28 / ( 3.14 * 0.04 2 )=55.73 A / m 2

( B ) . displacement current density j

D = ε( dE / dt )the rate at which the electric field between the plates is changing(

dE / dt ) = jD/ εdE/ dt ) = 55.73/ 8.85 * 10 -12=6.3*10 12 N / C - s( C ) . the induced magnetic field between theplates B = ( μ * r / 2π R 2) * i c ----( 1 )whereR= 2 cm=0.02 mr= 4 cm=0.04 mμ=permeability of free space=4π* 10 -7 H( D )substitute R = 1 cm = 0.01 m inequation ( 1 ),wegetanswer

Answer:

Yes.

Explanation:

This is because "negative velocity" just means it is in the negative in relation to the point of 0. Negative velocity doesn't equal a decrease in velocity. For example lets say you were parked next to a cone (this cone represents zero) if you accelerate forwards then that would be positive acceleration. If you were to accelerate backwards, this would be in the negative direction, aka negative velocity.

SUMMARY:

A negative velocity means that the object which has the negative velocity is moving in the opposite direction of an object moving at a positive velocity. This is a question of frame of reference. The possibility for the velocity is what makes it different to the speed. Speed is only positive.

Given that,

Temperature = 10⁸ K

We need to calculate the peak wavelength in the blackbody spectrum

Using formula of peak wavelength

[tex]peak\ wavelength = \dfrac{2.898\times10^{-3}}{T}[/tex]

Where, T= temperature

Put the value into the formula

[tex]peak\ wavelength = \dfrac{2.898\times10^{-3}}{10^{8}}[/tex]

[tex]peak\ wavelength = 2.90\times10^{-11}\ m[/tex]

[tex]peak\ wavelength = 290\ nm[/tex]

This range of wavelength is ultraviolet.

Hence, The peak wavelength in the blackbody spectrum is 290 nm and the range of wavelength is ultraviolet electromagnetic spectrum .

Answer:

a) true

Explanation:

Answer:

1) Mass and acceleration

2) 4.0

3)When the net force applied to an object changes, the acceleration changes by the same factor.

4)acceleration

5)The acceleration is half of its original value

Explanation:

A wise man once said if you cheat together you succeed together! lol i am jk  

Answer:

E. The gas absorbs 50 of energy as heat and does 50」ot work

Explanation:

This is following the law of thermodynamics that energy is neither created nor destroyed

Answer:

The near point is  [tex]n =44.8 \ cm[/tex]

Explanation:

From the question we are told that

   The power is  [tex]P = 1.50[/tex]

   The  distance from the eye is  [tex]k = 1.8 \ cm[/tex]

    The distance of the book from the eye is [tex]z = -28 \ cm[/tex]

Generally the focal length of the glasses is  

       [tex]f = \frac{1}{P}[/tex]

=>   [tex]f = \frac{1}{1.50 }[/tex]

=>   [tex]f = 0.667 \ m[/tex]

=>   [tex]f = 66.7 \ cm[/tex]

The object distance is evaluated as

     [tex]u = z + k[/tex]

=>   [tex]u = -28 + 1.8[/tex]

=>  [tex]u = -26.2 \ cm[/tex]

The image distance is evaluated from lens formula as

       [tex]\frac{1}{v} = \frac{1}{f} + \frac{1}{u}[/tex]

=>   [tex]\frac{1}{v} = \frac{1}{66.7} + \frac{1}{-26.2}[/tex]

=>   [tex]v=- \frac{1}{0.0232}[/tex]

=>    [tex]v=- 43 \ cm[/tex]

The  near point is evaluated as

      [tex]n = -v + k[/tex]

=>    [tex]n =-(-43) + 1.8[/tex]

=>    [tex]n =44.8 \ cm[/tex]

Answer:

speed of the alpha particle is 2 x 10^7 m/s.

Explanation:

energy of alpha particle = 8.3 Mev

1 Mev = 1.602 x 10^-13 J

8.3 Mev = [tex]x[/tex]

solving, [tex]x[/tex] = 8.3 x 1.602 x 10^-13 = 1.329 x 10^-12 J

mass of a alpha particle = 6.645 x 10^−27 kg

The energy of the alpha particle is the kinetic energy KE of the alpha particle

KE = [tex]\frac{1}{2}mv^{2}[/tex]

where m is the mass of the alpha particle

v is  the velocity of the alpha particle

substituting values, we have

1.329 x 10^-12 = [tex]\frac{1}{2}*6.645*10^{-27}*v^{2}[/tex]

[tex]v^{2}[/tex] = 4 x 10^14

[tex]v = \sqrt{4*10^{14} }[/tex] = 2 x 10^7 m/s

Answer:

The width of the slit is 0.4 mm (0.00040 m).

Explanation:

From the Young's interference expression, we have;

(λ ÷ d) = (Δy ÷ D)

where λ is the wavelength of the light, D is the distance of the slit to the screen, d is the width of slit and Δy is the fringe separation.

Thus,

d = (Dλ) ÷ Δy

D = 3.30 m, Δy = 4.7 mm (0.0047 m) and λ = 563 nm (563 ×[tex]10^{-9}[/tex] m)

d = (3.30 × 563 ×[tex]10^{-9}[/tex] ) ÷ (0.0047)

  = 1.8579 × [tex]10^{-6}[/tex] ÷ 0.0047

  = 0.0003951 m

d = 0.00040 m

The width of the slit is 0.4 mm (0.00040 m).

Answer:

E = VdB

Explanation:

This is because canceling the electric and magnetic force means

q.vd. B= we

E= Vd. B

Answer:

   L = 44,096 m

Explanation:

The speed of the sound wave is constant therefore we can use the relations of uniform kinematics

             v = x / t

the speed of the wave in the bar is

            v = 15 v or

            v = 15 343

             v = 5145 m / s

The sound at the bar goes the distance

             L = v t

Sound in the air travels the same distance

             L = v_air (t + 0.12)

as the two recognize the same dissonance,

             v t = v_air (t +0.12)

             t (v- v_air) = 0.12 v_air

              t = 0.12 v_air / (v -v_air)

l

et's calculate

             t = 0.12 343 / (5145 - 343)

             t = 8.57 10-3 s

The length of the bar is

              L = 5145 8.57 10-3

              L = 44,096 m

Explanation:

The De-Broglie wavelength is given by :

[tex]\lambda=\dfrac{h}{p}[/tex]

h is Planck's constant

p is momentum

In this case, an electron and a proton both moving at nonrelativistic speeds have the same de Broglie wavelength. Mass of electron and proton is different. It means their velocity and energy are different.

Only momentum is the factor that remains same for both particles i.e. momentum.

Answer:

I believe the answer is A volleyball player sliding across the court while diving for the ball.

Explanation:

Kinetic friction is a body moving on the surface experiences a force in the opposite direction of its movement.

Hope this helps! （づ￣3￣）づ╭❤～