What was a contributing factor to the failure of the League of Nations?
A. European nations refused to join.
B. The United States did not participate.
C. Germany demanded to be represented.
D. The League did not have a permanent headquarters.

Answers

Answer 1

Answer:

B The United States did not participate. The USA was known as one of the strongest nations.


Related Questions

When listeners are very concerned about the topic of a persuasive speech, their latitude of acceptance does what?hostile (don't agree)narrowsboomerang effect

Answers

When listeners are very concerned about the topic of a persuasive speech, their latitude of acceptance narrows.

Latitudes of acceptance are a range of opinions or positions that a person is willing to accept or find reasonable on a particular issue.

When a listener is highly concerned about a topic, they may have a narrower latitude of acceptance, meaning they are less likely to accept positions that are outside of their established beliefs or values. This is because the listener may have more invested in the topic and may be more resistant to changing their position.

The boomerang effect refers to a situation where an attempt at persuasion has the opposite effect of what was intended, leading the listener to become even more entrenched in their position. This can occur when the listener perceives the persuasive message as a threat to their values or beliefs.

Therefore, the correct answer is that when listeners are very concerned about the topic of a persuasive speech, their latitude of acceptance narrows.

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which is true about qualitative research ? a. on the collection of numeric information involves the gathering of subjective materials b. attempts to have tight control over the research context involves deductive processes

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The true statement about qualitative research is that qualitative research involves the gathering of subjective materials. (A)

Qualitative research involves collecting non-numerical data, such as opinions, feelings, and experiences, through methods such as interviews, questionnaires, and focus groups. It is used to explore the meanings, thoughts, and feelings of individuals and does not attempt to control the research context as in quantitative research.   (A)

Qualitative research is often used in the early stages of research to explore and understand the problem and to develop hypotheses for further investigation. It is a more inductive approach and is used to develop theories and insights from the data.

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the defense of age/infancy is available under the texas penal code in a wide array of circumstances and with many exceptions. neither the adult nor the juvenile justice system asserts jurisdiction over the otherwise criminal conduct of an individual if the individual is under:

Answers

Neither the adult nor the juvenile justice system asserts jurisdiction over the otherwise criminal conduct of an individual if the individual is under 10 years old.

In the event of a criminal accusation or prosecution, the defense of age/infancy may be used in a variety of situations. The defense of age/infancy is available to anyone under the age of 17 who is accused of a crime in Texas. In general, juveniles who are accused of crimes are dealt with by the juvenile justice system, which is intended to be less punitive and more rehabilitative than the adult criminal justice system.

Despite this, the juvenile justice system can be very harsh in certain circumstances. Therefore, the defense of age/infancy is available under the Texas Penal Code in a wide range of situations, and neither the adult nor the juvenile justice system asserts jurisdiction over the otherwise criminal behavior of an individual if the individual is under 10 years old.

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CTENOPHORA
Know the apomorphies:
"Comb jellies"
apomorphies: complete gut (the gut has two opening, a mouth and anus), and determinate cleavage (the condition whereby if a cell is removed from the early four-celled stage and allowed to develop on its own, it will NOT be able to form a complete, viable embryo).

Answers

CTENOPHORA or Comb jellies are characterized by the presence of apomorphies which are complete gut and determinate cleavage. The complete gut consists of two openings, a mouth and anus, and determinate cleavage is the condition whereby if a cell is removed from the early four-celled stage and allowed to develop on its own, it will NOT be able to form a complete, viable embryo.

What are Apomorphies?

Apomorphy is a characteristic of a group of organisms that have evolved after the group they belong to. This implies that all species within that group share that particular characteristic. It distinguishes it from other organisms, either living or extinct, and can be used to identify the evolutionary history of the group.

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1. Based on these two documents, state one fact about slavery in northern states during the eighteenth century.

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In 1740, one-fifth of New York City's population was enslaved is one of facts about slavery in northern states during the eighteenth century.

The maritime economy of the 18th century of this region was heavily influenced by the slave trade. In this area, the societal elite that maintained power and influence were slave owners. More than 40,000 slaves were once held in servitude in Colonial America's port cities and on the region's small farms as a result of the transatlantic triangle trade in molasses, rum, and slaves, which was profitable for Northern merchants. One-fifth of the people living in New York City in 1740 were slaves.

The Declaration of Independence not only declared the colonies independent from Great Britain, but it also served as inspiration for Vermont's state constitution, which forbade slavery in 1777. All Northern states had passed resolutions outlawing slavery within their borders by the year 1804.

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if a person prefers dates, events, and schedules to start at a set time and end at a set time. this person may be more likely to have a more orientation to time?

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Yes, it is possible that a person who prefers dates, events, and schedules to start and end at a set time may have a more "time-oriented" personality.

Being time-oriented means valuing punctuality, adherence to schedules, and deadlines. People who are time-oriented tend to plan ahead, prioritize their time, and may feel anxious or stressed when things don't go according to schedule.

However, it's important to note that there are many factors that can influence a person's orientation to time, including cultural and societal norms, personal experiences, and individual personality traits. So while a preference for set schedules and deadlines may be one indicator of a time-oriented personality, it is not the only factor to consider.

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your communication skills are not directly related to how effective you are as a group member.TrueFalse

Answers

Answer:

The correct answer is False

Explanation:

Group work refers to a voluntary cooperation of different people that work together to achieve a certain goal or help each other during a process, besides collaborative skills, group work usually implies a lot of communication as it is through communication members of the group can agree on distribution of tasks, procedures, roles, among others that are key to achieve the common goal. Due to this, communication skills determine how effective you are as a group member as a lack of communication will slow down the progress of the whole group and lead to multiple problems such as discussions or divided positions.

a local tv station has hired a remote pilot to operate their small unmanned aircraft to cover breaking news stories. the remote pilot has had multiple near misses with obstacles on the ground and two small unmanned aircraft accidents. what would be a solution for the news station to improve their operating safety culture?

Answers

The best solution for the news station to improve its operating safety culture would be to implement a comprehensive safety program that includes risk assessment, pre-flight checklists, and training on how to safely operate small unmanned aircraft. Additionally, the station should require that the remote pilot be tested regularly to ensure they are up-to-date on the latest safety standards and are familiar with the specific aircraft they are operating. Finally, the station should implement an incident reporting system so that any potential safety hazards or near-misses can be addressed quickly and efficiently.

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Noreen is a member of an egalitarian culture, one in which few distinctions are made between individuals and groups. Her culture is low onA) cultural diversity.B) gender equality.C) national culture.D) social stratification.E) cultural pluralism.

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Noreen is a member of an egalitarian culture, one in which few distinctions are made between individuals and groups. Her culture is low on Social stratification.

What is egalitarian culture?

The term "egalitarian culture" refers to a culture in which everyone is treated as equal. No special attention is given to anyone, and distinctions are not made between different groups or individuals. Social stratification is a hierarchical ordering of people and groups within a society.

What is social stratification?

The process of social stratification involves placing people and groups into layers or strata based on a set of criteria, such as income, occupation, education, or social status. Social stratification creates different classes of people in society, with some enjoying more privileges and power than others.

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Mark does not study for an exam and consequently flunks it. Mark confronts his professor and explains that he expects a higher grade because he "deserves" great grades. How would Freud classify Mark?

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According to Freud, Mark would be classified as being in the oral stage, which is the first stage of psychosexual development. The oral stage is the first stage of psychosexual development, according to Sigmund Freud.

Oral stage occurs in the first year of a child's life and is characterized by an emphasis on oral gratification. The child obtains pleasure through oral activities such as breastfeeding, and the sucking reflex becomes a point of focus. The weaning process and the development of the ego are two significant events in the oral stage.

Freud believed that when an individual is fixated on the oral stage, he or she is more likely to have an oral personality. This personality type is characterized by the need for oral stimulation and excessive reliance on oral activities for comfort. Mark's behavior can be seen as a sign of his fixation on the oral stage because he is unable to control his need for pleasure and lacks the ability to take responsibility for his actions. His inability to control his desires causes him to fail the exam, and his lack of responsibility for his actions causes him to expect a higher grade than he deserves.

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why was Abraham Lincoln important enough to have a memorial or monument built in their honor???

Answers

Answer:

I hope this explanation has answered your question!

Explanation:

The Lincoln Memorial National Memorial honors the 16th and perhaps greatest president of the United States, and symbolizes his belief in the freedom and dignity of all people. Lincoln saved the Union, but in doing so, he also preserved America’s high ideals. The Lincoln Memorial stands on the National Mall in a position of honor, at the west end of a line extending from the United States Capitol and the Washington Monument. The memorial is one of the country’s beloved shrines. In the 20th century, it became a powerful symbol of the continuing struggle to extend one of the nation’s founding principles: “All men are created equal.”

network hard disk drives exist local to the system unit, either within the system unit or nearby. true or false?

Answers

This assertion is not wholly true. Drives that link to a computer network and offer file-level data storage are known as network-attached storage (NAS) devices.

Does the system unit's hard disc have a set position? False or true?

All the data and software are kept on hard discs. Inside the CPU box, it is fixed. A portable storage device that can hold a lot of data is the ULTRAHD 1 TB Pen Drive Compact Disk.

Is an HDD a storage unit? False or true?

A non-volatile data storage device is a computer hard disc drive (HDD). Non-volatile storage devices are those that retain data even after being turned off. All computers need storage devices, and HDDs are just one type of storage device.

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the ancient city of pompeii was destroyed by which volcano?

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The ancient city of Pompeii was destroyed by the eruption of Mount Vesuvius in 79 AD.

A volcano called Mount Vesuvius is situated in southern Italy, close to the city of Naples. It has erupted numerous times throughout history, including the well-known eruption in 79 AD that obliterated the ancient cities of Pompeii, Herculaneum, and Stabiae.

It is one of the most dangerous and active volcanoes in the world. Due to the possibility of additional eruptions, volcanologists continue to closely monitor Vesuvius, which last erupted in 1944.

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a third class medical certificate is issued to a 51-year-old pilot on may 3, this year. to exercise the privileges of a private pilot certificate, the medical certificate will be valid until midnight on
A. May 31, one year later.
B. May 31, two years later.
C. May 3, one year later.

Answers

A third class medical certificate is issued to a 51-year-old pilot on May 3, this year. To exercise the privileges of a private pilot certificate, the medical certificate will be valid until midnight on B. May 31, two years later.

A third class medical certificate is issued to a 51-year-old pilot on May 3, this year. A third-class medical certificate is a medical certificate issued by an aviation medical examiner (AME) that has authorized the holder to operate as a private pilot under Title 14 of the Code of Federal Regulations (14 CFR) Part 61, Section 23. According to the Federal Aviation Regulations (FARs), the duration of the medical certificate depends on the age of the pilot.

For a person who is 40 years of age or younger on the date of examination, the medical certificate is valid for 60 months or five years. For individuals who are 40 years of age or older on the date of examination, the medical certificate is valid for 24 months or two years. Therefore, for a 51-year-old pilot to exercise the privileges of a private pilot certificate, the medical certificate will be valid until midnight on May 31, two years later.

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Anna's friend grants her a life estate in one of his homes. Anna lives there until she gets married and then moves to another home with her husband. Anna's sister is looking for a place to live. 50 Anna lots Susie live in the home with the life estate. Which of the following events will end Susie's ownership of the property? Multiple Choice
A. Anna ges: B. Susio dies. C. Annak friend moves back into the property D. The life essite is revoked by Annas triend.

Answers

The following event will end Susie's ownership of the property is if "the life estate is revoked by Anna's friend". The correct option is D.

A life estate is a type of ownership interest that grants a person the right to use and occupy a property during their lifetime. In this case, Anna's friend granted her a life estate in one of his homes. However, if Anna's friend revokes the life estate, it means that Anna would lose her right to use and occupy the property, and Susie's ownership of the property would also come to an end. In other words, Anna's friend would regain full ownership of the property and would have the right to use or dispose of it as they see fit.

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please write a introduction on why religious diversity advances Australia fairly and why. thank you ​

Answers

Answer: Hey use this for reference ok i recommend combining these three intros into 1

Australia is one of the most culturally diverse nations in the world, with people from all corners of the globe calling it home. One aspect of this diversity that is often overlooked, however, is the wide range of religious beliefs and practices that exist within our communities. In fact, Australia is home to more than 100 different religious traditions, each with its own unique customs and values. While some may view this diversity as a challenge to social harmony, I argue that it actually advances Australia fairly by promoting understanding, empathy, and respect among different groups.

As a nation founded on the principles of democracy, equality, and freedom, Australia has a long history of embracing diversity and promoting the rights of individuals to express themselves and practice their beliefs. One area where this is particularly evident is in the realm of religious diversity. Despite the fact that Australia has a predominantly Christian population, people of all faiths are welcomed and accepted here. This openness and tolerance towards different religious traditions helps to foster a sense of community and inclusivity, and ensures that everyone has an equal opportunity to participate in society.

It is often said that diversity is Australia's greatest strength, and nowhere is this more evident than in our religious landscape. From Aboriginal Dreamtime spirituality to Hinduism, Buddhism, Islam, and many more, Australia is home to a rich tapestry of religious traditions. Rather than seeing this diversity as a source of conflict or division, I believe that it is a key factor in Australia's success as a multicultural society. By encouraging dialogue, understanding, and respect among different religious groups, we can create a more just and equitable society that benefits all Australians.

how a primary election where all voters (regardless of party membership) may vote for the party's nominee?

Answers

The primary election where all voters (regardless of party membership) may vote for the party's nominee is known as the open primary election. This type of primary election is prevalent in many states of the United States.

A primary election is a pre-election political event that takes place before the main election. This election is held to determine which candidates will be nominated to run in the main election. The primary election is a vital part of the democratic process.

During the primary election, registered voters get the opportunity to cast their votes for the candidate of their choice. The candidate who receives the maximum number of votes during the primary election is chosen as the party's nominee.

The primary election is different in different countries. In an open primary election, registered voters are allowed to vote for the candidate of their choice, regardless of their party affiliation. It means that even if a voter belongs to a particular party, they can vote for the candidate of the opposing party during the primary election.

It is called an open primary election because there are no restrictions on who can vote. The primary election is held like any other election, and voters can vote in person, through mail-in ballots, or online. In the United States, open primary elections are becoming more and more popular because they promote transparency and allow voters to choose candidates freely.

The open primary election is essential because it allows voters to choose the candidate of their choice without any restrictions. It is a way to ensure that every voter has an equal say in the election process, regardless of their party affiliation.

The open primary election is also a way to promote transparency and accountability in the electoral process. It is a way to ensure that the candidate who is nominated is genuinely representative of the people and has a chance to win the main election.

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Question 23 1 pts Matt is visibly excited to see his father when his father comes home from work every evening. Now, he is equally excited when he hears his father's car in the driveway, because he associates this with his father coming home. In this scenario, Matt's behavior can best be explained by imitation observational learning o classical conditioning o preparedness Question 24 1 pts In John B. Watson and Rosalie Rayner's demonstration of the role of classical conditioning in the development of fears, little Albert learned to fear a white rat. In this study, the white rat was the O conditioned stimulus positive reinforcer negative reinforcer o unconditioned stimulus

Answers

23. In this scenario, Matt's behavior can best be explained by classical conditioning. Therefore, the correct option is option 1.

24. In John B. Watson and Rosalie Rayner's demonstration of the role of classical conditioning in the development of fears, the white rat was the conditioned stimulus. Therefore, the correct option is option 1

23. Classical conditioning is a type of learning where an organism learns to associate one neutral stimulus with another stimulus that elicits a reflexive behavior. It is a type of learning where two stimuli are paired and come to be associated with each other. As a result, one stimulus will come to evoke the same response as the other.

In Matt's case, he is excited when he hears his father's car in the driveway because he associates this sound with his father coming home. This association of stimuli is an example of classical conditioning.

24. Albert learned to fear the white rat through the association of the white rat (neutral stimulus) with the loud noise (unconditioned stimulus). A conditioned stimulus is a stimulus that initially has no significance to an organism but after being repeatedly paired with an unconditioned stimulus, it elicits a learned response similar to the unconditioned stimulus. In little Albert's case, the white rat was a neutral stimulus that, after repeated pairings with the loud noise (unconditioned stimulus), became a conditioned stimulus that elicited a fear response.

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T/F: A researcher would like to compare two treatment conditions with a set of 30 scores in each treatment. If a repeated-measures design is used, the study will require n = 60 participants.

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False, a researcher would like to compare two treatment conditions with a set of 30 scores in each treatment. If a repeated-measures design is used, the study will require n = 60 participants.

What is repeated measures?

A repeated-measures design is a research design in which each subject receives both the control and the experimental treatment conditions. The same individuals are exposed to both treatments in a repeated-measures design. The subjects' behavior is evaluated before and after the experimental treatment.

Repeated-measures design is a highly efficient method to investigate the impact of a given stimulus on the same group of participants. Repeated measures may improve the effectiveness of a study by reducing the number of subjects needed.

It is therefore less expensive than other designs that require a larger number of participants. 60 participants will be required in this case.

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in classical conditioning, the conditioned stimulus signals the impending occurrence of: operant behavior. generalization. an unconditioned stimulus. a neutral stimulus.

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In classical conditioning, the conditioned stimulus signals the impending occurrence of an unconditioned stimulus. An unconditioned stimulus is a stimulus that produces a response naturally and without any prior conditioning.

What is classical conditioning?

Classical conditioning is a process in which an organism learns to associate two stimuli. One stimulus is usually a neutral stimulus, while the other is significant and triggers an automatic response. When these two stimuli are presented together, the neutral stimulus becomes an effective way of eliciting the reaction it once did not.

To give a brief insight into the topic of classical conditioning, Ivan Pavlov discovered the principle of classical conditioning by accident. Pavlov was studying digestion in dogs, and he noticed that the dogs salivated at the sight of the lab assistant who was feeding them.

When he realized the dogs were salivating before the arrival of the lab assistant, he realized he could manipulate the response. The Conditioned Stimulus and the Unconditioned Stimulus. A conditioned stimulus is a stimulus that becomes effective in eliciting a conditioned response after being paired with an unconditioned stimulus. A neutral stimulus, on the other hand, is a stimulus that does not elicit an automatic response.

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punishment and positive reinforcement work best when: group of answer choices extinction is used. a behavior is followed by no consequences. intrinsic motivation is used. there is a strong link between behavior and consequences.

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Punishment and positive reinforcement can be applied in many contexts, however, they work best when there is a strong link between the behavior and the consequences.

What is punishment?

Punishment is a way to reduce a specific unwanted behavior. Punishment works by using an undesirable consequence to make the unwanted behavior less frequent.

What is positive reinforcement?

Positive reinforcement is a method of strengthening a behavior by adding a reward or desirable outcome when the behavior occurs.

The purpose of positive reinforcement is to make the desired behavior more frequent and repeatable. The correct answer is: there is a strong link between behavior and consequences.

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When driving in normal conditions on a rural roadway, your following distance should be a. no more than one second. b. three seconds. c. twelve seconds.

Answers

When driving in normal conditions on a rural roadway, your following distance should be at least three seconds.

When driving in normal conditions on a rural roadway, it's important to maintain a safe following distance to ensure your safety and the safety of other road users. A following distance of no more than one second is not recommended as it does not give enough time to react to unexpected situations or to stop safely in case the vehicle in front of you brakes suddenly.

The recommended following distance in normal conditions on a rural roadway is at least three seconds. This means that you should identify a fixed object or landmark ahead of you and count the seconds it takes you to reach that same point. A three-second gap provides sufficient time to react to any sudden changes on the road, such as a car braking or an obstacle in the road.

It's important to note that following distances should be adjusted based on weather conditions, traffic flow, and other factors that may affect your driving. For example, in adverse weather conditions or heavy traffic, you may need to increase your following distance to maintain a safe and appropriate distance from the vehicle in front of you.

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Riddle:
A girl has as many brothers as sisters, but each brother has only half as many brothers as sisters. How many brothers and sistes are there in the family? This trick question gives you a bunch of ways to get totally confused if you try to figure out the answer. The key is to keep it simple. Be sure to count the sisters and brothers in total and in terms of their own number of siblings. Then the answer gets a little easier.

Answers

There are 4 daughters (sisters) and 3 sons (brothers)  in the family .

These kinds of puzzles make us use our brains more logically because they require us to do so. If one of the daughters were to include her siblings, she would include her three sisters (the two remaining daughters in the family) and her three brothers (3 Sons in the family). So, it is accurate to say that the girl has an equal number of brothers and sisters.

The number of brothers per brother is barely half that of sisters. This means that if one of the sons counts his siblings, he will find two brothers (the other two sons of the family are still alive) and four sisters (All 4 daughters in the family). The half of four is two. It consents to the stipulation .

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chapter 2 the basic idea of perceived organizational support is that people are willing to work hard and commit to their organizations when they believe that the organization truly cares about their best interests.a. true b. false

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The answer to the question is A: True. Perceived organizational support (POS) is a psychological construct that reflects the level of belief that employees have in the commitment of their organization to their well-being.

It suggests that employees are willing to work harder and be more committed to the organization when they feel that the organization cares about their needs. This is supported by research showing that when employees perceive that their organization cares about them, they experience higher job satisfaction, organizational commitment, and job performance.

Perceived organizational support has been studied in multiple contexts and its importance has been widely recognized. It has been found to be a major contributor to employee motivation, job satisfaction, commitment, and other aspects of employee well-being. Therefore, it is essential for organizations to cultivate a culture in which employees feel that their organization is supportive and genuinely cares about their best interests.

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How do the 2nd Continental Congress attempt to flatter/compliment King George III?

Answers

Congress passed the Olive Branch Petition, which was intended to be sent to the Ruler as a last-ditch effort to avoid declaring war.

What reaction did King George III have to the Second Continental Congress?

The resolution for independence was proposed by Virginia delegate Richard Henry Lee: "Resolved, that these united colonies are, and of privilege should become, a free and independent nation Voting was delayed while some delegates worked to persuade everyone else to support independence.

They formed a Continental army and elected U.s. as Commander-in-Chief, but the representatives also drafted the Olive Branch Petition, which they sent to King George III in the hopes of reaching a peaceful resolution. the kings of the kings of the kings of the kings of the kings of the kings of king.

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In the Palette of Narmer, Narmer is portrayed wearing a different crown on each side of the palette to
a) channel the power of the kings who preceded him.
b) acknowledge the different gods he worshipped.
c) symbolize the unification of Upper Egypt and Lower Egypt.
d) emphasize his perceived superiority over the gods.

Answers

In the Palette of Narmer, Narmer is portrayed wearing a different crown on each side of the palette to symbolize the unification of Upper Egypt and Lower Egypt. The correct answer is: C.

Palette of Narmer is an ancient Egyptian artifact. It was created during the Pre-Dynastic period of Egypt. It was discovered by archaeologists in the Temple of Horus at Nekhen (modern-day Hierakonpolis) in Upper Egypt. It is a ceremonial plaque or cosmetic palette used by Narmer.

It is made of grey-green siltstone and it measures 64 centimeters high and 42 centimeters wide. The Palette of Narmer has two sides. One side of the palette shows Narmer wearing the crown of Upper Egypt, and the other side of the palette shows Narmer wearing the crown of Lower Egypt.

The two sides of the palette show Narmer's dual status as king of both Upper and Lower Egypt. This was a significant achievement for Narmer, and it marked the beginning of the First Dynasty of Egypt. The unification of Upper and Lower Egypt brought about a new era of prosperity and stability for the people of Egypt.

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The ________ theory holds that people will compare their circumstances with those of similar others and that this behavior motivates them to seek fairness in the way they are rewarded for performance.

Answers

The Equity Theory holds that people will compare their circumstances with those of similar others and that this behavior motivates them to seek fairness in the way they are rewarded for performance.

What is Equity Theory?

Equity Theory is a framework of human interaction that explains the connection between workers' perceptions of fairness and their motivational level. Equity theory aims to promote equality and equity among workers by providing equal opportunities and reasonable rewards.

It maintains that employees' perceptions of fair treatment are more important than the actual equitable distribution of resources.

In addition, it assumes that people want to be treated fairly, that they compare themselves to others in similar situations to determine how they should be treated, and that their behavior is influenced by this.

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In the U.S. population over eighteen years of age in the mid-2010s, about 12% of people had less than a high school education. In prison, however, ______ had less than a high school education.

Answers

In the U.S. population over eighteen years of age in the mid-2010s, about 12% of people had less than a high school education. In prison, however, over 40% of people had less than a high school education.

According to the given information, in the mid-2010s, about 12% of the U.S. population had less than a high school education. But in prison, over 40% of people had less than a high school education. This data clearly shows the differences between the educational level of the U.S. population and prison population.

There are a few points that can be inferred from the given information:

People who have less than a high school education are more likely to get involved in illegal activities.Prison is a place where people who have committed illegal activities are kept as punishment for their deeds.People who are in prison are more likely to have less than a high school education compared to the general population.

This suggests that people who have less than a high school education are more likely to get involved in illegal activities, which might eventually lead them to imprisonment.

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our tendency to take personal pride in or offense to the accomplishments of a group is known as .

Answers

The tendency to take personal pride in or offense to the accomplishments of a group is known as Collective Self-esteem.According to Tajfel and Turner (1986), collective self-esteem is the way we view ourselves in the context of the group to which we belong.

This notion that we see ourselves in the context of our group is referred to as social identity theory. It is the measure of our sense of social identity,

which is shaped by the status and competence of the groups we belong to, that is known as collective self-esteem.Consequently, it can be concluded that the tendency to take personal pride in or offense to the accomplishments of a group is known as Collective Self-esteem.

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What two countries did Japan
interact the most with during this
era?

Answers

Answer:

What two countries did Japan

interact the most with during this

era?

Explanation:

During the Meiji era (1868-1912), Japan interacted the most with the United States and Europe, particularly Great Britain and France.

Other Questions
To decrease the costs of operating a lock in a large river, a new system of operation is proposed. The system will cost $830,000 to design and build. It is estimated that it will have to be reworked every 10 years at a cost of $120,000. In addition, an expenditure of $80,000 will have to be made at the end of the fifth year for a new type of gear that will not be available until then. Annual operating costs are expected to be $70,000 for the first 15 years and $100,000 a year thereafter. Compute the capitalized cost of perpetual service at i=7%. Suppose that you and a friend are playing cards and you decide to make a friendly wager. The bet is that you will draw two cards without replacement from a standard deck. If both cards are spades, your friend will pay you $49. Otherwise, you have to pay your friend $5. If this same bet is made 519 times, how much would you expect to win or lose? Round your answer to two decimal places. Losses must be expressed as negative values. Anger over the Declaration of PillnitzIn August 1791 the monarchs of Austria and Prussia issued the Declaration of Pillnitz, which professed their willingness to intervene in France to restore Louis XVI's rule if necessary. Angered by this intrusion into French affairs, the Jacobins declared war on Austria the following spring, proclaiming willingness to "incite a war of people against kings." 8. Conditional Formatting option is available under _______ group in the Home tab. The Chernobyl nuclear disaster led to the release of massive radiation, specifically iodine-131 and cesium-137, which has been connected to a variety of environmental problems in the 30 years following the disaster. A meltdown in which of the following structures at a nuclear power plant, such as Chernobyl, would most likely lead to the accidental release of radiation?Cooling towerTurbineGeneratorReactor coreReactor core look at picture for guidance need help asap 30 points! (troll I will report you and surely get you banned) Sarah is a healthy baby who was exclusively breast-fed for her first 12 months. Which of the following is most likely a description of her weights (at 3, 6, 9, and 12 months of age) as percentiles of the CDC growth chart reference population? 85th percentile at 3 months; 85th percentile at 6 months; 9oth percentile at 9 months; 95th percentile at 12 months 75th percentile at 3 months; 40th percentile at 6 months; 25th percentile at 9 months; 25th percentile at 12 months 30th percentile at 3 months; 50th percentile at 6 months; 70th percentile at 9 months; 80th percentile at 12 months 25th percentile at 3 months; 25th percentile at 6 months; 25th percentile at 9 months; 25th percentile at 12 months Suppose that Ms. Spencer is currently exhausting her money income by purchasing 10 units of A and 8 units of B at prices of $2 and $4 respectively. The marginal utility of the last units of A and B are 16 and 24 respectively. These data suggest that Ms. Spencer:a. has preferences that are at odds with the principle of diminishing marginal utility.b. considers A and B to be complementary goods.c. should buy less A and more B.d. should buy less B and more what is 7 in x 3 in x 6 in x 4 in x 15 in= Which aesthetic impact is the ending of "Gravity" most plausibly meant tohave on the reader?A. Anger that Elenita never got a chance to defy her parents B. Joy that Elenita and Gerald will become close friendsC. Relief that Elenita will not abandon her family and heritageD. Disappointment that Elenita's father never saw eye-to-eye with hiswife A Wireshark trace of TCP traffic between hosts A and B indicated the following segments. Host A sent a segment with SYN flag set to B at time 0 seconds. Host A retransmitted the SYN segment at 1 second, 3 seconds, and 7 seconds. What are the retransmit timeout (RTO) values at host A prior to sending the first SYN segment at time 0 and after the first retransmission?_______ seconds and _________ seconds? what research method did piaget use to make his discoveries about childrens cognitive development g Some neurotransmitters are called __________________ neurotransmitters because they depolarize the postsynaptic membrane. occurs when both parties agree that the contract should be terminated without performance. A rescission discharges the obligations of both parties under the contract. a secondary pollutant from cars and coal burning. there are two types. is called What is the gradient of the line segment between the points 2,4 and 4,6 Se depositan $ 8.000 en un banco que reconoce una tasa de inters del 36% anual, capitalizable mensualmente. Cul ser el monto acumulado en cuatro aos? what is -0.33333333333 as a fraction 1. What explanation does Cheever give for Parris' "mad look"? A flight instructor who has not satisfactorily accomplished a flight review or passed a required proficiency check within the prescribed time is