What is the cost to make one flag?

Answer:

40

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

40.20 luv:)

Step-by-step explanation:

It looks like given matrices are supposed to be

[tex]\begin{array}{ccccccc}\begin{bmatrix}3&2\\2&3\end{bmatrix} & & \begin{bmatrix}1&-1\\2&-1\end{bmatrix} & & \begin{bmatrix}1&2&3\\0&2&3\\0&0&3\end{bmatrix} & & \begin{bmatrix}3&1&1\\1&3&1\\1&1&3\end{bmatrix}\end{array}[/tex]

You can find the eigenvalues of matrix A by solving for λ in the equation det(A - λI) = 0, where I is the identity matrix. We also have the following facts about eigenvalues:

• tr(A) = trace of A = sum of diagonal entries = sum of eigenvalues

• det(A) = determinant of A = product of eigenvalues

(a) The eigenvalues are λ₁ = 1 and λ₂ = 5, since

[tex]\mathrm{tr}\begin{bmatrix}3&2\\2&3\end{bmatrix} = 3 + 3 = 6[/tex]

[tex]\det\begin{bmatrix}3&2\\2&3\end{bmatrix} = 3^2-2^2 = 5[/tex]

and

λ₁ + λ₂ = 6   ⇒   λ₁ λ₂ = λ₁ (6 - λ₁) = 5

⇒   6 λ₁ - λ₁² = 5

⇒   λ₁² - 6 λ₁ + 5 = 0

⇒   (λ₁ - 5) (λ₁ - 1) = 0

⇒   λ₁ = 5 or λ₁ = 1

To find the corresponding eigenvectors, we solve for the vector v in Av = λv, or equivalently (A - λI) v = 0.

• For λ = 1, we have

[tex]\begin{bmatrix}3-1&2\\2&3-1\end{bmatrix}v = \begin{bmatrix}2&2\\2&2\end{bmatrix}v = 0[/tex]

With v = (v₁, v₂)ᵀ, this equation tells us that

2 v₁ + 2 v₂ = 0

so that if we choose v₁ = -1, then v₂ = 1. So Av = v for the eigenvector v = (-1, 1)ᵀ.

• For λ = 5, we would end up with

[tex]\begin{bmatrix}-2&2\\2&-2\end{bmatrix}v = 0[/tex]

and this tells us

-2 v₁ + 2 v₂ = 0

and it follows that v = (1, 1)ᵀ.

Then the decomposition of A into PDP⁻¹ is obtained with

[tex]P = \begin{bmatrix}-1 & 1 \\ 1 & 1\end{bmatrix}[/tex]

[tex]D = \begin{bmatrix}1 & 0 \\ 0 & 5\end{bmatrix}[/tex]

where the n-th column of P is the eigenvector associated with the eigenvalue in the n-th row/column of D.

(b) Consult part (a) for specific details. You would find that the eigenvalues are i and -i, as in i = √(-1). The corresponding eigenvectors are (1 + i, 2)ᵀ and (1 - i, 2)ᵀ, so that A = PDP⁻¹ if

[tex]P = \begin{bmatrix}1+i & 1-i\\2&2\end{bmatrix}[/tex]

[tex]D = \begin{bmatrix}i&0\\0&i\end{bmatrix}[/tex]

(c) For a 3×3 matrix, I'm not aware of any shortcuts like above, so we proceed as usual:

[tex]\det(A-\lambda I) = \det\begin{bmatrix}1-\lambda & 2 & 3 \\ 0 & 2-\lambda & 3 \\ 0 & 0 & 3-\lambda\end{bmatrix} = 0[/tex]

Since A - λI is upper-triangular, the determinant is exactly the product the entries on the diagonal:

det(A - λI) = (1 - λ) (2 - λ) (3 - λ) = 0

and it follows that the eigenvalues are λ₁ = 1, λ₂ = 2, and λ₃ = 3. Now solve for v = (v₁, v₂, v₃)ᵀ such that (A - λI) v = 0.

• For λ = 1,

[tex]\begin{bmatrix}0&2&3\\0&1&3\\0&0&2\end{bmatrix}v = 0[/tex]

tells us we can freely choose v₁ = 1, while the other components must be v₂ = v₃ = 0. Then v = (1, 0, 0)ᵀ.

• For λ = 2,

[tex]\begin{bmatrix}-1&2&3\\0&0&3\\0&0&1\end{bmatrix}v = 0[/tex]

tells us we need to fix v₃ = 0. Then -v₁ + 2 v₂ = 0, so we can choose, say, v₂ = 1 and v₁ = 2. Then v = (2, 1, 0)ᵀ.

• For λ = 3,

[tex]\begin{bmatrix}-2&2&3\\0&-1&3\\0&0&0\end{bmatrix}v = 0[/tex]

tells us if we choose v₃ = 1, then it follows that v₂ = 3 and v₁ = 9/2. To make things neater, let's scale these components by a factor of 2, so that v = (9, 6, 2)ᵀ.

Then we have A = PDP⁻¹ for

[tex]P = \begin{bmatrix}1&2&9\\0&1&6\\0&0&2\end{bmatrix}[/tex]

[tex]D = \begin{bmatrix}1&0&0\\0&2&0\\0&0&3\end{bmatrix}[/tex]

(d) Consult part (c) for all the details. Or, we can observe that λ₁ = 2 is an eigenvalue, since subtracting 2I from A gives a matrix of only 1s and det(A - 2I) = 0. Then using the eigen-facts,

• tr(A) = 3 + 3 + 3 = 9 = 2 + λ₂ + λ₃   ⇒   λ₂ + λ₃ = 7

• det(A) = 20 = 2 λ₂ λ₃   ⇒   λ₂ λ₃ = 10

and we find λ₂ = 2 and λ₃ = 5.

I'll omit the details for finding the eigenvector associated with λ = 5; I ended up with v = (1, 1, 1)ᵀ.

• For λ = 2,

[tex]\begin{bmatrix}1&1&1\\1&1&1\\1&1&1\end{bmatrix}v = 0[/tex]

tells us that if we fix v₃ = 0, then v₁ + v₂ = 0, so that we can pick v₁ = 1 and v₂ = -1. So v = (1, -1, 0)ᵀ.

• For the repeated eigenvalue λ = 2, we find the generalized eigenvector such that (A - 2I)² v = 0.

[tex]\begin{bmatrix}1&1&1\\1&1&1\\1&1&1\end{bmatrix}^2 v = \begin{bmatrix}3&3&3\\3&3&3\\3&3&3\end{bmatrix}v = 0[/tex]

This time we fix v₂ = 0, so that 3 v₁ + 3 v₃ = 0, and we can pick v₁ = 1 and v₃ = -1. So v = (1, 0, -1)ᵀ.

Then A = PDP⁻¹ if

[tex]P = \begin{bmatrix}1 & 1 & 1 \\ 1 & -1 & 0 \\ 1 & 0 & -1\end{bmatrix}[/tex]

[tex]D = \begin{bmatrix}5&0&0\\0&2&0\\0&2&2\end{bmatrix}[/tex]

Answer:

$56.10

Step-by-step explanation:

The first step is to multiply the values.

28.50 for large.

27.60 for small.

Add them together.

You get 56.10.

Answer/Step-by-step explanation:

Given:

$5.70= Large necklace

$4.60 = Small necklace

To Find:

How much will Kevin earn from selling 5 large necklaces and 6 small necklace?

Solution:

To Find how much Kevin will earn from selling 5 large necklaces/6 Small necklace...

Multiply 5.70 by 5 and 4.60 by 6.

5.70 x 5 = 28.5

4.60 x 6 = 27.6

Hence, Kevin will earn $28.5 from selling 5 large necklaces and 27.6 from selling 6 small necklaces.

To Find all Kevin earn add both together = 56.10

Therefore Kevin earn $56.10 altogether.

Answer:

6,0 10,4

Step-by-step explanation:

find the y Axis and then the x Axis

Comparing the numbers, it is found that the tenths value first determines which of the numbers 6.399 or 6.400 is the larger number.

The decimal numbers are 6.399 and 6.400.

The tenths digit is the first in which there is a difference, hence, it determines which of the numbers 6.399 or 6.400 is the larger number.

A similar problem is given at https://brainly.com/question/17248958

https://www.algebra.com/algebra/homework/Circles/Circles.faq.question.407869.html

Answer:

D

Step-by-step explanation:

Because if you see the x-intercept you will see function with zeros of -2, -1 and 2

Answer:

You would need the intial fee in dollars/cents

Expression:

c=initial fee

x=amount of miles

[tex]1.80x+c=12[/tex]

Step-by-step explanation:

You would need the intial fee in dollars/cents

Expression:

c=initial fee

x=amount of miles

[tex]1.80x+c=12[/tex]

Answer:

washer is 587$

Step-by-step explanation:

1000 - 175

825

825 divided by 2 than add 175 to the washers half

the cost of the washer is $587.5, and the cost of the dryer is $412.5.

Let's assume the cost of the dryer is "x" dollars.

According to the information given, the cost of the washer is $175 more than the cost of the dryer. So, the cost of the washer can be represented as "x + $175" dollars.

The combined cost of the washer and the dryer is $1000. Therefore, we can write the equation:

Cost of washer + Cost of dryer = $1000

(x + $175) + x = $1000

Now, let's solve for "x":

2x + $175 = $1000

Subtract $175 from both sides:

2x = $1000 - $175

2x = $825

Now, divide both sides by 2 to find the value of "x":

x = $825 / 2

x = $412.5

So, the cost of the dryer is $412.5.

Now, let's find the cost of the washer:

Cost of washer = Cost of dryer + $175

Cost of washer = $412.5 + $175

Cost of washer = $587.5

Therefore, the cost of the washer is $587.5.

In summary, the cost of the washer is $587.5, and the cost of the dryer is $412.5.

Learn more about cost here

https://brainly.com/question/12055956

#SPJ2

Answer:cold weather pose, there are armies that have and can conduct large-scale, ... to one inch (2.5 centimeters) per hour accumulates.

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

1.5 × ? = 9

9÷1.5 = 6

so the answer would be 6 hours

Answer:

if there are 2 negatives by each other it would become a postive so -5+8

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

-5+8

Step-by-step explanation:

minus a negative is equivalent to plus a positive

2x = x - 4

2x - x = - 4

x = - 4

________

Hope it helps ⚜

Answer:

x=-4

Step-by-step explanation:

2x=x-4

2x-x=-4

x=-4

Proof

2*(-4)=-4-4

-8=-8

Answer:

x = 38/6

Step-by-step explanation:

x/5 - 2/3 = 3/2

3x - 2x5/3x2 = 3/2

3x-10/6 = 3/2

2(3x-10) = 3x6

6x-20 = 18

6x = 18+20

6x =38

x =38/6 or x = 6.33

Answer: First do 145 - 25, which is 120. Then do 120 ÷ 15 = 8. Therefore the slope intercept is y ÷ 15 = x. Their voyage will last 8 days.

Explanation: Brainliest please

Answer:

a.

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

A, B, E

Step-by-step explanation:

I just put the number of fiction books over the number of nonfiction books. Then I plugged it into a calculator and if the answer was the same as 15/22, then it was right!

2385/3498=15/22

3945/5786=15/22

2340/3588≠15/22

2480/3410≠15/22

4650/6820≠15/22

2310/3696=15/22

Answer:

decrease

Step-by-step explanation:

the percent change measures FROM the first value. A change from 50 to 75 is a change of 50% (25 is the difference between the two numbers, and 25 is 50% of 50). A change from 75 to 50 is a change of -33.3% (25 is still the difference between the two. 25 is 33.3% of 75

Answer:

0.83

Step-by-step explanation:

volume = length*height*width

1500=L*30*60

1500=1800L

1500/1800 = 0.83

length = 0.83

Answer:

Quadratic

Step-by-step explanation:

Formula: ax^2+bx+c

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

This is a geometric series.

First term = - 2

Ratio = second term ÷ first term = 8 ÷ (-2) = -4

Next three terms are:

-32 *(-4) = 128

128*(-4) = - 512

-512*(-4) = 2048

Answer:

The next 3 terms would be 128, -512, 2048

Step-by-step explanation:

Since we are dealing with a Geometric Sequence we use this formula [tex]a_{n}=a_{1} *r^{n-1}[/tex]

Since the first term([tex]a_{1}[/tex]) is -2 and for us to find R we have to divide 8 by -2 = -4

So we would rewrite the equations to find the next three terms as

[tex]a_{4}=-2*-4^{4-1}=-2*-4^3=128[/tex]

[tex]a_{5}=-2*-4^{5-1}=-2*-4^4=-512[/tex]

[tex]a_{6}=-2*-4^{6-1}=-2*-4^5=2048[/tex]

Transformation involves changing the form of the function

The transformation that is not performed is (a) vertical shift

The function is given as:

[tex]\mathbf{y = cot(x)}[/tex]

From the complete question, the transformed function is:

[tex]\mathbf{y=3cot[\frac 15(x+2)]}[/tex]

On y = cot(x); start by translating the function 2 units left.

The rule of this transformation is:

[tex]\mathbf{(x,y) \to (x +2,y)}[/tex]

So, we have:

[tex]\mathbf{y = cot(x + 2)}[/tex]

Next, stretch the function horizontally by a factor of 1/5

The rule of this transformation is:

[tex]\mathbf{(x,y) \to (\frac 15x,y)}[/tex]

So, we have:

[tex]\mathbf{y=cot[\frac 15(x+2)]}[/tex]

Lastly, stretch the function vertically by a factor of 3

The rule of this transformation is:

[tex]\mathbf{(x,y) \to (x,3y)}[/tex]

So, we have:

[tex]\mathbf{y=3cot[\frac 15(x+2)]}[/tex]

From the above transformations, we have:

Hence, the transformation that is not performed is (a) vertical shift

Read more about transformations at:

https://brainly.com/question/13801312

Answer:

vertical shift

Step-by-step explanation:

edge

Answer: should be 86°, not sure.

Step-by-step explanation:

Let y = cos⁻¹(x), so that cos(y) = x.

For some angle y between 0 and π, cos(y) takes on some value between -1 and 1.

For the y in this range, we have cos(y) = -1/2 exactly when y = 2π/3.

Then

tan(cos⁻¹(-1/2)) = tan(2π/3) = sin(2π/3)/cos(2π/3) = (√3/2)/(-1/2) = -√3

The expected gain or loss is an illustration of mean and expected values.

The expected total gain is 83 points

The given parameters are:

The probability of rolling a 6 in a fair die is 1/6.

The probability of not rolling a 6 in a fair die is 5/6.

So, the expected gain in each game is:

[tex]\mathbf{E(x) = 20 \times \frac 16 - 3 \times \frac 56}[/tex]

[tex]\mathbf{E(x) = \frac{20}6 - \frac{15}6}[/tex]

Take LCM

[tex]\mathbf{E(x) = \frac{5}6}[/tex]

[tex]\mathbf{E(x) = 0.83}[/tex]

The number of games is 100.

So, the expected gain is:

[tex]\mathbf{Gain = 100 \times 0.83}[/tex]

[tex]\mathbf{Gain = 83}[/tex]

Hence, the expected total gain is 83 points

Read more about expected value at:

https://brainly.com/question/13499496