what is 39.5/4 if you tell me you get 45 points

Answer:

I don't understand make is more simplify

Answer: principal value = $500 and rate of interest = 4%.

Step-by-step explanation:

Let P = Principal value, r= rate of interest, t= time.

Formula for simple interest:

Interest = P x r x t

Final amount = P+ interest

= P+Prt

= P(1+rt)

Simple interest amounts to $560 in 3 years.

⇒ 560=  P(1+3r)

[tex]\Rightarrow\ P=\dfrac{560}{1+3r}[/tex]                   (i)

Simple interest amounts to $600 in 5 years.

⇒ 600=  P(1+5r)

[tex]\Rightarrow\ P=\dfrac{600}{1+5r}[/tex]                   (ii)

From (i) and (ii) , we get

[tex]\dfrac{560}{1+3r}=\dfrac{600}{1+5r}\\\\\Rightarrow\ 560(1+5r)=600(1+3)\\\\\Rightarrow\ 560+2800r=600+1800r\\\\\Rightarrow\ 2800r-1800r=600-560\\\\\Rightarrow\ 1000r=40\\\\\Rightarrow\ r=\dfrac{40}{1000}\\\\\Rightarrow\ r= 0.04= 4\%[/tex]

Put r= 0.04 in (ii), we get

[tex]P=\dfrac{600}{1+5(0.04)}\\\\=\dfrac{600}{1+0.2}\\\\=\dfrac{600}{1.2}\\\\=500[/tex]

Hence, principal value = $500 and rate of interest = 4%.

Answer:

x = -3 + i√6 and x = -3 - i√6

Step-by-step explanation:

Let's apply the "completing the square" method to find the roots of this equation.

Take half of the coefficient 6 of x, square it and add this result to x^2 + 6x.  Then subtract the same quantity:

x^2 + 6x + 15 becomes

x^2 + 6x + 3^2 - 3^2 + 15 = 0

Rewriting the first three terms as the square of a binomial, we ge:

(x + 3)^2 - 9 + 15 = 0, which simplifies to:

(x + 3)^2 + 6 = 0, or (x + 3)^2 = -6

Taking the square root of both sides:

x + 3 = ±i√6

Then the two roots are complex:

x = -3 + i√6 and x = -3 - i√6

The options equivalent to the given fraction are:   -11 ÷ 4,  -11 ÷(- 4), [tex]\frac{-11}{4}[/tex] , [tex]\frac{11}{-4}[/tex]

[tex]-\frac{11}{4}[/tex] is an improper fraction. An improper fraction is a fraction in which the numerator is larger than the denominator.  [tex]\frac{-11}{4}[/tex] can also be written as -11 ÷ 4.

In order to determine the answers, take note of the following rules:

Using the above rules, the equivalent options are:  -11 ÷ 4,  -11 ÷(- 4), [tex]\frac{-11}{4}[/tex] , [tex]\frac{11}{-4}[/tex]

A similar question was answered here: https://brainly.com/question/15382096?referrer=searchResults

The first, second, fourth, and fifth options among all are equivalent to [tex]\frac{-11}{4}[/tex].

These all are forms of division.

The division is an arithmetic operation that involves splitting a quantity or number into equal parts or groups. It is the inverse operation of multiplication. In division, a number called the dividend is divided by another number called the divisor to obtain the quotient.

The dividend is the total quantity or number being divided, while the divisor is the number by which the dividend is divided. The result of the division is called the quotient, which represents the number of times the divisor can be subtracted from the dividend to achieve equal parts.

Hence, the first, second, fourth, and fifth options are correct.

Learn more about division here:

https://brainly.com/question/2273245

#SPJ6

Answer:

one-ninth of 54

Step-by-step explanation

54*1/9=6

36*1/4=9

Answer:

1/9 of 54  is smaller than 1/4 of 36

Step-by-step explanation:

1/9 of 54 is 54/9 and that is 6

1/4 of 36 is 36/4 and that is 9.

Please mark brainliest

Answer:

B

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

The lungs

Step-by-step explanation:

becuase biology

Answer:

I'm guessing that when you graph it, the graph changes direction when it's not on the x-axis. the "real zeros" of a graph are the ones that go through the x-axis and then imaginary ones are the ones that don't.

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer: pretty sure it's the number you multiply by 4 is 17

Step-by-step explanation:

when you multiply 4 and 16 you'll get 64 then you subtract 19 and get 45 which is less than 47 so by reasoning if you were to multiply 4 and 17 you'll get 68 then you subtract 19 from 68 and you should get 49 ( you didn't include how much greater than 47 the number should be but the safest bet would be to use 17)

Answer:

Step-by-step 4explanation:

Answer:

[tex]m=-2[/tex]

General Formulas and Concepts:

Pre-Algebra

Order of Operations: BPEMDAS

Algebra I

Step-by-step explanation:

Step 1: Define

Point (-3, 5)

Point (0, -1)

Step 2: Find slope m

Simply plug in the 2 coordinates into the slope formula to find slope m.

Answer:

C

Step-by-step explanation:

Domain (and range) don't necessarily have to be in smallest to largest order unless your teacher requires it, so don't worry about the order.

Let's remind ourselves that the domain is the input value, or the x value, and y is the output value, or the y value. We know that in an ordered pair, the first # is x and the second # is y (because x comes before y in the alphabet). Lets look at our ordered pairs and see what the x values are.

{(8, -2), (4, -2), (-3, 2), (-5, -3)}

The x values are 8, 4, -3, and -5, therefore:

Domain: {8,4,-3,-5}

Range would equal all the y values. Remind yourself that if an x value is repeated to only write it down ONCE.

Remember, the order does not matter, so the answer would be C.

Hope this helped!

Answer:

107

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

=  -24576/7

or

-3510.857142

both are the correct answer

Answer:A system of linear equations has no solution when the graphs are parallel. Infinite solutions. A system of linear equations has infinite solutions when the graphs are the exact same line.

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

irrational decimal

Step-by-step explanation:

It can't be repeated, can't go on forever, so it is an irrational decimal.

Answer:

Y-3/5x+2

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

He would make 300 dollars.

Step-by-step explanation:

15 x 5 = 75

75 x 4 = 300.

Answer:

answer is 300

Step-by-step explanation:

Because if your doing it for 1 day you would have to 15*5 which five you 75. Then you multiple that 75 with the 4 and give you 300 within the 4 days..

Hopes this help.

Answer:

w to r to a

Step-by-step explanation:

e to c to p

Answer:

w to r to a

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

32 ft tall

Step-by-step explanation:

24 divided by 4.5 is 5.3 repeating. 6 times 5.3 is around 32

Answer:

9 raffle tickets

Step-by-step explanation:

Because  3 raffle tickets are $5

and to find out the number of tickets you can buy with $15 you have to

divide $15 by $5 which is 3

then multiply the 3 times 3 to get 9 raffle tickets

Have a great day, I hope this is helpful to you.

Answer:

9

Step-by-step explanation:

3=5 6=10 9=15

Answer:

v = 2

Explanation:

8(2 − 6v) + 19 = −61

[ Simplify both sides of the equation ]

8(2 − 6v) + 19 = −61

(8)(2) + (8)(−6v) + 19 = −61 (Distribute)

16 + −48v + 19 = −61

(−48v) + (16 + 19) = −61 (Combine Like Terms)

−48v + 35 = −61

−48v + 35 = −61

[ Subtract 35 from both sides ]

−48v + 35 − 35 = −61 − 35

−48v = −96

[ Divide both sides by -48 ]

−48v / -48 = −96 / -48

v = 2

- PNW

Answer:

25.92

Step-by-step explanation:

Fuel efficiency is the measure or effort that is required to convert the chemical energy in the fuel to the kinetic energy which the cars needs to move. It is meant by how good or effectively the fuel is utilized by the vehicle. It is the ability of the engine to extract more energy from the fuel.

In the context, the size of the engine is 2.5 cubic liters. Then the predicted value of the fuel efficiency will be 25.92 miles per gallon.

Answer:

as x → -∞, y → ∞ and as x → ∞, y → -∞

Step-by-step explanation:

Just check the first quadrant of the given graph.

In the first quadrant, when x gets smaller, the value of y is increasing to positive infinity.

In other words, as x → -∞, y → ∞

Now, observe the behavior of the graph in the 4th quadrant.

In the 4th quadrant, when x gets larger, the value of y is decreasing to negative infinity.

In other words, as x → ∞, y → -∞

Therefore, the behavior of f(x):

as x → -∞, y → ∞ and as x → ∞, y → -∞

Therefore, option (C) is true.

The end behavior of a graph is defined as what is going on at the ends of each graph when the function approaches positive or negative infinity.

End behaviour of given graph is,  x⇒ -∞ then y⇒∞ and x ⇒∞ then y⇒ -∞

Since, here a  graph is attached.

From graph it is observed that, when x tends to negative side, graph is going to upward direction. and when x tends to positive side then graph is going to downward direction.

So, when  x tends negative infinity then y tends to positive infinity.

when x tends to positive infinity then y tends to negative infinity.

Therefore, end behaviour of given graph are,

                    x⇒ -∞ then y⇒∞ and x ⇒∞ then y⇒ -∞

Learn more:

https://brainly.com/question/14962400

Step-by-step explanation:

(1 point)

No, there isn't a more efficient way to solve this system.

Yes, a more efficient way is to multiply the first equation by 4, add to eliminate y, then solve for x.

Yes, a more efficient way is to multiply the first equation by −4, add to eliminate y, then solve for x.

Yes, a more efficient way is to multiply the first equation by −4, add to eliminate x, then solve for y.

Answer:

When two triangles are similar, the reduced ratio of any two corresponding sides is called the scale factor of the similar triangles.

Step-by-step explanation: