In terms of barriers that distinguish species, song recognition is either prezygotic or postzygotic. The statement is False.
Postzygotic Barrier:
The postzygotic barrier occurs after the formation of the zygote; this includes organisms that do not survive the embryonic stage and organisms that are born sterile. Some types of prezygotic barriers completely prevent reproduction. Many organisms reproduce only at certain times of the year, usually once a year.
(1) Hybrid sterility: A mule is the product of a cross between a horse and donkeys.
(2) Low hybrid vigor: Some species of frogs can form hybrid tadpoles.
(3) Death of zygote: Mating and fertilization can occur in goats and sheep.
Prezygotic Barrier:
The prezygotic barrier prevents members of different species from mating to produce zygotes, single-celled embryos. Here are some example scenarios: Two species may prefer different habitats and are therefore less likely to meet. This is called habitat isolation.
There appear to be five main types of reproductive disorders: spatial segregation, temporal segregation, mechanical segregation, gamete segregation, and behavioral segregation.
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What would be some negative environmental factors that could inhibit the development of ocean wave power systems? What are your ideas for how these issues could be overcome?
Continuous beating of equipment in high activity areas, corrosion and/or biofouling (agglomeration of algae and similar materials on gear), and variable wave energy at various periods.
What are negative environmental factors?The health and wellbeing of people can be hampered by a number of distinct environmental problems. Chemical pollution, air pollution, climate change, pathogenic germs, a lack of access to healthcare, inadequate infrastructure, and poor water quality are some of these problems. Environmental elements include air, water, climate, soil, indigenous plants, and landforms. Environmental factors, by definition, have an impact on day-to-day life and are a significant contributor to the disparities in health that exist between different geographic regions.Climate, nutrition, pollutants, population density, sound, light, and parasites are only a few examples of environmental influences.There are many environmental problems, but three in particular have the greatest impact on all others: loss of biodiversity, water pollution, and ocean acidification.To learn more about negative environmental factors, refer to:
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Using a pH meter, you find the pH of an unknown solution to be 12. How would you describe this solution? Group of answer choices weakly acidic strongly basic (alkaline) strongly acidic weakly basic (alkaline)
A pH of 12 would be strongly basic.
Based on the data presented in the graphs A, B, and C, of the figure, which of the following statements is the most likely deduction of the overall trends depicted by the data?
Question 4 options:
The body mass (A) increase of group GC is due to a higher fat free body mass increase (C) than group GNC.
The body mass (A) increase of group GC compared to GNC, is due to a higher fat body mass (B) increase of group GC.
The decreased fat body mass (B) of group GNC is a result of a smaller body mass (A) increase than group GC.
The statement that is the most likely deduction of the overall trends depicted by the data body mass (A) increase of group GC is due to a higher fat free body mass increase (C) than group GNC.
What is body mass index ?The body mass index (BMI) is a metric that uses your height and weight to determine whether or not your weight is healthy. BMI considers natural variations in body shape to determine a healthy weight range for a given height.
In addition to measuring your BMI, healthcare professionals may consider other factors when determining if you are a healthy weight.
Because muscle is denser than fat, very muscular people, such as heavyweight boxers, weight trainers, and athletes, may be a healthy weight despite having an obese BMI.
Your ethnicity can also influence your risk of certain health conditions. Adults of South Asian origin, for example, may be at a higher risk of certain health problems, such as diabetes.
What is fat ?Triglycerides (triple esters of glycerol) are the main components of vegetable oils and fatty tissue in animals; or, even more narrowly, triglycerides that are solid or semisolid at room temperature, thereby excluding oils. The term can also be used more broadly as a synonym for lipid, which is any biologically relevant substance composed of carbon, hydrogen, or oxygen that is insoluble in water but soluble in non-polar solvents. In this sense, the term would include several other types of compounds, such as mono- and diglycerides, phospholipids (such as lecithin), sterols (such as cholesterol), waxes (such as beeswax), and free fatty acids, in addition to triglycerides.
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What is a structural observation you can make to explain why the rumen does not rip or burst?
Answer:
The rumen is a specialized compartment of the stomach found in ruminant animals such as cows, sheep, and goats. It is designed to handle the fermentation of cellulose and other complex carbohydrates through the activity of microorganisms. One structural observation that explains why the rumen does not rip or burst is its ability to stretch and accommodate large volumes of feed.
The rumen is a muscular sac that can expand and contract as needed to accommodate the incoming feed. The walls of the rumen are lined with folds of tissue called papillae, which increase the surface area available for nutrient absorption. The rumen also contains a complex network of muscles and nerves that allow it to move and mix the contents, ensuring that all parts of the feed are exposed to the microorganisms and digestive enzymes.
Additionally, the rumen is supported by the diaphragm and other surrounding organs, which help to prevent it from overexpanding or rupturing. The diaphragm is a sheet of muscle that separates the thoracic and abdominal cavities and provides support to the rumen as it expands.
Overall, the combination of muscularity, papillae, and support from surrounding structures enables the rumen to handle large volumes of feed without ripping or bursting.
Please help on this fast
5. Referring to the figure, answer the following questions about the amino acids pictured. Answers can be used many times. Amino acids are drawn with the non-ionized backbone and side chains.
A. Identify all of the amino acids that have charged side chains.
B. Identify all of the amino acids that have polar side chains.
C. Identify all of the amino acids that have non-polar side chains.
D. Identify all of the amino acids that have hydrophobic side chains.
E. Identify all of the amino acids that have hydrophilic side chains.
Amino acids and their identities include:
A. Charged side chains - A & FB. Polar side chains - A, D & FC. Non-polar side chains - B, C & E D. Hydrophobic side chains - B, D & EE. Hydrophilic side chains - A & FWhat are the different groups of amino acids?There are 20 different amino acids that make up proteins. They can be classified into different groups based on their chemical properties:
Nonpolar, aliphatic amino acids: glycine, alanine, valine, leucine, isoleucine, and prolineAromatic amino acids: phenylalanine, tyrosine, and tryptophan.Polar, uncharged amino acids: serine, threonine, cysteine, asparagine, and glutaminePositively charged amino acids: lysine, arginine, and histidineNegatively charged amino acids: aspartic acid and glutamic acidThese classifications are based on the side chains (R-groups) of the amino acids and their chemical properties, which affect how they interact with other amino acids and the environment around them in a protein structure.
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I was present and formed this exercise initial SHEET 5-21 Blood Agar OBSERVATIONS AND INTERPRETATIONS 1 Choose tour different colonies with a diversity of hemoly routons ncluding one stb) and fill in the table. Refer to Table 5-27, page 387. and Figure 2.4. paxta when recording and interpreting your results. Hemolysis Colony Morphology Result Source of Culture and Agar Appearance Interpretation #20 clearing around organism hemolyzes S. aureus RBC completely #17 Greening around organism partially nemolyzes RBCS growth S. typhimurium - growth ܬܘܬ ܘܘ ܚܬܡܘܢ sv hemolyees ROLS S. epidermidis #23 S. pyogenes No change in medium clearing around growth organism hemolyzes RBCs completely QUESTIONS The streak-stab technique, used to promote streptolysint activity, is preferred over incubating the plates anaerobically: a. Wily do you think this is so? b. Compare and contrast what you see as the advantages and disadvantages of each procedure. CECTIONS Differential Tests 389 Assuming that all of the organisms cultivated in this exercise came from the throats of heart is it important to cover and tape the plates? from the throats of healthy students, why Why is the streak plate preferred over the spot inoculations in this procedure? was present and performed this exercise (initials) 5-21 growth Blood Agar OBSERVATIONS AND INTERPRETATIONS 1 Choose four different colonies (with a diversity of hemolysis reactions, including one stab) and fill in the table. Refer to Table 5-27, page 387, and Figure 2.4, page 68 when recording and interpreting your results. Hemolysis Colony Morphology Result Source of Culture and Agar Appearance (a, b, y) Interpretation #20 Clearing around organism hemolyzes S. aureus RBCS completely #17 Greening around organism partially nemolyzes RBCS S. typ himurium growth orgarige do o #21 No change in hemolyees RBCS S. epidermidis medium #23 organism homolyzes Clearing around B RBCs completely S. pyogenes growth QUESTIONS mota strehtolysin activity, is preferred over incubating the plates 3. pyogenes growth B BBCs completely QUESTIONS The streak-stab technique, used to promote streptolysin activity, is preferred over incubating the plates anaerobically. a. Why do you think this is so? b. Compare and contrast what you see as the advantages and disadvantages of each procedure, Assuming that all of the organisms cultivated in this exercise came from the throats of healthy students, why is it important to cover and tape the plates? anisms es nes ae Why is the streak plate preferred over the spot inoculations in this procedure? egmatis
The streak-stab technique, used to promote streptomycin activity, is preferred over incubating the plates anaerobically. The streak plate preferred over the spot inoculations in this procedure.
Strep-produced hemolysin performed best in the anaerobic environment. Streptomycin O (SLO) is oxygen labile and streptomycin S (SLS) is oxygen stable. Streptomycin breaks down blood cells more efficiently.
Streptolysin or streak stab is a hemolytic toxin produced by the bacterium Streptococcus. Streptococcus is a facultative anaerobic bacterium, which means that it can grow in the presence or absence of air. However, it grows best under micro anaerobic or 5% CO2 conditions.
Streptococci produce two types of streptomycin - streptolysins O and S. O is oxygen unstable (it does not tolerate oxygen), while S is oxygen stable.
O is also produced when organisms are actively growing or approaching the quiescent growth phase while S is produced during the resting phase. In order to detect streptomycin produced by an organism on an agar plate, the organism must be cultured under optimal conditions. The slit method reduces the oxygen content and thus provides the conditions for maximum growth of the organism.
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What federal agencies have any jurisdiction over deep fluid-injection wells, and
how broad is their power?
Answer:
Currently, the EPA has granted primacy over all classes of injection wells in 33 states and 2 territories. The EPA shares jurisdiction for injection regulation in 7 states and has complete regulatory authority over underground injection in 10 states and 2 territories.
as characteristized in lecture, an oil spill is an example of: question 12 options: competition antagonism ammensalism commensalism
Antagonism can take one of two forms: competitive and non-competitive. Ketamine, on the other hand, is a non-competitive foe of the NMDA-glutamate receptor, whereas naloxone is a competitive foe of all opioid receptors. The correct answer is Antagonism.
Competitive antagonism is based on the idea that an agonist or antagonist can bind to the same recognition site(s) on the receptor and compete for those sites when they are present simultaneously.
A competitive antagonist blocks the agonist's action by binding to the same site as the agonist but not activating it. To prevent the receptor from being activated, a non-competitive antagonist binds to an allosteric (non-agonist) site on the receptor.
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9. What number on the diagram is pointing to the deltoid muscle?
15
16
17
18
Answer:
17 number on the diagram is pointing to the deltoid muscle
3. Based on the seeds available after the drought, which type of bird
do you think survived the drought? Explain your reasoning.
When the drought restricted the amount of seeds available, finches with larger beaks were able to consume the larger and tougher seeds, allowing more of them to survive.
Which finches were able to reproduce?Little birds with weaker beaks were killed. Therefore the birds that won the game of natural selection survived to breed. The big-beaked finches merely happened to be the ones who benefited from the unique combination of circumstances that Nature imposed that year.
The Grants returned to Daphne Major in 1978 to study the drought's impact on the following generation of medium ground finches. They assessed the young and compared their beak size to that of prior generations (pre-drought). They discovered that the offspring's beaks were 3 to 4% bigger.
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You are crossing two pea plants. One is heterozygous for yellow. The second pea plant is homozygous for green. Use "G/g" as the letter to represent the gene for this problem.
Answer:
Parent 1 genotype: Gg
Parent 2 genotype: gg
gg's bro
How are bison adapted to life in grasslands? (Select all that apply.)
Bison can run at speeds of up to 70 mph to catch prey.
Bison dig and live in tunnels for protection.
Bison have thick winter coats for warmth.
Bison have special stomachs to digest grass
Answer:bison can dig and live in tunnels for protection
bisons have special stomachs to digest grass
Explanation:
BRONZE
1. Suggest a suitable training
zone for a 25-year-old javelin
thrower.
2. Suggest a suitable training
zone for a 25-year-old
marathon runner.
SILVER
3. Apart from the difference
in heart rates, what other
differences would there be
in the training schedules of
the javelin thrower and the
marathon runner? Why?
1.) For 25-year-old javelin thrower, suitable training zone would be between 80-90% of their maximum heart rate (MHR) ; 2.) For 25-year-old marathon runner, suitable training zone would be between 60-70% of their MHR ; 3. Javelin thrower would focus on explosive power, speed and anaerobic endurance whereas marathon runner would focus more on aerobic endurance.
What differences would there be in training schedules of javelin thrower and marathon runner?2.) For 25-year-old marathon runner, suitable training zone would be between 60-70% of MHR and this training zone is considered low-intensity and helps improve aerobic endurance, cardiovascular fitness, and also muscular endurance.
3.) Apart from difference in heart rates, there are several other differences in training schedules of javelin thrower and marathon runner. Javelin thrower focuses more on explosive power, speed and anaerobic endurance whereas marathon runner focuses more on aerobic endurance, cardiovascular fitness and muscular endurance. Javelin thrower require more skill-specific training like throwing technique whereas marathon runner requires more distance-specific training like long-distance runs.
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(h) When a stent is fitted the doctor gives the patient an injection of anti-clotting drugs.
The patient then takes one anti-clotting tablet every day.
Anti-clotting drugs:
•
.
are very effective
can take a week to begin working fully
have been used for over 60 years
cost very little to make
do not work effectively if the patient eats certain types of food.
The patient must have their blood tested every few weeks to check that the anti-clotting
drugs are working.
Evaluate the use of anti-clotting drugs in patients who have had a stent fitted.
Aspirin and another blood clot-preventing drug are frequently prescribed by doctors when patients receive stents.
RationaleThe thin metal mesh tubes that assist widen restricted arteries. These medications include ticagrelor, prasugrel, and clopidogrel (Plavix), among others (Brilinta). They work similarly to aspirin by preventing platelets, tiny blood cells, from adhering to one another and forming clots. Heart attacks can result from clots that develop inside the stent (sometimes referred to as stent thrombosis).Those with atrial fibrillation who want to prevent strokes must take anticoagulation. In patients who get coronary stenting and have acute coronary syndromes, antiplatelet treatment is crucial for reducing cardiovascular events and preventing stent thrombosis.For more information on anticoagulants kindly visit to
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contrast the following activities in prokaryotes and eukaryotes: replication of dna transcription or translation gene regulation cell division
The cytoplasm of the cell is where prokaryotic transcription takes place, whereas the nucleus of the cell is where eukaryotic transcription takes place.
Direct transcription of prokaryotic mRNA from DNA is possible. Eukaryotes, in contrast, produce pre-mRNA first, followed by the processing of mature mRNA. DNA replication, which is primarily accomplished through binary fission or budding in prokaryotes, is the initial stage of cell division. DNA replication happens during the synthesis (S) phase of the cell cycle, which is a somewhat complex process in eukaryotes. Transcriptional control happens at the transcriptional level in prokaryotes, where transcription and translation both take place concurrently in the cytoplasm.
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Contrast the following activities in prokaryotes and eukaryotes: Replication of DNA, Transcription, Gene Regulation, Cell Division.
How does the number of chromosomes in an organism's reproductive cells compare to the number of chromosomes in the organism's body cells? A. The reproductive cells have the same number of chromosomes as the body cells. B. The reproductive cells have twice as many chromosomes as the body cells. C. The reproductive cells have four times as many chromosomes as the body cells. D. The reproductive cells have half as many chromosomes as the body cells.
Answer: D. The reproductive cells have half as many chromosomes as the body cells.
which of the following hypotheses emphasizes isolation and environmental factors as forces of natural evolution?
A form of hypothesis that emphasizes isolation and environmental variables as causes of natural evolution stresses stressful environmental circumstances.
According to the principle of natural selection, organisms breed more young than they can withstand in their surroundings. Those who are more physically capable of surviving, maturing, and reproducing. We refer to this as allopatric speciation. Allopatric, peripatric, parapatric, sympatric, and artificial speciation are the five different forms.
When a species divides into two distinct groups that are separated from one another, allopatric speciation takes place. The impact of isolation was proposed to be explained by the "social control theory." According to the social control hypothesis, internalized commitments to and overt influence from network members tend to deter unhealthy habits and promote healthy ones.
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Correct Question:
What type of hypotheses emphasizes isolation and environmental factors as forces of natural evolution?
Color blindness is an X-linked recessive trait. A color-blind man marries a homozygous normal female. They have two children, both with what is known as Turner Syndrome (monosomy X or X0 or X_). One child has normal vision and one is color-blind. Did nondisjunction occur in the mother or father for the child with normal vision? Explain.
Men are more likely than women to have red-green color blindness because it is inherited on the X chromosome. This is due to Only one X chromosome coming from a male's mother.
Red-green color blindness will occur if that X chromosome, as opposed to a normal X chromosome, contains the gene for the condition.
He would have a Y and an Xc, both of which contain DNA that can cause color blindness; that is, all of his Xs would cause color blindness. Because of this, he probably doesn't see colors. There is a 50% chance that each daughter will carry the disease, and there is a 50% chance that each son will be color blind.
Red-green color blindness and hemophilia A are two examples of X-linked recessive conditions: Color blindness that is red-green. A person with red-green color blindness is able to see normally but cannot differentiate between blue-green and red shades.
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consider the following scenarios. which person displays characteristic signs of a persistent vegetative state?
Sarah suffered a cardiac arrest and has been in a vegetative state for six months. Sarah displays characteristic signs of a persistent vegetative state. Here option D is the correct answer.
A persistent vegetative state (PVS) is a condition where an individual's brainstem and other lower brain structures are still functioning, but higher cortical functions such as awareness, consciousness, and cognition are absent. In the given scenario, Sarah is awake and her eyes are open, but she is not responding to any external stimuli or showing any sign of awareness. This lack of awareness and responsiveness to the environment are characteristic signs of a PVS.
Option A - John - is in a coma, which is different from a PVS. In a coma, an individual is unconscious and unresponsive, but the brainstem is still functioning. However, the chances of recovering from a coma are higher than from a PVS.
Option B - Mary - is minimally conscious and able to communicate with her family. Although her cognitive functions are impaired, her ability to communicate and follow simple commands indicates that she is not in a PVS.
Option C - Tom - shows occasional reflexive responses to stimuli, indicating that his brainstem is functioning. However, this does not necessarily mean that he is in a PVS.
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Complete question:
Consider the following scenarios. which person displays characteristic signs of a persistent vegetative state?
A. John has been in a coma for three weeks after a car accident. He is not responsive to stimuli and shows no signs of sleep-wake cycles.
B. Mary suffered a stroke and is minimally conscious. She can occasionally communicate with her family and follows simple commands, but is unable to consistently respond to more complex tasks.
C. Tom has a traumatic brain injury and is in a coma. However, he shows occasional reflexive responses to stimuli such as coughing or blinking.
D. Sarah suffered a cardiac arrest and has been in a vegetative state for six months. She is awake and her eyes are open, but she does not respond to any external stimuli or show any sign of awareness.
E. None of the above display characteristic signs of a persistent vegetative state.
fill in the blank. a___plot describes which structures in a polypeptide are sterically possible and which are not based on the angles of rotation about the backbone
A Ramachandran plot describes which structures in a polypeptide are sterically possible and which are not based on the angles of rotation around backbone bonds.
The permitted areas of steric angles of rotation around the backbone bonds of a polypeptide are graphically represented by a Ramachandran plot. The Ramachandran plot is frequently used to examine the structure of proteins and pinpoint the parts of a protein that are most likely to be in the conformation that is most advantageous from an energy standpoint.
Its diagram represents a scatterplot of the angle values, which represent rotational angles around the alpha-carbon bonds in the polypeptide backbone. The figure is divided into permitted and prohibited parts. The allowed sections correspond to conformations of the polypeptide backbone that are energetically beneficial, while the disallowed regions relate to steric conflicts among atoms that prevent or favor specific conformations.
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the reason water takes so long to heat up and cool down is because it has a relatively high .
The reason water takes so long to heat up and cool down is due to its relatively high specific heat capacity. Specific heat capacity is defined as the amount of heat energy required to raise the temperature of one unit mass of a substance by one degree Celsius.
Water has a very high specific heat capacity compared to many other substances, which means that it requires a large amount of heat energy to raise its temperature even by a small amount. This is why water takes longer to heat up compared to other materials with lower specific heat capacities, such as metals.
Similarly, water also takes a longer time to cool down because it requires a significant amount of heat energy to be removed in order for its temperature to drop. This is why it can take a while for the water to cool down to room temperature even after being heated.
The high specific heat capacity of water is important for many biological and environmental processes. For example, it helps to regulate the temperature of the human body and other living organisms, and it can also moderate temperature changes in aquatic environments.
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fill in the blank. this reaction releases___from the acrosome of the sperm cell, which then digest a path through the granulosa cells and the___
The reaction releases digestive enzymes from the acrosome of the sperm cell, which then digest a path through the granulosa cells and the zona pellucida.
The acrosome of a sperm cell secretes digestive enzymes including hyaluronidase and acrosin that dissolve the zona pellucida, the ovum's outer layer. As a result, the haploid nucleus in the sperm and the haploid nucleus in the ovum can merge.
An organ found on the front part of the sperm head is called an acrosome. Together with humans, it is found in many other mammals. The Golgi apparatus of the cell gives rise to the acrosome, a cap-like structure.
These enzymes disintegrate the zona pellucida, the ovum's outer membrane. This makes it easier for the sperm cell and ovum to fuse together. The digestive enzymes known as hyaluronidases help the body break down hyaluronic acid.
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Help me please answer all te questions
Answer:
1. A
2. B
3. D
4. A
Explanation:
please help me i begging you
topic : Nonodontogenic
inflammatory processes of maxillofacial area (furuncle, carbuncle, erysipelas).
1) Furuncle (boil) is acute infection of:
A. a hair follicle and adjacent soft tissue.
B. a hair folicle.
C. a group of adjacent hair follicles become deeply infected.
D. oil and sweat-gland.
E. oilgland.
2) Cavernous sinus thrombosis can complicate boils or carbuncles on the:
A. lower lip and submentum.
B. parotid region.
C. nose, upper lip and cheek.
D. temporal region.
E. submandibular regionandneck.
3) The boils may coalesce into violaceous plaques at patient with:
A. HIV.
B. diabetes mellitus.
C. congenital anomalies.
D. atopic dermatitis.
E. cellulitis.
4)Select the type of microorganism causing of erysipelas:
A. staphylococcus.
B. pneumococcus.
C. actynomycetes.
D. herpes zoster.
E. streptococcus.
5) Depression of which of the following cells delay wound healing:
A. neutrophils.
B. lymphocytes.
C. monocytes.
D. erythrocytes.
E. none of above listed.
6) Organisms gain entry to form abscess:
A. direct infection.
B. local extension.
C. lymphatic and hematogenous spread.
D. none of above listed.
E. all of above.
7) Re-sutured wounds:
A. heals foster.
B. gets infected.
C. heals slower.
D. do not heal easily.
E. none of above listed.
8) If boils are recurred which of the following should be excluded:
A. epilepsy.
B. diabetes.
C. hypertension.
D. arrhythmias.
E. allergy.
9) Boils usually infect regional lymph nodes:
A. secondary.
B. primarily.
C. all of above.
D. none of above.
E. chronically.
10) The major factor in the production of inflammatory edema is:
A. arterial dilatation.
B. venous obstruction.
C. leukocytosis.
D. all of above listed.
E. increased capillary permeability.
11) Multiple pustules appear on the affected surface of skin by:
A. воil.
B. carbuncles.
C. eresipelas.
D. hidradenitis suppurativa.
E. cubcutaneous granuloma.
12) The causative agent of boils and carbuncles are:
A. streptococcus.
B. e. coli;
C. proteus;
D. association s.aureus and proteus.
E. staphylococcus.
13) The unlimited spread of on exudate through the tissues in acute inflammation is a characteristic feature of:
A. granulomatous infection.
B. cellulitis.
C. abscess.
D. leukocytosis
E. leukopedia
14) Predisposing factor for origin of erysipelas in adult is:
A. furunculosis.
B. a cut in the skin, skin ulcers, and problems with the drainage through the veins or lymph system.
C. congenital anomalies of skin.
D. exudative diathesis.
E. cardivascular decompensation.
15) To choice diseases for differential diagnosis of boil:
A. cavernous sinus thrombosis, mediastinitis.
B. siphylis, tuberculosis, actinomycosis.
C. hidradenitis suppurativa, acne vulgaris, anthrax.
D. lymphadenitis.
E. lupus erythematosus.
Answer:
1) A. a hair follicle and adjacent soft tissue.
2) C. nose, upper lip, and cheek.
3) B. diabetes mellitus.
4) E. streptococcus.
5) B. lymphocytes.
6) E. all of the above.
7) C. heals slower.
8) B. diabetes.
9) A. secondary.
10) E. increased capillary permeability.
11) A. boil.
12) E. staphylococcus.
13) B. cellulitis.
14) B. a cut in the skin, skin ulcers, and problems with the drainage through the veins or lymph system.
15) C. hidradenitis suppurativa, acne vulgaris, anthrax.
Answer:
1. A
2. C
3. A
4. E
5. C
6. E
7. C
8. B
9. A
10. E
11. D
12. E
13. B
14. B
15. C
LOOK AT THE OTHER TWO QUESTIONS I POSTED AND THEN SOMEBODY ANSWER THIS PLEASE I NEED HELP WITH IT AND I WOULD APPRECIATE IT IF SOMEONE COULD HELP ME WITH THIS
Answer:
Explanation:
Choose the right answer.
If the stem on the left has the weights of the juniors and the stem on the right has the weights of the freshmen, we can see that the
weigh more.jioj
If a student was trying to reduce the amount of protein intake and wanted to test a sample of their food
to see if it was good for them to eat, what test would they use? Explain.
The Kjeldahl method is a chemical process that involves digesting the food sample with sulfuric acid, which converts the nitrogen content in the protein to ammonium sulfate.
What is an acid ?An acid is a chemical substance that donates positively charged hydrogen ions (H+) when it dissolves in water. Acids have a pH level lower than 7 on a pH scale, which ranges from 0 to 14. The greater the concentration of H+ ions in a solution, the more acidic it is.
Acids can be found in both natural and man-made substances, and they can be classified as either strong or weak based on their ability to donate H+ ions. Strong acids, such as hydrochloric acid (HCl), sulfuric acid (H2SO4), and nitric acid (HNO3), donate H+ ions readily and can completely dissociate in water. Weak acids, such as acetic acid (CH3COOH) and carbonic acid (H2CO3), donate H+ ions less readily and only partially dissociate in water.
Acids can react with bases to form salts and water in a process known as neutralization. This reaction involves the transfer of H+ ions from the acid to the base, resulting in the formation of salt and water.
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FILL IN THE BLANK thousands of scientists have found that ___helps virtually every age-related condition that people encounter.
Thousands of scientists have found that (B) exercise helps virtually every age-related condition that people encounter.
Early adulthood is considered a new stage in life between adolescence and early adulthood, which lasts around 18 to 25 years. Five characteristics of adulthood emerge: exploration of identity, instability, self-focus, feelings between adolescence and adulthood, and a sense of vast future possibilities. Adulthood emerges mainly in industrialized countries, where most young people are educated and where the median age of marriage and childbirth is around 30 years old. Emerging adulthood varies across industrialized countries. It lasted longest in Europe, while in industrialized Asia freedom from emerging egocentrism in adulthood was balanced by obligations to parents and conservative views on sexuality.
Exercise helps with weight loss and weight loss maintenance. Exercise increases your metabolism or the number of calories you burn each day. It can also help you maintain and increase lean body mass, which can also help increase the number of calories you burn each day.
In non-industrialized countries, emerging adults, although present only among middle-class elites, are expected to grow in the 21st century as these countries become more prosperous.
Complete Question:
Thousands of scientist have found that _____ helps virtually every age-related condition that people encounter
A. weight-loss surgery
B. exercise
C. low-fat diets
D. moderate alc consumptions
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what are the names for the 2 wind systems where pressure belts meet called
Answer:
The two wind systems where pressure belts meet are called the "Polar Front" and the "Intertropical Convergence Zone (ITCZ)".
Explanation:
How do these differences in the DNA bases affect the mRNA sequence of both people?
Differences in the DNA bases between two people can affect the mRNA sequence by causing changes in the genetic code.
DNA contains the instructions for making mRNA, which then directs the synthesis of proteins. The genetic code is made up of a sequence of three bases (codons), and each codon specifies a particular amino acid.
If there is a difference in the DNA bases between two people, this can result in a change in the sequence of the codons. Depending on the specific change, this can either result in a change in the amino acid that is specified by the codon or a premature stop codon that results in a truncated protein. These changes can have significant effects on protein function and can lead to genetic diseases, altered physical characteristics, or increased susceptibility to certain conditions.
What is mRNA?
mRNA stands for messenger RNA. It is a type of RNA (ribonucleic acid) molecule that carries genetic information from DNA in the nucleus of a cell to the ribosomes in the cytoplasm, where it is translated into proteins. mRNA is synthesized in a process called transcription, in which a complementary RNA sequence is made based on the DNA template.
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