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√2+√3 - √2-√3

Answer:

25 -(.3*25)

25-7.50 = $17.50

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

17.50

Step-by-step explanation:

First find the amount of the discount

25 * 30%

25 * .3

7.5

Subtract this from the original amount

25 - 7.5

17.50

Answer:

0.9⁰

Step-by-step explanation:

let unknown angle be x

sin x=47/60

sin x=0.783333

x=sin(inverse) 0.7833333

x=0.9⁰

Answer:

y = -2x - 6

Step-by-step explanation:

Going from the first point to the second, we see x decreasing by 8 from 1 to -7 (this is the 'run') and y increasing by 16 from -8 to +8 (this is the 'rise').  Thus, the slope of the line through these two points is m = rise/run =  16/(-8) = -2.

Using the point-slope formula y - k = m(x - h) and the point (1, -8), we get:

y + 8 = -2(x - 1), or

y = -8 - 2x + 2, or

y = -2x - 6 (in slope-intercept form)

Answer:

0.858

Step-by-step explanation:

2 1/2 from oz to pound is 0.156 and then mutiply that by 5.50 is 0.858

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

a, 14.13. b, 39.25

Step-by-step explanation:

so for a the diameter is 6 so the radius is 3. The equation for the area of the circle is πr2. So 3x3=9. then 9x3.14=28.26. But then we have to divide by two cause we are finding only the shaded area. 28.26/2=14.13.

A is 14.13

for b, its the same thing, so the radiu is 5 and 5x5=25. 25x3.14=78.5, and divide two, so 78.5/2=39.25.

B is 39.25

WARNING: I am not sure this is correct, so if this is wrong i'm sorry, i'm learning too :)

Answer: 7.1 units

Step-by-step explanation:

Using Pythagorean theory, c^2 - a^2 = b^2

We know c= 10

We know a=7

We are looking for b

10^2 - 7^2 = b^2

51= b^2

Take square root of both sides

7.1=b

Answer:

The customary method of finding the inverse is some variant of the method I'm going to use below. Whatever method you use, make sure you do the exact same steps in the exact same order every time, so you remember those steps when you get to the test.

Find the inverse of y = 3x – 2.

Here's how the process works:

Here's my original function:  

y = 3x - 2

Now I'll try to solve for "x =":  

y + 2 = 3x

(y + 2)/3 = x

Once I have " x =", I'll switch x and y; the "y =" is the inverse.  

y = (x + 2)/3

Then the inverse is y = (x + 2) / 3

If you need to find the domain and range, look at the original function and its graph. The domain of the original function is the set of all allowable x-values; in this case, the function was a simple polynomial, so the domain was "all real numbers". The range of the original function is all the y-values you'll pass on the graph; in this case, the straight line goes on for ever in either direction, so the range is also "all real numbers". To find the domain and range of the inverse, just swap the domain and range from the original function.

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

The answer is "Option C"

Step-by-step explanation:

Given:

[tex]r= 30 \ cm\\\\\theta =60^{\circ}[/tex]

Using formula:

[tex]\frac{A}{\theta}=\frac{\pi r^2}{2\pi}\\\\\frac{A}{\theta}=\frac{\pi r^2}{2}\\\\A=\frac{r^2\times \theta}{2}[/tex]

There are several types of functions, but this question is limited to just 2 types, which are the exponential function and the linear function.

The given parameters can be represented as:

[tex]\begin{array}{cccc}{Years} & {1} & {2} & {3} & {House\ 1} & {186,160 } & {193,606.40 } & {201,350.66} & {House\ 2} & {190,000 } & {201,000 } & {212,000} \ \end{array}[/tex]

(a): The type of function

First, we check if the function is linear by calculating the difference between each year

House 1

[tex]d = 193606.40 - 186160 = 7446.4[/tex]

[tex]d = 201350.66 - 193606.40 = 7744.26[/tex]

The difference are not equal; hence, the function is not linear. So, we can assume that it is exponential

House 2

[tex]d = 201000 - 190000 =11000[/tex]

[tex]d = 212000 - 201000 =11000[/tex]

The difference are equal; hence, the function is linear.

(b): The function of each

House 1

An exponential function is represented as:

[tex]y = ab^x[/tex]

When [tex]x = 1;\ y =186,160[/tex]

We have:

[tex]186,160 =ab^1[/tex]

[tex]186,160 =ab[/tex] ---- (1)

When [tex]x = 2;\ y =193606.40[/tex]

We have:

[tex]193606.40 =ab^2[/tex] --- (2)

Divide (2) by 1

[tex]\frac{193606.40}{186160} =\frac{ab^2}{ab}[/tex]

[tex]1.04 = b[/tex]

[tex]b = 1.04[/tex]

Make a the subject in (1)

[tex]186,160 =ab[/tex]

[tex]a = \frac{186160}{b}[/tex]

[tex]a = \frac{186160}{1.04}[/tex]

[tex]a = 179000[/tex]

So, the function for house 1 is:

[tex]f(x) = 179000 * 1.04^x[/tex]

House 2

A linear function is represented as:

[tex]y = mx + b[/tex]

First, we calculate the slope (m)

[tex]m = \frac{y_2 -y_1}{x_2 - x_1}[/tex]

So, we have:

[tex]m = \frac{201000 - 190000}{2 - 1}[/tex]

[tex]m = \frac{11000}{1}[/tex]

[tex]m = 11000[/tex]

So, the equation is:

[tex]y =m(x-x_1) + y_1[/tex]

Substitute known values

[tex]y =11000(x-1) + 190000[/tex]

[tex]y =11000x-11000 + 190000[/tex]

[tex]y =11000x+179000[/tex]

So, the function for house 2 is:

[tex]f(x) =11000x+179000[/tex]

(c): House with the greatest value in 30 years

This means that:

[tex]x = 30[/tex]

For house 1, we have:

[tex]f(x) = 179000 * 1.04^x[/tex]

[tex]f(30) = 179000 * 1.04^{30}[/tex]

[tex]f(30) = 580568.15[/tex]

For house 2, we have:

[tex]f(x) =11000x+179000[/tex]

[tex]f(30) = 11000 * 30+ 179000[/tex]

[tex]f(30) = 509000[/tex]

By comparison;

[tex]580568.15> 509000[/tex]

House 1 will have a greater value in 30 years

And the difference between the values is significant

The difference is:

[tex]d =580568.15-509000[/tex]

[tex]d =71568.15[/tex]

Read more about functions at:

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Answer:

466.67

Step-by-step explanation:

Let p be the original price

p - 10 % p = 420

p - .10p = 420

.9p = 420

Divide each side by .9

.9p/.9 = 420/.9

p =466.666666

Rounding to the nearest cent

p = 466.67

Answer:

1st box: 49

2nd box: 7

3rd box: 7

4th box: 2

5th box (above): 1

6th box (below): 3

7th box: 7

8th box: -12

9th box: -2

Answer:

SPEED ANSWER!!!!

Answer:

1/36

Step-by-step explanation:

There are 6 possible outcomes 1,2,3,4,5,6

P(1) = number of outcomes that equal1 / total

        =1/6

Roll again

P(1) = 1/6

These are independent events so we can multiply the probabilities

P(1 roll again 1) = 1/6 * 1/6 = 1/ 36

Answer:

From first Newton's equation of motion:

[tex]{ \bf{v = u + at}}[/tex]

Substitute the variables:

[tex]{ \tt{11 = 5 + (a \times 3)}} \\ { \tt{3a = 6}} \\ { \tt{a = 2 \: {ms}^{ - 2} }}[/tex]

Acceleration is 2 ms-²

Answer: the answer is 2 or C

-8/2 x -3/6

*Always do the recipical*

(-8 x -3) / (2 x 6)

-8 x -3= +24

2 x 6= 12

24/12= 2

The solution of the given expression -8/2 x -3/6 is 2. The correct option is B.

In mathematics, expression is defined as the relationship of numbers, variables, and functions using mathematical signs such as addition, subtraction, multiplication, and division.

Given that the expression is,

-8/2 x -3/6

The expression will be solved as below,

E = (-8 x -3) / (2 x 6)

The numerator will get reciprocal and multiplied to the denominator,

E = 24 / 12

Divide the number 24 by 12 and get the solution,

E = 2

Therefore, the solution of the expression will be 2. The correct option is B.

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Answer:

what are the answer choicesss

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

72cm

Step-by-step explanation:

We have 4/6 sides. 4 of them are given, and they are 13.25cm, 7.25cm, 7.75cm, and 22.75cm.

The perimeter is found when you add all the lengths of the sides of a figure.

So far, we can add 13.25+7.25+7.75+22.75 = 51cm.

Let's call the first ungiven side A. We can see that 7.75cm + A = 13.25cm. Using this, we can figure out that A = 13.25-7.75 = 5.5cm.

We can call the second ungiven side B. We see that 7.25cm + B = 22.75cm. So, B = 22.75-7.25 = 15.5cm.

Now, let's add everything together. 51cm + A + B = Perimeter. 51cm + 5.5cm + 15.5cm = 72cm.

Hope this helps! Feel free to ask any questions if this doesn't make sense. :)

Answer:

-8

Step-by-step explanation:

It wont let me upload anything so i will come back with steps later

Answer:

A odd index can go to " - infinity "

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

80

Step-by-step explanation:

I = Prt

I = 40  R = .10  T = 5

40 = P (.10)(5)

40 = P(.5)

Divide each side by .5

40/.5 = .5P/.5

80 = P

The interest over 5 years is $80.

The correct option is B.

Simple interest is the borrowing amount added only to the principal amount.

The Formula to calculate the simple interest is;

                                                 S.I. = P x T x R / 100,

Where S.I. is simple interest, P is the principal amount, T is the time period and R is the interest rate in a year.

We can use the formula I = Prt to solve for P. We know that I = 40, r = 0.10, and t = 5. Substituting these values, we get:

40 = P(0.10)(5)

Simplifying:

40 = 0.5P

Dividing both sides by 0.5:

P = 80

Therefore, the amount of money, P, that will generate $40 in interest at a 10% interest rate over 5 years is $80.

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Answer:

S.D = 236.5

~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~

300,

785,

670,

187,

760,

724

Answer:

300, 790, 670, 190, 760, 720

Answer:

The probability is [tex]\frac{3}{4^7}[/tex].

Step-by-step explanation:

Total questions = 7

Number of choices of each question = 4

Probability to give the correct answer = 1/4

Probability to give the wrong answer = 3/4

Probability to give 1 answer wrong

[tex]\frac{1}{4}\times \frac{1}{4}\times \frac{1}{4}\times \frac{1}{4}\times \frac{1}{4}\times \frac{1}{4}\times \frac{3}{4}\\\\= \frac{3}{4^7}[/tex]

Answer:

There will need to be 2 and 1/3 cups of flour according to the recipe

Step-by-step explanation:

Given the recipe, we can say that for each 2 and 2/3s cups of milk, one cup of flour is used. We can write this as ( 2 + 2/3)  cups of milk / (1) cup of flour.

We can also write 2 + 2/3 as 2*(3/3) + 2/3 = 6/3 + 2/3 = 8/3, making our ratio

(8/3) / 1

The ratio stays the same, no matter how many cups of milk or flour are used. Therefore, (8/3) /1 = (4 + 2/3) / cups of flour

Writing our final cups of flour as c, we can say

(8/3) / 1 = (4+2/3) / c

(4+2/3)/c = (12/3 + 2/3) /c = (14/3) /c

(8/3)/1 = (14/3) /c

anything divided by 1 is equal to itself

(8/3) = (14/3)/c

multiply both sides by c to make the variable not a denominator

(8/3) * c = 14/3

multiply both sides by 3 to remove the denominators

8 * c = 14

divide both sides by 8 to isolate the c

c = 14/8 = 7/3 = 6/3 + 1/3 = 2 + 1/3

There will need to be 2 and 1/3 cups of flour according to the recipe

Answer:

18 because we will multiply them all together

formula applied was lbh multiplied together. Mark me as the brainliest

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

y=-2x+7

Step-by-step explanation:

Try plotting the points on desmos. Then use the slope to find the y value.

Answer:

= (6/x - 2)^3

Answer:

B.

Step-by-step explanation: