Answer:
Through receptor molecules on their surfaces, lymphocytes are able to bind antigens
Explanation:
Lymphocytes are the cells responsible for the body's ability to distinguish and react
Answer:
1. lymphocytes
2. phagocytes
3. monocytes
Explanation:
100%
g If the sequence of bases in the DNA coding strand were CCG AGT, the sequence of amino acids in the polypeptide chain would be _
Answer:
GGCUCA
Explanation:
A cell membrane has permeability, which means that the membrane?
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If the entire mRNA sequence for a polypeptide was AUGUACUCGCGACCGUAA, how many amino acids does the polypeptide have
Answer:
5 amino acids
Explanation:
The process of translation involves synthesizing a sequence of amino acids from a mRNA template. The mRNA molecule is read in a group of three nucleotides called CODONS. A codon specifies or codes for an amino acid.
In the question, a mRNA sequence was given as follows: AUGUACUCGCGACCGUAA. From this sequence comprising of 6 codons, 5 possible amino acids will be contained in the polypeptide encoded by this mRNA molecule as the last codon (UAA) is a STOP codon. The following are the codons in the mRNA sequence and their respective amino acids:
*AUG- methionine (met)
*UAC - tyrosine (Tyr)
*UCG - Serine (Ser)
*CGA - Arginine (Arg)
*CCG - Proline (Pro)
*UAA - Stop
3. In biological terms are you a
producer or a consumer? Explain
your answer.
Answer:
consumer
Explanation:
because we get things from living things
Which of the following is a risk associated with making our lifestyle more convenient?
Increased use of technology
O Decrease in environmental hazards
Increased use of science
Increased pollution in the air, water, soil
Answer:
Increased pollution in the air, water, soil.
What is NOT an effect of growth hormone?
a. Growth hormone directly stimulates osteoblasts in the periosteum to promote appositional growth.
b. Growth hormone increases the rate of mitosis in the epiphyseal plate of growing bones.
c. Growth hormone promotes the closure of the epiphyseal plate.
d. Growth hormone increases the activity of osteogenic cells.
C. Growth hormone promotes the closure of the epiphyseal plate.
The closure of the epiphyseal plate is NOT an effect of growth hormone (option c).
The epiphyseal plate is a layer of hyaline cartilage between the epiphyses and metaphyses at the ends of long bones.
The epiphyseal plate is completely closed when bone growth is completed (around age 18 to 21 years).
Different hormones (i.e., testosterone and estrogen) released at puberty initiate the closure of epiphyseal plates.
In conclusion, the closure of the epiphyseal plate is NOT an effect of growth hormone (option c).
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What is your opinion about climate change ?
which statement correctly describes cell differentiation
Answer:
"Causes cells to change as well as specialize" is the correct answer.
Explanation:
There are several differentiations throughout the establishment of a multicellular because that evolves from some kind of basic zygote to something like an interacting entity's structure and indeed the cellular functions that comprise a whole species.Cells get specialized to accomplish diverse roles throughout this mechanism or procedure.5: Diagnosis of bacterial disease can be made by
a. Finding bacteria in pathological fluids
b. Isolation of bacteria by culture from exudates or blood
c. Boh a and b
d. None of these
**
Answer:
c. Both (a) and (b)
Explanation:
Diagnosis of bacterial disease can be made by finding bacteria in pathological fluids and by isolation of bacteria by culture from exudates or blood.
What is the Ukrainian?
Explanation:
Ukraine is a country in Eastern Europe. It is the second-largest country in Europe after Russia, which it borders to the east and north-east.hope it helpsstay safe healthy and happy....Recall that one approach to the study of cell cycle regulation has been to fuse cultured cells that are at different stages of the cell cycle and observe the effect of the fusion on the nuclei of the fused cells (heterokaryons). When cells in Gl are fused with cells in S, the nuclei from the Gl cells begin DNA replication earlier than they would have if they had not been fused. In fusions of cells in G2 and S, however, nuclei continue their previous activities, apparently uninfluenced by the fusion. Fusions between mitotic cells and interphase cells always lead to chromatin condensation in the nonmitotic nuclei. Based on these results, identify each of the following statements about cell cycle regulation as probably true (T), probably false (F), or not possible to conclude from the data (NP). Sort each statement into the appropriate bin.
1. The transition from mitosis to G1 appears to result from the disappearance or inactivation of a cytoplasmic factor present during M-phase.
2. The activation of DNA synthesis may result from the stimulatory of one or more cytoplasmic factors.
3. Gl is not an obligatory phase of all cell cycles
4. The transition from G2 to mitosis may result from the presence in the G2 cytoplasm of one or more factors that induce chromatin formation.
5. The transition from S to G2 may result from the presence of a cytoplasmic factor that inhibits DNA synthesis.
A. T
B. F
C. NP
Answer:
1. T
2. T
3. NP
4. F
5. F
Explanation:
In somatic cells, the cell cycle can be divided into 1-the interphase, 2-the mitotic phase or M phase, and 3-the G₀ phase. In turn, the interphase of the cell cycle can be divided into three phases: 1-the gap 1 (G1) phase or growth 1 phase, 2-the S phase (DNA replication or DNA synthesis), and 3-the gap 2 (G2) phase or growth 2 phase. During the G1 phase, the cell synthesizes key enzymes which are required during DNA replication (S phase) and cell division (M phase). Cytoplasmic factors are proteins and messenger RNAs (mRNAs) that control cell functions during the cell cycle. This cycle is modulated by proteins known as control factors, i.e., cyclins and cyclin-dependent kinases (Cdks) that work together to control the progression through different phases of the cell cycle. The transition from S to G2 occurs after DNA replication. This transition (S to G2) is controlled by a DNA damage checkpoint orchestrated by the ATM (Ataxia telangiectasia mutated) and ATR (Ataxia Telangiectasia and Rad3 related) kinases which are recruited to DNA damage sites. Moreover, the transition from G2 to M phase is mediated by the accumulation of mitotic inducers, which lead to an increase in the activity of mitotic kinase and finally trigger mitotic entry.
What trait are narcissists likely to have that is associated with leader emergence but not effectiveness
Answer:
Agreeableness.
Explanation:
Agreeableness is the trait that narcissists likely to have which is negatively corelated and is associated with leader emergence but not effectiveness. The tendency toward self-interest would attract the person into follow his or her own goals rather than the interests of their group or company. The term Narcissism originated from Greek mythology, where a young man whose name is Narcissus fell in love with his own image reflected in a pool of water so that's why selfness and self interests refers to Narcissism.
The energy source for active transport is ________ , while the force driving facilitated diffusion is ________.
Answer:
JJJJJJJJJJJJJJJJJJJJJJJJJJJJJJJJJJJJJJJJJJJJJJJJJJJJJJJJJJJJJJJJJJJJJJJJJJJJJJJJJJJJJJJJJJJJJJJJJJJJJJJJJJJJJJJJJJJJJJJJJJJJJJJJJJJJJJJJJJJJJJJJJJJJJJJJJJJJJJJJJJJJJJJJJJJJJJJJJJJJJJJJJJJJJJJJJJJJJJJJJJJJJJJJJJJJJJJJJJJJJJJJJJJJJJJJJJJJJJJJJJJJJJJJJJJJJJJJJJJJJJJJJJJJJJJJJJJJJJJJJJJJJJJJJJJJJJJJJJJJJJJJJJJJJJJJJJJJJJJJJJJJJJJJJJJJJJJJJJJJJJJJJJJJJJJJJJJJJJJJJJJJJJJJJJJJJJJJJJJJJJJJ
Explanation:
Which phrase best describes a savana biome
Answer:
A biome that is dry most of the time long tall dried out grass. The savanna is home to many large land mammals, including elephants, giraffes, zebras, rhinoceroses, buffalo, lions, leopards, and cheetahs. Other animals include baboons, crocodiles, antelopes, meerkats, ants, termites, kangaroos, ostriches, and snakes.
Explanation:
Hope this helps ! <33
Which of the following is the best definition of an atom?
O A. A particle within the nucleus that has a neutral charge
B. A negatively charged particle that circles the nucleus
C. The fundamental unit of all matter, both living and nonliving
O D. A positively charged particle within the nucleus
SUBMI
Answer:
C. The fundamental unit of all matter, both living and nonliving
What are three structural differences between animal and plant cells
All living things are made up of cells. Cells are the basic unit of a living organism and where all life processes are carried out.
Animal cells and plant cells share the common components of a nucleus, cytoplasm, mitochondria and a cell membrane.
Plant cells have three extra components, a vacuole, chloroplast and a cell wall.
in order for polar compounds to enter into the hydrophobic space of phospholipid tails, it would need to break the many ___ bonds
Answer:
In order for polar compounds to enter into the hydrophobic space of phospholipid tails, it would need to break the many hydrogen bonds
Explanation:
In the presence of water, the hydrophobic tails tend to interact with each other, creating a hydrophobic space from which water is excluded and in which other hydrophobic molecules can be trapped, while the polar head interacts with water, and is solvated, preserving the hydrophobic part from all contact with water. For a hydrogen bridge to form, a molecule that has hydrogen attached to an atom of high electronegativity and another molecule that has another electronegative atom with high electron density (that is, a negative partial charge) is required. Water molecules in the bulk of the body of water maintain multiple interactions with other molecules through an extensive network of hydrogen bridges, so for polar compounds to enter, it would be necessary to break many of these bonds.
Mendel used
over 28,000 pea plants in his experiment. How does this large
sample size make his results more reliable?
Answer:
Large sample sizes provide more accurate mean values.
Explanation:
More accurate mean values will identify outliers which could skew the data in a smaller sample.
Los mamíferos marinos, que a diferencia de los peces tienen sangre caliente, han perdido el pelaje como adaptación a la vida en el agua. Para compensar la falta de la cubierta de pelo desarrollaron gruesas capas de grasa debajo de la piel que ayudan a evitar la pérdida de calor corporal. ¿Con qué función de los lípidos se relaciona esta adaptación? Justificar.
Answer:
Please Translate it in english, so i can easyly answer it.
Explanation:
thank you.
The protein salmon has an isoelectric point of 12.1. Suppose you did a pH titration of a solution containing salmon. At what pH will the protein aggregate
Answer:
The correct answer is - 12.1.
Explanation:
In the case of the same isoelectric point of protein and the pH value of the solution, it is the only condition when aggregation of proteins takes place.
When there is intrinsically disordered proteins or misfolded proteins aggregates known as the protein aggregate. So for the first aggregation takes place at pH= 12.1.
There are six major groups of enzymes. The categories are based on the types of reactions that they catalyze. What type of enzyme can join together two molecules to make a larger molecule such as a long strand of DNA
Answer:
DNA ligase.
Explanation:
DNA ligase is a type of enzyme that is responsible for join together of two molecules to make a larger molecule such as a long strand of DNA. This enzyme joins the end of two DNA molecules making it a long strand of DNA. In DNA cloning process, restriction enzymes and DNA ligase enzymes are used to incorporate genes and other pieces of DNA into plasmids so we can say that DNA ligase is responsible for long strand of DNA.
At a birthday party, a teen decides to inhale some of the helium from a nearby balloon using his mouth. Before the helium gas reaches his right and left lungs, through which order of structures will it flow?
A. Oral cavity to the oropharynx to the trachea to the right and left main bronchi.
B. Oral cavity to the trachea to the trachea to the nasopharynx to the right and left main bronchi.
C. Oral cavity to the right and left main bronchi to the trachea to the oropharynx.
D. Oral cavity to the trachea to the larynx to the right and left main bronchi.
E. Oral cavity to the nasopharynx to the trachea to the right and left main bronchi.
Answer:
D. Oral cavity to the trachea to the larynx to the right and left main bronchi.
Explanation:
The respiratory system may be a system consisting of specific organs and structures used for gas exchange in animals and plants.
What is the process of respiration?We have a pair of external nostrils opening out above the upper lips. It results in a nasal chamber through the nasal passage. The nasal chamber opens into the pharynx, some of which are the common passage for food and air. The pharynx opens through the larynx region into the trachea.Trachea is a straight tube extending up to the mid-thoracic cavity, which divides at the extent of the 5th thoracic vertebra into a right and left primary bronchi. Each terminal bronchiole gives rise to a variety of very thin, irregular-walled, and vascularized bag-like structures called alveoli. The branching network of bronchi, bronchioles, and alveoli comprise the lung.
Thus, we can conclude that the correct option is (e).
The oral cavity to the nasopharynx to the trachea to the right and left main bronchi.
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What is the complementary DNA strand for this DNA strand : GTTACGAACT
Answer:
CAATGCTTGA
Explanation:
Explain why virus could not fit into any one of the five kingdom
Answer:
To make copies of themselves they necessarily need the intervention of a cell. Therefore, viruses are not living beings. That is why they are not included in any Kingdom in which living beings are included
Comparing Densities
If two balls have the same volume, but ball A has twice as much mass as ball B, which one will have the greater
density?
If ball C is 3 times the volume of ball D and ball D has 1/3 the mass of ball C, which has the greater density?
If two balls have the same mass, but ball P is twice as large as ball Q, which one will have the greater density?
If ball X is twice as big as ball Y and weighs only half as much as ball Y, then which one will have the greater
density?
mious Activity
Answer:
Ball A has more density.
Explanation:
Density is found using mass divided by volume. Let's say ball A has a mass of 6 grams, and ball B has a mass of 3 grams. If the volume for both is 1 mL, then ball A has more density.
What cause disease blood cancer
Answer:
-Advanced age
-Certain types of infections
-Compromised immune system due to such conditions as HIV/AIDS, taking corticosteroids, or organ transplant
-Exposure to certain chemicals
-Exposure to radiation or certain types of chemotherapy
-Family history of blood cancer
-HIV/AIDS
-Solid organ transplant recipient
-Personal history of certain blood disorders
-Personal history of certain genetic disorders (Down syndrome)
-Smoking
Explanation:
Leukemia
A type of cancer which affects the production and function of blood cells. This causes swollen lymph nodes, recurrent nosebleeds, tiredness, frequent infections, weight loss, bleeding, and bone pain. Leukemia symptoms vary, depending on the type of leukemia. Common signs and symptoms of leukemia include:
Swollen lymph nodes especially in the neck and armpits
Experience pain in bones
Night sweats - excessive sweating, especially at Night
Weakness and fatigue
Rapid weight loss
Red spots on the skin
Bleeding and bruising easily
Fever or chills
Frequent infections
Causes
The exact cause is not known. Hereditary and environmental factors may play a role in developing the disease.
The risk factors include:
Mutations in the DNA are frequently a major cause.
Sometimes chromosome translocation can also promote activation of oncogenes (the cancer inducing genes) and this can lead to disease progression.
Exposure to certain chemicals and radiation can also induce cancer.
HELP ASAP!!!! 50 points!!
In this task, you’ll record the direction of a compass as it’s placed at different points around a magnet. The investigation will try to answer the question, Do two magnets create magnetic force fields that allow them to interact without touching?
Part D :
How might someone dispute the results of this investigation? How might you counter the argument?
Answer:
It could be argued that there is a separate force acting upon the investigation. Or that the room is invalidating the results for some reason. Or that an error was made in measurement.
There are a thousand and one ways to try to dispute an investigation like this. However, for every argument that can oppose it, a counterargument can easily be made.
For instance, controlling the variables invalidates about 90% of any possible claims to the contrary. The majority of arguments would stem from the fact that it is nearly impossible to completely prove something in fear of external factors. The solution? Control the external factors.
So, in conclusion, a person could dispute the results of the investigation by claiming that something invisible like magnetics could not possibly be proven to exist, because there are all sorts of things that could be influencing the investigation. The way to counter the argument would be to prove yourself that the environment is controlled, and that nothing could be influencing the investigation.
Answer:
guy ontop is correct
Explanation:
Match each of the following descriptions with the correct brain structure(s). Drag the terms on the left to the appropriate blanks on the right to complete the sentences.
a. houses the corpora quadrigemina
b. components of the diencephalon
c. connects the third and fourth ventricles
d. continuous with the spinal cord
e. produces cerebrospinal fluid
f. components of the brainstem
g. major homeostatic organ
h. contains Broca's area
i. structure from which pineal gland extends
j. contains lateral ventricles
k. contains arbor vitae
1. pons
2. thalamus
3. cerebellum
4. hypothalamus
5. cerebral aqueduct
6. medulla oblongata
7. midbrain
8. epithalamus
9. cerebrum
10. choroid plexus
Answer:
a. midbrain
b. thalamus; hypothalamus, epithalamus
c. cerebral aqueduct
d. medulla oblongata
e. choroid plexus
f. pons; medulla oblongata; midbrain
g. hypothalamus
h. cerebrum
i. epithalamus
j. cerebrum
k. cerebellum
Explanation:
The brainstem is the posterior part of the brain that connects the cerebrum with the spinal cord. The brainstem can be divided into three parts: midbrain (i.e., mesencephalon), the pons (i.e., metencephalon), and the medulla oblongata (i.e., myelencephalon). The mesencephalon is a region of the brain composed of the tectum and tegmentum, which play fundamental roles in motor movement, auditory and visual processing. The corpora quadrigemina is found at the tectum region of the midbrain. The diencephalon is a small part of the brain located above the brainstem (between cerebral hemispheres); which contains the thalamus, hypothalamus, subthalamus, and epithalamus. In turn, the epithalamus is composed of the habenular nuclei, pineal gland, and the stria medullaris thalami. The cerebral aqueduct is a narrow channel (approx. 15 mm) in which the cerebrospinal fluid flows between the third ventricle and the fourth ventricle. The medulla oblongata is a long stem-like structure located in the brainstem of the brain, just in the place where the brainstem connects the brain to the spinal cord. The choroid plexus is a complex network of capillaries located at the cerebral ventricles of the brain, which serve to produce cerebrospinal fluid through ependymal cells that line the ventricles of the brain. The cerebellum is a major structure of the hindbrain and consists of the cerebellar cortex and a core of white matter having the cerebellar nuclei.
Light dependent reactions are carried out both on and in between photosystems. This process is like the last stage of aerobic respiration in that both:______.
a. reaction sequences carry out electron transfer phosphorylations.
b. processes generate ATP.
c. processes involve electron flow.
d. systems are lodged along and within a membrane surface.
e. all of the above.
Answer:
e. all of the above
Explanation:
Photosynthesis and respiration are two complementary processes.
Photosynthesis occurs in chloroplasts. The electron transport chain is placed in the thylakoid membrane, where it occurs light-dependent reactions.Respiration occurs in mitochondria, in the internal membrane, where is the electron transport chain.Photosynthesis needs solar radiation to produce organic compounds.The respiration process needs organic compounds to obtain chemical energy.Photosynthesis transforms CO₂ into organic compoundsRespiration transforms organic compounds into CO₂.In the photosynthesis process occurs a release of oxygen, which is used during the respiration process. Both processes are part of the carbon biological cycle.Both processes use electron transport chains to capture energy, which will be used in other cellular reactions.Respiration´s final products are CO₂, ATP, and waterPhotosynthesis´s final products of light-dependent reactions are oxygen, ATP, and NADPH.