The ocean surface is at 0 ft elevation. A diver is underwater at a depth of 138 ft. In this area, the ocean floor has a depth of 247 ft. A rock formation rises to a peak 171 ft above the ocean floor. How many feet below the top of the rock formation is the diver?

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

1500(1.055)^7= 2182.02

Answer:

hope this help you

sorry if it is mistake

Answer:

A 6 Packages of buns and 5 packages of wieners.

Step-by-step explanation:

Because if you multiply 6x10 you get 60 and if you multiply 5x12 you get 60 exactly 1 wieners per bun

First, I'll make f(x) = sin(px) + cos(px) because this expression shows up quite a lot, and such a substitution makes life a bit easier for us.

Let's apply the first derivative of this f(x) function.

[tex]f(x) = \sin(px)+\cos(px)\\\\f'(x) = \frac{d}{dx}[f(x)]\\\\f'(x) = \frac{d}{dx}[\sin(px)+\cos(px)]\\\\f'(x) = \frac{d}{dx}[\sin(px)]+\frac{d}{dx}[\cos(px)]\\\\f'(x) = p\cos(px)-p\sin(px)\\\\ f'(x) = p(\cos(px)-\sin(px))\\\\[/tex]

Now apply the derivative to that to get the second derivative

[tex]f''(x) = \frac{d}{dx}[f'(x)]\\\\f''(x) = \frac{d}{dx}[p(\cos(px)-\sin(px))]\\\\ f''(x) = p*\left(\frac{d}{dx}[\cos(px)]-\frac{d}{dx}[\sin(px)]\right)\\\\ f''(x) = p*\left(-p\sin(px)-p\cos(px)\right)\\\\ f''(x) = -p^2*\left(\sin(px)+\cos(px)\right)\\\\ f''(x) = -p^2*f(x)\\\\[/tex]

We can see that f '' (x) is just a scalar multiple of f(x). That multiple of course being -p^2.

Keep in mind that we haven't actually found dy/dx yet, or its second derivative counterpart either.

-----------------------------------

Let's compute dy/dx. We'll use f(x) as defined earlier.

[tex]y = \ln\left(\sin(px)+\cos(px)\right)\\\\y = \ln\left(f(x)\right)\\\\\frac{dy}{dx} = \frac{d}{dx}\left[y\right]\\\\\frac{dy}{dx} = \frac{d}{dx}\left[\ln\left(f(x)\right)\right]\\\\\frac{dy}{dx} = \frac{1}{f(x)}*\frac{d}{dx}\left[f(x)\right]\\\\\frac{dy}{dx} = \frac{f'(x)}{f(x)}\\\\[/tex]

Use the chain rule here.

There's no need to plug in the expressions f(x) or f ' (x) as you'll see in the last section below.

Now use the quotient rule to find the second derivative of y

[tex]\frac{d^2y}{dx^2} = \frac{d}{dx}\left[\frac{dy}{dx}\right]\\\\\frac{d^2y}{dx^2} = \frac{d}{dx}\left[\frac{f'(x)}{f(x)}\right]\\\\\frac{d^2y}{dx^2} = \frac{f''(x)*f(x)-f'(x)*f'(x)}{(f(x))^2}\\\\\frac{d^2y}{dx^2} = \frac{f''(x)*f(x)-(f'(x))^2}{(f(x))^2}\\\\[/tex]

If you need a refresher on the quotient rule, then

[tex]\frac{d}{dx}\left[\frac{P}{Q}\right] = \frac{P'*Q - P*Q'}{Q^2}\\\\[/tex]

where P and Q are functions of x.

-----------------------------------

This then means

[tex]\frac{d^2y}{dx^2} + \left(\frac{dy}{dx}\right)^2 + p^2\\\\\frac{f''(x)*f(x)-(f'(x))^2}{(f(x))^2} + \left(\frac{f'(x)}{f(x)}\right)^2 + p^2\\\\\frac{f''(x)*f(x)-(f'(x))^2}{(f(x))^2} +\frac{(f'(x))^2}{(f(x))^2} + p^2\\\\\frac{f''(x)*f(x)-(f'(x))^2+(f'(x))^2}{(f(x))^2} + p^2\\\\\frac{f''(x)*f(x)}{(f(x))^2} + p^2\\\\[/tex]

Note the cancellation of -(f ' (x))^2 with (f ' (x))^2

------------------------------------

Let's then replace f '' (x) with -p^2*f(x)

This allows us to form  ( f(x) )^2 in the numerator to cancel out with the denominator.

[tex]\frac{f''(x)*f(x)}{(f(x))^2} + p^2\\\\\frac{-p^2*f(x)*f(x)}{(f(x))^2} + p^2\\\\\frac{-p^2*(f(x))^2}{(f(x))^2} + p^2\\\\-p^2 + p^2\\\\0\\\\[/tex]

So this concludes the proof that [tex]\frac{d^2y}{dx^2} + \left(\frac{dy}{dx}\right)^2 + p^2 = 0\\\\[/tex] when [tex]y = \ln\left(\sin(px)+\cos(px)\right)\\\\[/tex]

Side note: This is an example of showing that the given y function is a solution to the given second order linear differential equation.

Let W be the random variable representing your winnings from playing the game. Then

[tex]P(W=w)=\begin{cases}\text{prob. of rolling an even number}=\frac12&\text{if }w=\$0.50-\$1=-\$0.50\\\text{prob. of rolling a 1}=\frac16&\text{if }w=\$2-\$1=\$1\\\text{prob. of rolling 3 or 5}=\frac13&\text{if }w=\$1-\$1=\$0\\0&\text{otherwise}\end{cases}[/tex]

In short, you have a 1/6 chance of profiting from the game, and a 5/6 chance of losing money. So the odds of winning are (1/6)/(5/6) = 1/5 or 1 to 5.

Let

ATQ

[tex]\\ \sf \longmapsto Area=Length\times Width[/tex]

[tex]\\ \sf \longmapsto x(x+3)=28[/tex]

[tex]\\ \sf \longmapsto x^2+3x=28[/tex]

[tex]\\ \sf \longmapsto x^2+3x-28=0[/tex]

[tex]\\ \sf \longmapsto x^2+7x-4x-28=0[/tex]

[tex]\\ \sf \longmapsto x(x+7)-4(x+7)=0[/tex]

[tex]\\ \sf \longmapsto (x-4)(x+7)=0[/tex]

[tex]\\ \sf \longmapsto x=4\:or\:x=-7[/tex]

[tex]\\ \sf \longmapsto Width=4units[/tex]

[tex]\\ \sf \longmapsto Length=4+3=7units[/tex]

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Answer:

  B B C C A A

Step-by-step explanation:

If we number the equations 1 to 6 left to right, then we have ...

Answer:

-6

Step-by-step explanation:

27-3/2x=36

53-3x=72

3x=-18

x=-6

Answer:

1/4 cup each

Step-by-step explanation:

Take the amount of ice cream and divide by 3

3/4÷ 3

Copy dot flip

3/4 * 1/3

Rewriting

3/3 * 1/4

1/4 cup each

Answer:

The 5-hour decay factor for the number of mg of caffeine in Ben's body is of 0.1469.

Step-by-step explanation:

After consuming the energy drink, the amount of caffeine in Ben's body decreases exponentially.

This means that the amount of caffeine after t hours is given by:

[tex]A(t) = A(0)e^{-kt}[/tex]

In which A(0) is the initial amount and k is the decay rate, as a decimal.

The 10-hour decay factor for the number of mg of caffeine in Ben's body is 0.2722.

1 - 0.2722 = 0.7278, thus, [tex]A(10) = 0.7278A(0)[/tex]. We use this to find k.

[tex]A(t) = A(0)e^{-kt}[/tex]

[tex]0.7278A(0) = A(0)e^{-10k}[/tex]

[tex]e^{-10k} = 0.7278[/tex]

[tex]\ln{e^{-10k}} = \ln{0.7278}[/tex]

[tex]-10k = \ln{0.7278}[/tex]

[tex]k = -\frac{\ln{0.7278}}{10}[/tex]

[tex]k = 0.03177289938 [/tex]

Then

[tex]A(t) = A(0)e^{-0.03177289938t}[/tex]

What is the 5-hour growth/decay factor for the number of mg of caffeine in Ben's body?

We have to find find A(5), as a function of A(0). So

[tex]A(5) = A(0)e^{-0.03177289938*5}[/tex]

[tex]A(5) = 0.8531[/tex]

The decay factor is:

1 - 0.8531 = 0.1469

The 5-hour decay factor for the number of mg of caffeine in Ben's body is of 0.1469.

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

The steps and their reasons for the equation 8(y - 3) = - 40 are given below.

The allocation of weights to the important variables that produce the calculation's optimum is referred to as a direct consequence.

The equation is given below.

8(y - 3) = - 40

            Steps                                               Reason

       8(y - 3) = - 40                                          Given

       8y - 24 = - 40                                Distributive property

8y - 24 + 24 = - 24 + 24                 Addition Property of Equality

               8y = - 16                                      Simplifying

          8y / 8 = - 16/8                       Division property of equality

                  y = - 2                                       Simplifying

More about the solution of the equation link is given below.

https://brainly.com/question/545403

#SPJ2

Answer:

Hello,

Just using the theorem of Thalès,

Step-by-step explanation:

Let say h the hight of the building

[tex]\dfrac{h}{3} =\dfrac{42.75}{1.23}\\\\h=104.268296...\approx{104(m)}[/tex]

Step-by-step explanation:

Many factors would be used to assess the effectiveness of a human rights campaign, including the following:

Social Influence. Direct Interpersonal Reach. Participant Observation. Reputation. Volume of Search & Interest. Website Traffic.

National Research.

Answer:

H0: µd = 0 (claim)

H1: µd ≠ 0

This is a two-tail t-test for µd

Step-by-step explanation:

This is a paired (dependent) sample test, with its hypothesis is written as :

H0: µd = 0

H1: µd ≠ 0

From the equality sign used in the hypothesis declaration, a not equal to ≠ sign in the alternative hypothesis is used for a two tailed t test

The data isn't attached, however bce the test statistic cannot be obtained. However, the test statistic formular for a paired sample is given as :

T = dbar / (Sd/√n)

dbar = mean of the difference ; Sd = standard deviation of the difference.

Answer:

D ) none of these .. i think this help you

Answer:

Pvalue

Step-by-step explanation:

The Pvalue measure which takes up a value in the range 0 - 1 is a statistical measure used on hypothesis testing to measure the likelihood of obtaining result atleast as extreme as the outcome of the statistical hypothesis test, The Pvalue is used in hypothesis testing to make a case for the alternative hypothesis, which involves being compared with the α - value.

Lower p values favors the adoption of alternative depending on how extreme th α-value is. The Pvalue is dependent on the value if the test statistic.

Answers:

The boxplot is shown below.

=========================================

Explanation:

What your teacher wants is the five number summary.

This consists of:

Given in that exact order.

The given data set is  { 8, 19, 11, 20, 2, 14, 17, 9, 15}

This sorts to  {2, 8, 9, 11, 14, 15, 17, 19, 20}

From this sorted set, we see that 2 is the smallest item. So this is the min value. This is data point 1.

The max is the largest item, which in this case is 20, so this value goes in the box for data point 5.

---------------------

Count out the number of values in the sorted set. You should count out n = 9 items.

Because n is odd, this means the median is in slot n/2 = 9/2 = 4.5 = 5

The value in the 5th slot is 14 which is the median (data point 3).

-----------------------

Once you determine the median, break the sorted set up like so

L = {2, 8, 9, 11}

U = {15, 17, 19, 20}

L is the lower set of values smaller than the median

U is the upper set of values larger than the median

The median itself is not part of set L and not part of set U either. It's ignored entirely from this point on.

From here, we find the middle values of L and U

You should find that the middle value of L is (8+9)/2 = 17/2 = 8.5 which is the value of Q1 (data point 2)

And also, the middle value of set U is (17+19)/2 = 36/2 = 18 which is the value of Q3 (data point 4)

-----------------------

To wrap everything up, we have this five number summary

These will determine the features of the boxplot as shown below.

In this case, there are no outliers.

Answer:

4 scoops of ice cream

Step-by-step explanation:

Plug in the total cost, number of scoops of nuts, and number of liquid toppings into the formula. Then, solve for s:

C = 0.50s + 0.35n + 0.25t

3.55 = 0.50s + 0.35(3) + 0.25(2)

3.55 = 0.50s + 1.05 + 0.5

3.55 = 0.50s + 1.55

2 = 0.50s

4 = s

So, the sundae had 4 scoops of ice cream.

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Answer:

  B)  K′ = (–2,2), L′ = (1,2), M′ = (1,–1), N′ = (–2,–1)

Step-by-step explanation:

Translation 2 units right adds 2 to the x-coordinate.

Translation 4 units upward adds 4 to the y-coordinate.

The translation can be represented by the relation ...

  (x, y) ⇒ (x +2, y +4)

__

You can choose the correct answer by looking at the translation of K.

  K(-4, -2) ⇒ K'(-4+2, -2+4) = K'(-2, 2) . . . . . matches choice B

Answer:

B) 1 unit to the left

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

1

Step-by-step explanation:

the maximum of f(X)=sin(X) is 1

Answer:

The equation of the line is y = -2/3x - 29/3

Step-by-step explanation:

The slope of these points (-7,-5) and (-1,-9) is m = -2/3

Once you plug that into the y = mx + b equation, you can see that the y-intercept is -29/3.

Put all of that into the y = mx + b equation and you'll get -->  y = -2/3x - 29/3

The rocks are chosen without replacement, which means that the hypergeometric distribution is used to solve this question. First we get the parameters, and then we answer the questions. From this, we get that:

Hypergeometric distribution:

The probability of x successes is given by the following formula:

[tex]P(X = x) = h(x,N,n,k) = \frac{C_{k,x}*C_{N-k,n-x}}{C_{N,n}}[/tex]

In which:

x is the number of successes.

N is the size of the population.

n is the size of the sample.

k is the total number of desired outcomes.

Combinations formula:

[tex]C_{n,x}[/tex] is the number of different combinations of x objects from a set of n elements, given by the following formula.

[tex]C_{n,x} = \frac{n!}{x!(n-x)!}[/tex]

The mean and the variance are:

[tex]\mu = \frac{nk}{N}[/tex]

[tex]\sigma^2 = \frac{nk(N-k)(N-n)}{N^2(N-1)}[/tex]

We have that:

5 + 7 = 12 rocks, which means that [tex]N = 12[/tex]

9 are chosen, which means that [tex]n = 9[/tex]

7 are granite, which means that [tex]k = 7[/tex]

Question a:

[tex]E(X) = \mu = \frac{9\times7}{12} = 5.25[/tex]

[tex]Var(X) = \sigma^2 = \frac{9\times7(12-7)(12-9)}{12^2(12-1)} = 0.5966[/tex]

Thus:

[tex]E(X) = 5.25, Var(X) = 0.5966[/tex]

Question b:

Since there are only 5 specimens of basaltic rock, at least 9 - 5 = 4 specimens of granite are needed, which means that:

[tex]P(X < 6) = P(X = 4) + P(X = 5) + P(X = 6)[/tex]

In which

[tex]P(X = x) = h(x,N,n,k) = \frac{C_{k,x}*C_{N-k,n-x}}{C_{N,n}}[/tex]

[tex]P(X = 4) = h(4,12,9,7) = \frac{C_{7,4}*C_{5,5}}{C_{12,9}} = 0.1591[/tex]

[tex]P(X = 5) = h(5,12,9,7) = \frac{C_{7,5}*C_{5,4}}{C_{12,9}} = 0.4773[/tex]

[tex]P(X = 6) = h(6,12,9,7) = \frac{C_{7,6}*C_{5,3}}{C_{12,9}} = 0.3181[/tex]

Thus

[tex]P(X < 6) = P(X = 4) + P(X = 5) + P(X = 6) = 0.1591 + 0.4773 + 0.3181 = 0.9545[/tex]

So P(X < 6) = 0.9545.

Question c:

5 of basaltic and 4 of granite: 0.1591 probability.

7 of granite is P(X = 7), in which

[tex]P(X = 7) = h(7,12,9,7) = \frac{C_{7,7}*C_{5,2}}{C_{12,9}} = 0.0455[/tex]

0.1591 + 0.0455 = 0.2046, thus:

P(all specimens of one of the two types of rock are selected for analysis) = 0.2046.

A similar question is found at https://brainly.com/question/24008577

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Answer:

  (e) f′(x)=2xg(x)+x²g′(x)

Step-by-step explanation:

The product rule applies.

  (uv)' = u'v +uv'

__

Here, we have u=x² and v=g(x). Then u'=2x and v'=g'(x).

  f(x) = x²·g(x)

  f'(x) = 2x·g(x) +x²·g'(x)

Answer:

a. L{t} = 1/s² b. L{1} = 1/s

Step-by-step explanation:

Here is the complete question

The The Laplace Transform of a function ft), which is defined for all t2 0, is denoted by Lf(t)) and is defined by the improper integral Lf))s)J" e-st . f(C)dt, as long as it converges. Laplace Transform is very useful in physics and engineering for solving certain linear ordinary differential equations. (Hint: think of s as a fixed constant) 1. Find Lft) (hint: remember integration by parts) A. None of these. B. O C. D. 1 E. F. -s2 2. Find L(1) A. 1 B. None of these. C. 1 D.-s E. 0

Solution

a. L{t}

L{t} = ∫₀⁰⁰[tex]e^{-st}t[/tex]

Integrating by parts  ∫udv/dt = uv - ∫vdu/dt where u = t and dv/dt = [tex]e^{-st}[/tex] and v = [tex]\frac{e^{-st}}{-s}[/tex] and du/dt = dt/dt = 1

So, ∫₀⁰⁰udv/dt = uv - ∫₀⁰⁰vdu/dt w

So,  ∫₀⁰⁰[tex]e^{-st}t[/tex] =  [[tex]\frac{te^{-st}}{-s}[/tex]]₀⁰⁰ -  ∫₀⁰⁰ [tex]\frac{e^{-st}}{-s}[/tex]

∫₀⁰⁰[tex]e^{-st}t[/tex] =  [[tex]\frac{te^{-st}}{-s}[/tex]]₀⁰⁰ -  ∫₀⁰⁰ [tex]\frac{e^{-st}}{-s}[/tex]

= -1/s(∞exp(-∞s) - 0 × exp(-0s)) + [tex]\frac{1}{s}[/tex] [[tex]\frac{e^{-st} }{-s}[/tex]]₀⁰⁰

= -1/s[(∞exp(-∞) - 0 × exp(0)] - 1/s²[exp(-∞s) - exp(-0s)]

= -1/s[(∞ × 0 - 0 × 1] - 1/s²[exp(-∞) - exp(-0)]

= -1/s[(0 - 0] - 1/s²[0 - 1]

= -1/s[(0] - 1/s²[- 1]

= 0 + 1/s²

= 1/s²

L{t} = 1/s²

b. L{1}

L{1} = ∫₀⁰⁰[tex]e^{-st}1[/tex]

= [[tex]\frac{e^{-st} }{-s}[/tex]]₀⁰⁰

= -1/s[exp(-∞s) - exp(-0s)]

= -1/s[exp(-∞) - exp(-0)]

= -1/s[0 - 1]

= -1/s(-1)

= 1/s

L{1} = 1/s

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

(ii) right angle becuase perpendicular

iv) congruent because <b=<a (opp ang in isc.tria. is equal)

since ΔADC ≅ Δ BDC, AB=BD

Answer:

4

Step-by-step explanation:

There are 4 reflectional symmetry