The following situation will be used for the next three problems: A rock is projected upward from the surface of the moon, at time t = -0.0s, with a velocity of 30m/s. The acceleration due to gravity at the surface of the moon is 1.62m/s2 the time when the rock is ascending at a height of 180m is closest to:______.
a. 8s .
b. 12s.
c. 17s.
d. 23s.
e. 30s
For the previous situation, the height of the rock when it is descending with a velocity of 20m/s is closest to:_____.
A. 115m.
B. 125m.
C. 135m.
D. 145m
E. 155m.

Answer:

12.2 m

Explanation:

Given:

v₀ = 15.6 m/s

v = 0 m/s

a = -10 m/s²

Find: Δy

v² = v₀² + 2aΔy

(0 m/s)² = (15.6 m/s)² + 2 (-10 m/s²) Δy

Δy = 12.2 m

[tex] \LARGE{ \boxed{ \rm{ \green{Answer:}}}}[/tex]

Given,

Finding the initial kinetic energy,

[tex]\large{ \boxed{ \rm{K.E. = \frac{1}{2}m {v}^{2}}}}[/tex]

⇛ KE = (1/2)mv²

⇛ KE = (1/2)(0.042)(15.6)²

⇛ KE = 5.11 J

|| ⚡By conservation of energy, the potential energy at the highest point will also be 5.11 J, since there is no kinetic energy at the highest point because the ball is not moving (we neglect energy lost due to air resistance, heat, sound, etc.) ⚡||

So, we have:

[tex] \large{ \boxed{ \rm{P.E. = mgh}}}[/tex]

⇛ h = PE/(mg)

⇛ h = 5.11 J /(0.042 × 9.8)

⇛ h = 12.41 m

✏The ball will rise upto a height of 12.41 m

━━━━━━━━━━━━━━━━━━━━

Answer:

The highest percentage of change corresponds to the thinnest rod, the correct answer is a

Explanation:

For this exercise we are asked to change the length of the bar by the action of a force applied along its length, in this case we focus on the expression of longitudinal elasticity

               F / A = Y ΔL/L

where F / A is the force per unit length, ΔL / L is the fraction of the change in length, and Y is Young's modulus.

In this case the bars are made of the same material by which Young's modulus is the same for all

              ΔL / L = (F / A) / Y

the area of ​​the bar is the area of ​​a circle

               A = π r² = π d² / 4

               A = π / 4 d²

we substitute

              ΔL / L = (F / Y) 4 /πd²

changing length

               ΔL = (F / Y 4 /π) L / d²

The amount between paracentesis are all constant in this exercise, let's look for the longitudinal change

a) values ​​given d and 3L

               ΔL = cte 3L / d²

               ΔL = cte L /d²  3

To find the percentage, we must divide the change in magnitude by its value and multiply by 100.

                ΔL/L % = [(F /Y  4/π 1/d²) 3L ] / 3L 100

                ΔL/L  % = cte 100%

b) 3d and L value, we repeat the same process as in part a

               ΔL = cte L / 9d²

               ΔL = cte L / d² 1/9

               ΔL / L% = cte 100/9

               ΔL / L% = cte 11%

c) 2d and 2L value

               ΔL = (cte L / d ½ )/ 2L

               ΔL/L% = cte 100/4

               ΔL/L% = cte 25%

d) value 4d and L

               ΔL = cte L / d² 1/16

                ΔL/L % = cte 100/16

                ΔL/L % = cte 6.25%

The highest percentage of change corresponds to the thinnest rod, the correct answer is a

Answer:

θ = 45.15°

Explanation:

We need to use the grating equation in this question. The grating equation is given as follows:

mλ = d Sin θ

where,

m = order number = 3

λ = wavelength of light = 520 nm = 5.2 x 10⁻⁷ m

d = slit spacing = 2.2 μm = 2.2 x 10⁻⁶ m

θ = angle from the axis = ?

Therefore,

(3)(5.2 x 10⁻⁷ m) = (2.2 x 10⁻⁶ m) Sin θ

Sin θ = (3)(5.2 x 10⁻⁷ m)/(2.2 x 10⁻⁶ m)

Sin θ = 0.709

θ = Sin⁻¹(0.709)

θ = 45.15°

Answer:

Explanation:

Formula used for calculating power P = current * voltage

P = IV

From ohms law, V = IR where R is the resistance. Substituting V = IR into the formula for calculating power, we will have;

P = IV

P =(V/R)V

P = V²/R

Given parameters

Power rating of the bulb P = 100 Watts

Source voltage V = 110V

Required

Resistance of the bulb R

Substituting the given parameters into the formula for calculating power to get Resistance R;

P = V²/R

100 = 110²/R

R = 110²/100

R = 110 * 110/100

R = 12100/100

R = 121 ohms

Hence, the resistance of this bulb is 121 ohms

The color that is reflected when a red card is illuminated by red light is white.

The color an object is perceived to have, depends on the frequency of light it reflects.

If white light incidents on a red filter, red is transmitted while blue and green are absorbed.

Consequently, when a red card is illuminated by red light, the red card will  reflect back almost all the incident light on it, causing it to appear brighter which creates an  illusion of white color to the eyes.

Thus, we can conclude the color that is reflected when a red card is illuminated by red light is white.

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Answer:

The rms current is 0.3112 A.

Explanation:

Given that,

Suppose, The capacitance is 170 μF and the inductance is 2.94 mH. The resistance in the top branch is 278 Ohms, and in the bottom branch is 151 Ohms. The potential of the power supply is 47 V .

We know that,

When the frequency is very large then the capacitance can be treated as a short circuit and inductance as open circuit.

So,

We need to calculate the rms current

Using formula of current

[tex]I=\dfrac{V}{R}[/tex]

Where, V = voltage

R = resistance

Put the value into the formula

[tex]I=\dfrac{47}{151}[/tex]

[tex]I= 0.3112 \ A[/tex]

Hence, The rms current is 0.3112 A.

Answer:

Explanation:

Using the Continuity equation

v X A = v' xA'

so if A is 1/2of A' then A velocity must be 2 times the A'

after-contraction v = 2 x 5.0m/s = 10m/s

Using the Bernoulli equation

p₁ + ½ρv₁² + ρgh₁ = p₂ + ½ρv₂² + ρgh₂

, the "h" terms cancel

3.5 x 10^ 5Pa + ½ x 1000kg/m³x (5.0m/s)² = p₂ + ½ x 1000kg/m³ x (10m/s)²

p₂ = 342500pa

Answer:

 I = 7.96 W / m²

Explanation:

The light bulb emits a power of P = 100W, this power is distributed over the surface of a sphere, thus the emission is in all directions.

Intensity is defined by power per unit area

            I = P / A

The area of ​​a sphere is

         A = 4π r²

we substitute

         I = P / (4π r²)

in this case it tells us that the distance is r = 1 m

let's calculate

        I = 100 / (4π 1²)

        I = 7.96 W / m²

Answer:

The  radius of the earth is [tex]r = 6365.4 \ km[/tex]

Explanation:

From the question we are told that

     The distance at  Alexandria is  [tex]d_a = 800 \ km = 800 *10^{3} \ m[/tex]

      The angle of the sun is  [tex]\theta = 7.2 ^o[/tex]

So we want to first obtain the circumference of the earth

   So let assume that the earth is  circular ([tex]360 ^o[/tex])

  Now from question we know that the sun made an angle of [tex]7.2 ^o[/tex] so with this we will obtain how many  [tex](7.2 ^o)[/tex]  are in [tex]360^o[/tex]

 i.e    [tex]N = \frac{360}{7.2}[/tex]

=>      [tex]N = 50[/tex]

     With this  value we can evaluate the circumference as

             [tex]c = 50 * 800[/tex]

              [tex]c = 40000 \ km[/tex]

Generally circumference is mathematically represented as

        [tex]c = 2\pi r[/tex]

         [tex]40000 = 2 * 3.142 * r[/tex]

=>        [tex]r = 6365.4 \ km[/tex]

Answer:

Explanation:

To solve for the power consumed by the trains motor we have to employ the formula for power which is

Power= current * voltage

Given that

voltage V= 800 V

current I= 2130 A

Substituting in the formula for power we have

Power= 2130*800=  1704000 watt

Power = 1704 kW

This is the amount of energy consumed, transferred or converted per unit of time

Hence the power consumed  by the trains motor is 1704 kW

Answer:

386.13 N

Explanation:

The kinetic energy of the baseball is converted into workdone in moving the glove backward( work energy theorem).

Therefore, KE of the ball

[tex]\frac{1}{2} mv^2 =\frac{1}{2}(0.145)35^2\\ = 88.81 \text{J}[/tex]

Now, workdone in moving the glove

W= Fd

where F = Force applied, d = displacement of the glove= 0.23 cm.

88.81 = F×0.23

F= 88.81/0.23 = 386.13 N

Answer:

Explanation:

The moment of inertia of the disk I  = 1/2 m R² where R is radius of the disc and m is its mass .

putting the values

I = .5 x 95 x .38²

= 6.86 kg m²

n = 87 rpm = 87 / 60 rps

n = 1.45 rps

angular velocity ω = 2π n , n is frequency of rotation .

= 2 x 3.14 x 1.45

= 9.106 radian /s

frictional force = 16 x .2

= 3.2 N

torque created by frictional force = 3.2 x .38

= 1.216 N.m

angular acceleration = torque / moment of inertia

= - 3.2 / 6.86

α  = - 0.4665 rad /s²

b ) ω² = ω₀² +  2 α θ , where α is angular acceleration

0 = 9.106² - 2 x .4665 θ

θ = 88.87 radian

no of turns = 88.87 / 2π

= 14.15  turns

Answer:

a)   Δt = 24.96 s , b)  τ = 0.078 N m

Explanation:

This is a rotational kinematics exercise

        θ = w₀ t - ½ α t²

Let's reduce the magnitudes the SI system

       θ = 60 rev (2π rad / 1 rev) = 376.99 rad

       w₀ = 7.0 rot / s (2π rad / 1 rpt) = 43.98 rad / s

      α = (w₀ t - θ) 2 / t²

let's calculate the annular acceleration

      α = (43.98 10 - 376.99) 2/10²

      α = 1,258 rad / s²

Let's find the time it takes to reach zero angular velocity (w = 0)

        w = w₀ - alf t

         t = (w₀ - 0) / α

         t = 43.98 / 1.258

         t = 34.96 s

this is the total time, the time remaining is

         Δt = t-10

         Δt = 24.96 s

To find the braking torque, we use Newton's law for angular motion

        τ = I α

the moment of inertia of a circular ring is

       I = M r²

we substitute

         τ = M r² α

we calculate

        τ = 0.625  0.315²  1.258

        τ = 0.078 N m

The total time taken by the wheel to come to rest is 25.18 s and the magnitude of the frictional torque is 25.18 N-m.

Given data:

The initial angular speed of wheel is, [tex]\omega = 7.0 \;\rm rps[/tex]   (rps means rotation per second).

The time interval is, t' = 10.0 s.

The number of rotations made by wheel is, n = 60.0.

The mass of bike wheel is, m = 0.625 kg.

The radius of wheel is, r = 0.315 m.

The problem is based on rotational kinematics. So, apply the second rotational equation of motion as,

[tex]\theta = \omega t-\dfrac{1}{2} \alpha t'^{2}[/tex]

Here, [tex]\theta[/tex] is the angular displacement, and its value is,

[tex]\theta =2\pi \times 60\\\\\theta = 376.99 \;\rm rad[/tex]

And, angular speed is,

[tex]\omega = 2\pi n\\\omega = 2\pi \times 7\\\omega = 43.98 \;\rm rad/s[/tex]

Solving as,

[tex]376.99 = 43.98 \times 10-\dfrac{1}{2} \alpha \times 10^{2}\\\\\alpha = 1.25 \;\rm rad/s^{2}[/tex]

Apply the first rotational equation of motion to obtain the value of time to reach zero final velocity.

[tex]\omega' = \omega - \alpha t\\\\0 = 43.98 - 1.25 \times t\\\\t = 35.18 \;\rm s[/tex]

Then total time is,

T = t - t'

T = 35.18 - 10

T = 25.18 s

Now, use the standard formula to obtain the value of braking torque as,

[tex]T = m r^{2} \alpha\\\\T = 0.625 \times (0.315)^{2} \times 1.25\\\\T = 0.0775 \;\rm Nm[/tex]

Thus, we can conclude that the total time taken by the wheel to come to rest is 25.18 s and the magnitude of the frictional torque is 25.18 N-m.

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Answer:

Explanation:

1 )

An object is placed 46.9 cm away from a converging lens. The lens has a focal length of 10.0 cm.

Since the object is placed at a distance more than twice the focal length , its image will be inverted , real  and will be of the size less than the size of object . So option B is applied .

B)  real, inverted and smaller than the object.

2 )

An object is placed 46.9 cm away from a spherical convex mirror. The radius of curvature of the mirror is 20.0 cm.

The object is placed at a point beyond its radius of curvature, its image will be formed at a point between f and C   or between focal point and centre of curvature . Its size will be smaller than size of object and it will be real and inverted .

B)  real, inverted and smaller than the object.

Answer:

34°

Using the relation

θᶜ = sin^-1(n₂/n₁),

where n1= the refractive index of light is propagating from a medium

And n2 = refractive index of medium into which light is entering

So we know that

refractive index of diamond at 589nm = 2.41= n₁

refractive index of ethanol at 589nm and 20°C = 1.36= n₂

Thus. θᶜ = sin^-1(1.361/2.417) = 0.58radians = 34°

Explanation:

Answer:

I know the answer

Explanation:

We want to choose the film thickness such that destructive interference occurs between the light reflected from the air-film interface (call it wave 1) and from the film-lens interface (call it wave 2). For destructive interference to occur, the phase difference between the two waves must be an odd multiple of half-wavelengths.

You can think of the phases of the two waves as second hands on a clock; as the light travels, the hands tick-tock around the clock. Consider the clocks on the two waves in question. As both waves travel to the air-film interface, their clocks both tick-tock the same time-no phase difference. When wave 1 is reflected from the air-film boundary, its clock is set forward 30 seconds; i.e., if the hand was pointing toward 12, it's now pointing toward 6. It's set forward because the index of refraction of air is smaller than that of the film.

Now wave 1 pauses while wave two goes into and out of the film. The clock on wave 2 continues to tick as it travels in the film-tick, tock, tick, tock.... Clock 2 is set forward 30 seconds when it hits the film-lens interface because the index of refraction of the film is smaller than that of the lens. Then as it travels back through the film, its clock still continues ticking. When wave 2 gets back to the air-film interface, the two waves continue side by side, both their clocks ticking; there is no change in phase as they continue on their merry way.

So, to recap, since both clocks were shifted forward at the two different interfaces, there was no net phase shift due to reflection. There was also no phase shift as the waves travelled into and out from the air-film interface. The only phase shift occured as clock 2 ticked inside the film.

Call the thickness of the film t. Then the total distance travelled by wave 2 inside the film is 2t, if we assume the light entered pretty much normal to the interface. This total distance should equal to half the wavelength of the light in the film (for the minimum condition; it could also be 3/2, 5/2, etc., but that wouldn't be the minimum thickness) since the hand of the clock makes one revolution for each distance of one wavelength the wave travels (right?).

Answer:

the atom had a dense, positively charged nucleus.​

Explanation:

Ernest Rutherford, based on the experiment carried out by two of his graduate students, established the authenticity of the nuclear model of the atom.

According to the nuclear model, an atom is made up of a dense positive core called the nucleus. Electrons are found to move round this nucleus in orbits. This is akin to the movement of the planets round the sun in the solar system.

The researchers need to compare those who contracted the disease to those who did not.

Answer:

Repulsion

Explanation:

Answer:

Explanation:

The phase angle of an RLC circuit  ϕ is expressed as shoen below;

ϕ = [tex]tan^{-1} \dfrac{X_l-X_c}{R}[/tex]

Xc is the capacitive reactance = 1/2πfC

Xl is the inductive reactance = 2πfL

R is the resistance = 25.0Ω

Given C = 35.5 μF, L = 0.0940 H, and frequency f = 70.0Hz

Xl = 2π * 70*0.0940

Xl = 41.32Ω

For the capacitive reactance;

Xc = 1/2π * 70*35.5*10⁻⁶

Xc = 1/0.0156058

Xc = 64.08Ω

Phase angle ϕ = [tex]tan^{-1} \frac{41.32-64.08}{25} \\\\[/tex]

ϕ = [tex]tan^{-1} \frac{-22.76}{25} \\\\\\\\[/tex]

[tex]\phi = tan^{-1} -0.9104\\\\\phi = -42.31^0[/tex]

Since tan is negative in the 2nd quadrant;

[tex]\phi = 180-42.31^0\\\\\phi = 137.69^0[/tex]

Hence the phase angle ϕ of the circuit in degrees is 137.69°

The phase angle ϕ of the series RLC circuit that is driven at a frequency of 70.0 Hz is ϕ = 137.69°

Given that:

capacitance C = 35.5 μF,

Inductance L = 0.0940 H,

The resistance R = 25.0Ω

and frequency f = 70.0Hz

The capacitive reactance is given by:

Xc = 1/2πfC

Xc = 1/2π × 70 × 35.5× 10⁻⁶

Xc = 1/0.0156058

Xc = 64.08Ω

The inductive reactance is given by:

Xl = 2πfL

Xl = 2π × 70 × 0.0940

Xl = 41.32Ω

The phase angle of an RLC circuit ϕ  is given by:

[tex]\phi=tan^{-1}\frac{X_l-X_c}{R}\\\\\phi=tan^{-1}\frac{41.32-64.08}{25}[/tex]

Ф = -42.31°

Since tan is negative in the 2nd quadrant, thus:

ϕ = 180° - 42.31°

ϕ = 137.69°

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Answer

76200meters

Explanation:

we know that 1km=1000meters

to convert km into meters we we divide km by meters

=76.2/1000

=76200meters

Answer:

v = 6.28 m/s

Explanation:

It is given that,

A windmill on a farm rotates at a constant speed and completes one-half of a rotation in 0.5 seconds,

Number of revolution is half. It means angular velocity is 3.14 radians.

Let v is the angular speed. So,

[tex]v=\dfrac{\omega}{t}\\\\v=\dfrac{3.14}{0.5}\\\\v=6.28\ m/s[/tex]

So, the rotation speed is 6.28 m/s.

The angular velocity is the rotation speed, which is the angle of rotation

of the windmill per second, which is 2·π radians.

Response:

The given parameter are;

The angle of rotation the windmill rotates in 0.5 seconds = One-half a

rotation.

Required:

The rotational speed (angular velocity)

Solution:

The angle of one rotation = 2·π radians

Angle of one-half ration = [tex]\frac{1}{2}[/tex] × 2·π radians = π radians

[tex]Rotational \ speed = \mathbf{\dfrac{Angle \ of \ rotation}{Time}}[/tex]

Which gives;

[tex]Rotational \ speed, \omega = \dfrac{\pi}{0.5 \ s} = \mathbf{2 \cdot \pi \ rad/s}[/tex]

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Answer:

Explanation:

We shall apply conservation of momentum law in vector form to solve the problem .

Initial momentum = 0

momentum of 12 g piece

= .012 x 37 i since it moves along x axis .

= .444 i

momentum of 22 g

= .022 x 34 j

= .748 j

Let momentum of third piece = p

total momentum

= p + .444 i + .748 j

so

applying conservation law of momentum

p + .444 i + .748 j  = 0

p = - .444 i -  .748 j  

magnitude of p

= √ ( .444² + .748² )

= .87 kg m /s

mass of third piece = 58 - ( 12 + 22 )

= 24 g = .024 kg

if v be its velocity

.024 v = .87

v = 36.25 m / s .

Answer:

At the moment contact is made with the battery, the voltage across the resistor is equal to the batteries terminal voltage

Explanation;

Because at series connection the battery and resistor have equal voltage

Answer:

The maximum wavelength of the e-m wave is 6.9 x 10^-7 m

Explanation:

Energy required to trigger a response = 1.8 eV

we convert to energy in Joules.

1 eV = 1.602 x 10^-19 J

1.8 eV = [tex]x[/tex] J

[tex]x[/tex] = 1.8 x 1.602 x 10^-19 = 2.88 x 10^-19 J

The energy of an electromagnetic wave is gotten as

E = hf

where

h is the Planck's constant = 6.63 x 10^-34 J-s

and f is the frequency of the wave.

substituting values, we have

2.88 x 10^-19 = 6.63 x 10^-34 x f

f = (2.88 x 10^-19)/(6.63 x 10^-34)

f = 4.34 x 10^14 Hz

We know that the frequency of an e-m wave is given as

f = c/λ

where

c is the speed of light = 3 x 10^8 m/s

λ is the wavelength of the e-m wave

From this we can say that

λ = c/f

λ = (3 x 10^8)/(4.34 x 10^14)

λ = 6.9 x 10^-7 m

Answer:

His angular velocity will increase.

Explanation:

According to the conservation of rotational momentum, the initial angular momentum of a system must be equal to the final angular momentum of the system.

The angular momentum of a system = [tex]I[/tex]'ω'

where

[tex]I[/tex]' is the initial rotational inertia

ω' is the initial angular velocity

the rotational inertia = [tex]mr'^{2}[/tex]

where m is the mass of the system

and r' is the initial radius of rotation

Note that the professor does not change his position about the axis of rotation, so we are working relative to the dumbbells.

we can see that with the mass of the dumbbells remaining constant, if we reduce the radius of rotation of the dumbbells to r, the rotational inertia will reduce to [tex]I[/tex].

From

[tex]I[/tex]'ω' = [tex]I[/tex]ω

since [tex]I[/tex] is now reduced, ω will be greater than ω'

therefore, the angular velocity increases.

Answer:

Apparent depth (Da) = 60.15 cm (Approx)

Explanation:

Given:

Distance from fish (D) = 80 cm

Find:

Apparent depth (Da)

Computation:

We know that,

Refractive index of water (n2) = 1.33

So,

Apparent depth (Da) = D(n1/n2)

Apparent depth (Da) = 80 (1/1.33)

Apparent depth (Da) = 60.15 cm (Approx)

The apparent depth of the fish is 60 cm.

To calculate the apparent depth of the fish, we use the formula below.

Formula:

Where:

Make D' The subject of the equation.

From the question,

Given:

Substitute these values into equation 2

Hence, the apparent depth of the fish is 60 cm

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Answer:

The  charge on the dust particle is  [tex]q_d = 6.94 *10^{-13} \ C[/tex]

Explanation:

From the question we are told that

    The length is  [tex]l = 2.0 \ m[/tex]

    The width is  [tex]w = 4.0 \ m[/tex]

   The charge is  [tex]q = -10\mu C= -10*10^{-6} \ C[/tex]

    The mass suspended in mid-air is [tex]m_a = 5.0 \mu g = 5.0 *10^{-6} \ g = 5.0 *10^{-9} \ kg[/tex]

Generally the electric field on the carpet is mathematically represented as

           [tex]E = \frac{q}{ 2 * A * \epsilon _o}[/tex]

Where [tex]\epsilon _o[/tex] is the permittivity of free space with value [tex]\epsilon_o = 8.85*10^{-12} \ \ m^{-3} \cdot kg^{-1}\cdot s^4 \cdot A^2[/tex]

substituting values

           [tex]E = \frac{-10*10^{-6}}{ 2 * (2 * 4 ) * 8.85*10^{-12}}[/tex]

           [tex]E = -70621.5 \ N/C[/tex]

Generally the electric force keeping the dust particle on the air  equal to the force of gravity acting on the particles

        [tex]F__{E}} = F__{G}}[/tex]

=>     [tex]q_d * E = m * g[/tex]

=>      [tex]q_d = \frac{m * g}{E}[/tex]

=>      [tex]q_d = \frac{5.0 *10^{-9} * 9.8}{70621.5}[/tex]

=>     [tex]q_d = 6.94 *10^{-13} \ C[/tex]

Answer:

C. planetary accretion

Explanation:

Astronomers think planets formed from interstellar dust gases that clumped together in a process called planetary accretion.

Answer:

[tex]\boxed{\sf C. \ planetary \ accretion }[/tex]

Explanation:

Astronomers think planets formed from interstellar dust and gases that clumped together in a process called planetary accretion.

Planetary accretion is a process in which huge masses of solid rock or metal clump together to produce planets.