The filament in the bulb is moving back and forth, first pushed one way and then the other. What does this imply about the current in the filament

The provided question is not correct as, there is more than one options are correct, however the explaining every correct option -

Answer:

The correct answer are - silver, copper and aluminium all three used as fuse material.

Explanation:

A safety device in any electric circuit of that prevents the electric system in case of short circuit by breaking the connection of electric system or circuit termed as the Fuse or fuse element. Normally the fuse are made up of wire or element of material that are low in melting point and high in resistance.

Zinc, lead, tin, silver, copper, aluminium, and alloy of tin and alloy are used as fuse element or material for their low melting point and high resistance these are easily breaks the electric path in case of short circuit.

Answer:

Using

A. .E = σ/εo = (q/A)/εo = = q/Aεo so if q = 2q, then

Ef/Ei = 2

B. If L is 2L then Ef = q/4Aεo and

Ef/Ei = 1/4

C. The electric field strength is not effected by d and as long as σ is unchanged, Ef/Ei = 1

Answer:

1.125×10⁻⁹ J

Explanation:

Applying,

E = 1/2CV²................... Equation 1

Where E = Energy stored in the capacitor, C = capacitance of the capacitor, V = Voltage of the battery.

Given; C = 1.0 nF,  = 1.0×10⁻⁹ F, V = 1.5 V

Substitute into equation 1

E = 1/2(1.0×10⁻⁹×1.5²)

E = 1.125×10⁻⁹ J

Hence the energy stored by the capacitor is 1.125×10⁻⁹ J

Answer:

The wavelength is [tex]\lambda_2 = 534 *10^{-9} \ m[/tex]

Explanation:

From the question we are told that

   The wavelength of the first light is  [tex]\lambda _ 1 = 587 \ nm[/tex]

    The order of the first light that is being considered is  [tex]m_1 = 10[/tex]

     The order of the second light that is being considered is  [tex]m_2 = 11[/tex]

Generally the distance between the fringes for the first light is mathematically represented as

      [tex]y_1 = \frac{ m_1 * \lambda_1 * D}{d}[/tex]

 Here  D is the distance from the screen

 and    d  is the distance of separation of the slit.

      For the second light the distance between the fringes is  mathematically represented as

         [tex]y_2 = \frac{ m_2 * \lambda_2 * D}{d}[/tex]

Now given that both of the light are passed through the same double slit

       [tex]\frac{y_1}{y_2} = \frac{\frac{m_1 * \lambda_1 * D}{d} }{\frac{m_2 * \lambda_2 * D}{d} } = 1[/tex]

=>    [tex]\frac{ m_1 * \lambda _1 }{ m_2 * \lambda_2} = 1[/tex]

=>     [tex]\lambda_2 = \frac{m_1 * \lambda_1}{m_2}[/tex]

=>    [tex]\lambda_2 = \frac{10 * 587 *10^{-9}}{11}[/tex]

=>   [tex]\lambda_2 = 534 *10^{-9} \ m[/tex]

Answer:

The three factors that can contribute to creating a delay in advanced care for the passengers in the overturned bus include:

1. Lack of communication: Since the accident happened on the remote hillside, there is a possibility that, there would be no communication network which could have afforded them the opportunity to call medical or technical team.

2. Steep Nature of the Hill: This is another factor which will affect the care which they could have received. Steeply area tends to be difficult for climbing in or out from.

3. Thunderstorm: This factor is another reason which could contribute to delay in receiving advance care. Thunderstorm create barriers for location f the area where the bus overturned or in other situation complicate the rescue efforts of the team sent out to rescue.

Explanation:

Answer:

1.6×10²⁰

Explanation:

An ampere is a Coulomb per second.

1 A = 1 C / s

The amount of charge after 5 seconds is:

5.0 A × 5 s = 25 C

The number of electrons is:

25 C × (1 electron / 1.6×10⁻¹⁹ C) = 1.6×10²⁰ electrons

Answer:

It bends away from the normal

Explanation:

From Snell's law of Refraction, when a ray passes from a medium of lower Refractive index to a medium with higher Refractive index, the Refractive ray will bend towards the normal. However, when the ray passes from a medium of higher Refractive index to a medium of lower Refractive index, the Refractive ray will bend away from the normal.

Now, from the question we are told that Light passes from a material with index of refraction 1.3 into one with index of refraction 1.2.

This means from a higher Refractive index to a lower one and from Snell's law as earlier said, the refracted ray will bend away from the normal

The refracted ray is seen to bend away from the normal.

Let us recall that an optically denser medium will have a higher refractive index. This means that the medium with a refractive index of  1.3  is the denser medium and the medium with a refractive index of  1.2 is the less dense medium.

From the statement in the question, we can boldly say that light is travelling from a denser to less dense medium given the values of the refractive index given. When light is travelling from a denser to a less dense medium, the refracted ray bends away from the normal.

Learn more: https://brainly.com/question/1445383

Explanation:

The separation between the interference fringes on the screen increases because the distance of the screen from the slit is increased. Therefore option (a) is  correct.

The separation between the interference fringes on the screen increases because  the distance of the screen from the slit is increased, which is contradictory. Therefore option (b) is incorrect.

The separation between the interference fringes on the screen increases because  the distance of the screen from the slit is increased, which is contradictory. Therefore option (c) is incorrect.

The separation between the interference fringes on the screen increases because  the distance of the screen from the slit is increased, which is contradictory. Therefore option (d) is incorrect.

The separation between the interference fringes on the screen increases because  the distance of the screen from the slit is increased, which is contradictory. Therefore option (e) is incorrect.

Answer:

The density is  [tex]\rho_z = 2544 \ kg /m^3[/tex]

Explanation:

From the question we are told that

    The mass of the rock is  [tex]m_r = 1.80 \ kg[/tex]

     The  tension on the string is  [tex]T = 10.8 \ N[/tex]

Generally the weight of the rock is  

        [tex]W = m * g[/tex]

=>     [tex]W = 1.80 * 9.8[/tex]

=>   [tex]W = 17.64 \ N[/tex]

Now the upward force(buoyant force) acting on the rock  is mathematically evaluated as  

        [tex]F_f = W - T[/tex]

substituting values

       [tex]F_f = 17.64 - 10.8[/tex]

      [tex]F_f = 6.84 \ N[/tex]

This buoyant force is mathematically represented as

      [tex]F_f = \rho * g * V[/tex]

Here  [tex]\rho[/tex] is the density of water and it value is [tex]\rho = 1000\ kg/m^3[/tex]

 So

         [tex]V = \frac{F_f}{ \rho * g }[/tex]

        [tex]V = \frac{6.84}{ 1000 * 9.8 }[/tex]

        [tex]V = 0.000698 \ m^3[/tex]

Now for this rock to flow the upward force (buoyant force) must be equal to the length

      [tex]F_f = W[/tex]

      [tex]\rho_z * g * V = W[/tex]

Here z is smallest density of a liquid in which the rock will float

=>     [tex]\rho_z = \frac{W}{ g * V}[/tex]

=>   [tex]\rho_z = \frac{17.64}{ 0.000698 * 9.8}[/tex]

=>   [tex]\rho_z = 2544 \ kg /m^3[/tex]

Answer:

A. 30.38°

B 5.04N

Explanation:

Using

F= ILBsin theta

2 .55N= 8.4Ax 0.5mx 1.2T x sintheta

Theta = 30.38°

B. If theta is 90°

Then

F= 8.4Ax 0.5mx 1.2x sin 90°

F= 5.04N

Answer:

The intensity at distance 2d from source is  [tex]I_1 = \frac{1}{4} * I[/tex]  

Explanation:

From the question we are told that

     The distance of the wave from point source is  d  

     The  intensity is  [tex]I[/tex]  

     The distance we are considering is  2d

Generally the intensity of a wave is mathematically represented as

            [tex]I = \frac{ P }{\pi d^2 }[/tex]    

Here P is power of point source      

Now when  d =  2d

          [tex]I_1 = \frac{ P }{\pi (2d)^2 }[/tex]        

           [tex]I_1 = \frac{ 1 }{4 } * \frac{ P }{\pi d^2 }[/tex]

    =>   [tex]I_1 = \frac{1}{4} * I[/tex]  

The intensity at a distance 2d from the source is equal to [tex]I'=\frac{I}{4}[/tex]

Given the following data:

To determine the intensity at a distance 2d from the source:

Mathematically, the intensity of a wave is given by the formula:

[tex]I=\frac{P}{\pi d^2}[/tex]

Where:

Since the distance is doubled (2d), we have:

[tex]I'=\frac{P}{\pi (2d)^2}\\\\I'=\frac{P}{4\pi (d)^2}\\\\I'=\frac{1}{4} \times \frac{P}{\pi (d)^2}\\\\I'=\frac{1}{4} \times I\\\\I'=\frac{I}{4}[/tex]

Find more information: https://brainly.com/question/23460034

Answer:

c. 70 Ω

Explanation:

The R and R resistors are in parallel.  The 2R and 2R resistors are in parallel.  The 4R and 4R resistors are in parallel.  Each parallel combination is in series with each other.  Therefore, the equivalent resistance is:

Req = 1/(1/R + 1/R) + 1/(1/2R + 1/2R) + 1/(1/4R + 1/4R)

Req = R/2 + 2R/2 + 4R/2

Req = 3.5R

Req = 70Ω

Answer:

cost_cost = $ 96

Explanation:

In this exercise we have units in the groin system and the SI system, to avoid problems let's reduce everything to the SI system

         performance = 21 miles / gallon (1,609 km / 1 mile) (1 gallon / 3,785 l)

         perfomance= 8,927 km / l

now let's use a direct rule of proportions (rule of three). If a liter travels 8,927 km, how many liters are needed to travel the 2015 km

          #_gasoline = 2015 km (1l / 8.927 km) = 225.72 liters

Now let's find the total cost of fuel. Ns indicates that $ 0.11 = 1 peso and the liter of fuel costs 5.8 pesos

            cost_litre = 5.8 peso ($ 0.11 / 1 peso) = $ 0.638

             cost_gasoline = #_gasoline   cost_litro

             cost_gasoline = 225.72   0.638

             cost_gasoline = $ 144

This cost is for the one way trip, the total round trip cost is

             cost_total = 2 cost_gasoline

             cost_total = $ 288

Now let's look for the cost in the vehicle, you and two people will go, for which a total of 3 people will go, so the cost per person is

                cost_person = total_cost / #_people

                cost_person = 288/3

                cost_cost = $ 96

Answer:

a. Moon around Earth.

Explanation:

Charon orbit takes around 6.4 earth days to complete its orbit. Charon does not rises or sets, it hovers over same spot around the Pluto. The same side of Charon faces the Pluto, this is called Tidal Locking.

The moon orbit takes around 27 days to complete its orbit. The moon has different sides that are faced with sun which creates light or dark face of moon on the earth. Moon has 384,400 km distance from the earth.

The object that should exhibit the longest orbital period is option a. Moon around Earth.

Charon's orbit takes around 6.4 earth days to finish its orbit. Charon does not rise or sets, it hovers over similar spot around Pluto. The same side of Charon faces Pluto, this we called Tidal Locking. Here the moon orbit should take approx 27 days to finish its orbit. The moon has various sides that are faced with the sun which developed the light or dark face of the moon on the earth. Also, Moon has 384,400 km distance from the earth.

learn more about orbit here: https://brainly.com/question/25404554

Answer:

D) diffraction

Explanation:

Corona is an optical phenomenon produced by the diffraction of sunlight or moonlight, as light moves through water droplets in the atmosphere.

This phenomenon produces one or more diffuse concentric rings of light around the Sun or Moon, usually seen as colored circles.

Therefore, the explanation for these phenomena of colored concentric circles, sometimes seen with the Sun or the Moon involves diffraction.

Explanation:

Given that,

Separation between two long parallel conductors, r = 11 cm = 0.11 m

Current in first wire, [tex]I_1=3\ A[/tex]

Current in second wire, [tex]I_2=8\ A[/tex]

(a) The magnetic field created by I₁ at the location of I₂ is given by :

[tex]B_{12}=\dfrac{\mu_o I_1}{2\pi r}\\\\B_{12}=\dfrac{4\pi \times 10^{-7}\times 3I_1}{2\pi \times 0.11}\\\\B_{12}=5.45\times 10^{-6}\ T[/tex]

(b) Magnetic force per unit length exerted by [tex]I_1[/tex] on [tex]I_2[/tex] is given by :

[tex]\dfrac{F}{l}=\dfrac{\mu_o I_1I_2}{2\pi r}\\\\\dfrac{F}{l}=\dfrac{4\pi \times 10^{-7}\times 3\times 8}{2\pi \times 0.11}\\\\\dfrac{F}{l}=4.36\times 10^{-5}\ N/m[/tex]

(c) The magnetic field created by I₂ at the location of I₁ is given by :

[tex]B_{21}=\dfrac{\mu_o I_2} {2\pi r}\\\\B_{12}=\dfrac{4\pi \times 10^{-7}\times 8}{2\pi \times 0.11}\\\\B_{12}=1.45\times 10^{-5}\ T[/tex]

Hence, this is the required solution.

Answer:

Option A

Electrons are emitted if low intensity, high-frequency light hits a metal surface.

Explanation:

From the experiments conducted to study the photoelectric effect, conclusions were made that the key factor that contributes to the emission of electrons from the surface of the metal is the frequency of the beam of light. This frequency has to be beyond a minimum threshold, if not, there will be no emission of electrons from the metal surface no matter the intensity of the beam of light or the length of time it is incident upon the metal surface.

This makes option A correct because it highlights the contributions made by the threshold frequency to the photoelectric effect.

Answer:

a) for the torque to be maximum, sin should be maximum

i.e (sinФ)maximum = 1

b) therefore the Maximum torque is

Tmax = 0.1838 × 1 = 0.1838  N.m

c) Given the torque is 71.0% of its maximum value; Ф  = 45.24⁰ ≈ 45⁰

Explanation:

Given that; Diameter is 8.40 cm,

Radius (R) = D/2 = 8.40/2 = 4.20 cm = 0.042 m

Number of turns (N) = 17

Current in the loop (I) = 3.20 A

Magnetic field (B) = 0.610 T

Let the angle between the loop's area vector A and the magnetic field B be

Now. the area of the loop is;

A = πR²

A = 3.14 ( 0.042 )²

A =  0.005539 m²

Torque on the loop (t) = NIABsinФ

t = 17 × 3.20 ×0.005539 × 0.610 × sinФ

t = 0.1838sinФ N.m

for the torque to be maximum, sin should be maximum

i.e (sinФ)maximum = 1

therefore the Maximum torque is

Tmax = 0.1838 × 1 = 0.1838  N.m

Given the torque is 71.0% of its maximum value

t = 0.71 × tmax

t = 0.71 × 0.1838

t = 0.1305

Now

0.1305 N.m =  0.1838 sinФ N.m

sinФ = 0.1305 / 0.1838

sinФ = 0.71001

Ф = sin⁻¹ 0.71001

Ф  = 45.24⁰ ≈ 45⁰

Answer:

The linear velocity, v = 5.93 m/s

Explanation:

To find the linear velocity after 5 seconds, we find its angular velocity after 5 seconds using

ω' = ω + αt where ω = initial angular speed = 4.00 rev/s = 4.00 × 2π rad/s = 25.13 rad/s, ω' =  = final angular speed, α = angular acceleration = 2.25 rad/s² and t = time = 5.00 s

ω' = ω + αt

= 25.13 rad/s + 2.25 rad/s² × 5.00 s

= 25.13 rad/s + 11.25 rad/s

= 36.38 rad/s

The linear velocity v is gotten from v = rω' where r = radius of pulley = 326 mm/2 = 163 mm = 0.163 m

v = rω'

= 0.163 m × 36.38 rad/s

= 5.93 m/s

So, the linear velocity  v = 5.93 m/s

Answer:

0.37 cm

Explanation:

The image is formed on the retina which is at a constant distance of 2.70 cm to the lens. Therefore, image distance = 2.70 cm.

The object is at a distant of 265 cm to the lens of the eye.

From lens formula,

[tex]\frac{1}{f}[/tex] = [tex]\frac{1}{u}[/tex] + [tex]\frac{1}{v}[/tex]

where: f is the focal length, u is the object distance and v is the image distance.

Thus, u = 265.00 cm and v = 2.70 cm.

[tex]\frac{1}{f}[/tex] = [tex]\frac{1}{265}[/tex] + [tex]\frac{27}{10}[/tex]

  = [tex]\frac{10+7155}{2650}[/tex]

[tex]\frac{1}{f}[/tex]  = [tex]\frac{7165}{2650}[/tex]

⇒ f = [tex]\frac{2650}{7165}[/tex]

      = 0.37

The focal length of the eye is 0.37 cm.

Answer:

It will be half that if the first wave

Explanation:

Because the wave speed remains the same, the result of doubling the frequency is that the wavelength is half as large as it

Answer:

a

   [tex]m = 0.169 \ kg[/tex]

b

  [tex]|v_{max} |= 0.5653 \ m/s[/tex]

Explanation:

From the question we are told that

    The  spring constant is  [tex]k = 14 \ N/m[/tex]

     The  maximum extension of the spring is  [tex]A = 6.0 \ cm = 0.06 \ m[/tex]

     The number of oscillation is  [tex]n = 30[/tex]

      The  time taken is  [tex]t = 20 \ s[/tex]

Generally the the angular speed of this oscillations is mathematically represented as

           [tex]w = \frac{2 \pi}{T}[/tex]

where T is the period which is mathematically represented as

     [tex]T = \frac{t}{n}[/tex]

substituting values

     [tex]T = \frac{20}{30 }[/tex]

     [tex]T = 0.667 \ s[/tex]

Thus  

       [tex]w = \frac{2 * 3.142 }{ 0.667}[/tex]

       [tex]w = 9.421 \ rad/s[/tex]

this angular speed can also be represented mathematically as

       [tex]w = \sqrt{\frac{k}{m} }[/tex]

=>   [tex]m =\frac{k }{w^2}[/tex]

substituting values

      [tex]m =\frac{ 15 }{(9.421)^2}[/tex]

      [tex]m = 0.169 \ kg[/tex]

In SHM (simple harmonic motion )the equation for velocity is  mathematically represented as

        [tex]v = - Awsin (wt)[/tex]

The  velocity is maximum when  [tex]wt = \(90^o) \ or \ 1.5708\ rad[/tex]

     [tex]v_{max} = - A* w[/tex]

=>   [tex]|v_{max} |= A* w[/tex]

=>    [tex]|v_{max} |= 0.06 * 9.421[/tex]

=>   [tex]|v_{max} |= 0.5653 \ m/s[/tex]

Answer:

Explanation:

Answer:

The gauge pressure is  [tex]P = 687.4 \ Pa[/tex]

Explanation:

From the question we are told that

    The rate of flow is  [tex]Q = 0.00027 m^3 /s[/tex]

      The height is h  =  10 m

      The radius is  r =  0.01 m

     The  viscosity is  [tex]\eta = 1mPa \cdot s = 1 *10^{-3} \ Pa\cdot s[/tex]

Generally the gauge pressure according to Poiseuille's equation  is mathematically represented as  

               [tex]P = 8 \pi \eta * \frac{L * v }{ A}[/tex]

Here v is the velocity of the water which is mathematically represented according to continuity equation as

             [tex]v = \frac{Q}{A }[/tex]

Where A is the cross-sectional area which is mathematically represented as

            [tex]A = \pi r^2[/tex]

substituting values

          [tex]A = 3.142 *(0.01)^2[/tex]

           [tex]A = 3.142 *10^{-4} \ m^2[/tex]

So

      [tex]v = \frac{ 0.00027}{3.142*10^{-4}}[/tex]

       [tex]v = 0.8593 \ m/s[/tex]

So

       [tex]P = 8 * 3.142 * 1.0*10^{-3}* \frac{10 * 0.8593 }{ 3.142*10^{-4}}[/tex]

       [tex]P = 687.4 \ Pa[/tex]

Answer:

The mas unit is the the 'Kilogram' written as 'kg'

Volume is 10 L

Explanation:

The complete question is

If you have a density of 100 kg/L, and a mass of 1000 units, tell me the following: First, what are the mass units?

Second, what is the volume

mass units is the 'Kilogram', written as 'kg'

density = mass/volume = 100 kg/L

the mass  = 1000 kg

volume = mass/density = 1000/100 = 10 L

Answer:

Explanation:

change in magnetic flux = .16 x .16 x .510 - 0

= .013056 weber .

rate of change of flux = change in flux / time

= .013056 / 40.5 x 10⁻³

= .32237

voltage induced = .32237 V

electrical energy dissipated = v² / R where v is voltage , R is resistance

= .32237² / 6.35

= 16.36 x 10⁻³ J .

Answer:

[tex]B=2.74\times 10^{-10}\ T[/tex]

Explanation:

It is given that,

A planar electromagnetic wave is propagating in the +x direction.The electric field at a certain point is, E = 0.082 V/m

We need to find the magnetic vector of the wave at the point P at that instant.

The relation between electric field and magnetic field is given by :

[tex]c=\dfrac{E}{B}[/tex]

c is speed of light

B is magnetic field

[tex]B=\dfrac{E}{c}\\\\B=\dfrac{0.082}{3\times 10^8}\\\\B=2.74\times 10^{-10}\ T[/tex]

So, the magnetic vector at point P at that instant is [tex]2.74\times 10^{-10}\ T[/tex].

The magnetic vector of the wave at the point P at that instant is [tex]2.73 \times 10^{-10}T[/tex]

The formula relating electric field and the magnetic field is given as;

[tex]c=\frac{E}{B}[/tex]

From the formula shown:

[tex]B=\frac{E}{c}\\B=\frac{0.082}{3.0\times 10^8}\\B=2.73 \times 10 ^{-10}T[/tex]

Hence the magnetic vector of the wave at the point P at that instant is [tex]2.73 \times 10^{-10}T[/tex]

Learn more on magnetic field here: https://brainly.com/question/21040756

CHECK THE COMPLETE QUESTION BELOW;

the intensity of an electromagnetic wave is 80 MW/m2, what is the amplitude of the magnetic field of this wave? (c=3.0×108m/s, μ0=4π×10−7T⋅m/A, ε0=8.85×10−12C2/N⋅m2)

Answer:

2.4×10^5 N/C

Explanation:

the amplitude can be explained as the maximum field strength of the electric and magnetic fields. Wave energy is proportional to its amplitude squared (E2 or B2).

We were told to calculate the amplitude of the magnetic field, which can be done using expresion below

S=ε²/2cμ

Where S is the intensity intensity of an electromagnetic wave given as 80 MW/m2

ε² is the Amplitude which we are looking for

c= speed of light given as 3×10^8m/s

Substitute the values into above formula we have,

S=ε²/2cμ

Making Amplitude subject of formula

ε²=S×2cμ

ε²=[80×10^6)(2×3×10^8)(4Π×10^-7)

= 245598.44

ε²=2.4×10^5 N/C

Therefore, amplitude of the magnetic field of this wave is S=2.4×10^5 N/C

Answer:

total current = 12.417 A

so it will not fuse as current is less than 15 A

Explanation:

given data

toaster = 1140-W

blender = 270-W

lamp = 80-W

voltage = 120 V

solution

we know that current is express as

current = power ÷ voltage   ......................1

here voltage is same in all three device

so

current by toaster is

I = [tex]\frac{1140}{120}[/tex]

I = 9.5 A

and

current by blender

I = [tex]\frac{270}{120}[/tex]

I = 2.25 A

and

current by lamp is

I = [tex]\frac{80}{120}[/tex]

I = 0.667 A

so here device in parallel so

total current is = 9.5 A + 2.25 A + 0.667 A

total current = 12.417 A

so it will not fuse as current is less than 15 A

Answer:

The rms current is 0.3112 A.

Explanation:

Given that,

Suppose, The capacitance is 170 μF and the inductance is 2.94 mH. The resistance in the top branch is 278 Ohms, and in the bottom branch is 151 Ohms. The potential of the power supply is 47 V .

We know that,

When the frequency is very large then the capacitance can be treated as a short circuit and inductance as open circuit.

So,

We need to calculate the rms current

Using formula of current

[tex]I=\dfrac{V}{R}[/tex]

Where, V = voltage

R = resistance

Put the value into the formula

[tex]I=\dfrac{47}{151}[/tex]

[tex]I= 0.3112 \ A[/tex]

Hence, The rms current is 0.3112 A.