Answer:
b. Third Law entropy
Explanation:
Third law entropy: In physics, the term "third law entropy" or "the third law of thermodynamics" states that the specific entropy of a particular system at "absolute zero" is considered as a "well-defined constant". It occurs because any system at "zero temperature" tends to exists or persists in its "ground state" in order for the entropy to be determined or described only by the "degeneracy" of the given ground state.
In the question above, the correct answer is option b.
An undiscovered planet, many light-years from Earth, has one moon, which has a nearly circular periodic orbit. If the distance from the center of the moon to the surface of the planet is 2.165×105 km and the planet has a radius of 4175 km and a mass of 6.70×1022 kg , how long (in days) does it take the moon to make one revolution around the planet? The gravitational constant is 6.67×10−11N·m2/kg2 .
Answer:
364days
Explanation:
Pls see attached file
Explanation:
The moon will take 112.7 days to make one revolution around the planet.
What is Kepler's third law?The period of the satellite around any planet only depends upon the distance between the planet's center and satellite and also depends upon the planet's mass.
Given, the distance from the moon's center to the planet's surface,
h = 2.165 × 10⁵ km,
The radius of the planet, r = 4175 km
The mass of the planet = 6.70 × 10²² kg
The total distance between the moon's center to the planet's center:
a = r +h = 2.165 × 10⁵ + 4175
a = 216500 + 4175
a = 220675
a = 2.26750 × 10⁸ m
The period of the planet can be calculated as:
[tex]T =2\pi \sqrt{\frac{a^3}{Gm} }[/tex]
[tex]T =2\3\times 3.14 \sqrt{\frac{(2.20675 \times 10^8)^3}{(6.67\times 10^{-11}).(6.70\times 10^{22})} }[/tex]
T = 9738253.26 s
T = 112.7 days
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A plastic balloon that has been rubbed with wool will stick to a wall.
a. Can you conclude that the wall is charged? If not, why not? If so, where does the charge come from?
b. Draw a series of charge diagrams showing how the balloon is held to the wall.
Answer:
Explanation:
When plastic balloon is rubbed with wool , charges are created on both balloon and silk in equal amount . Rubber balloon will acquire negative charge and silk will acquire positive charge .
Now when balloon is brought near a wall , there is induction of charge on the wall due to charge on the balloon . On the near surface of wall positive charge is produced and on the surface deep inside the wall negative charge is produced . The charge deep inside goes inside the earth but the positive charge near the surface of wall can not escape . It remains trapped by negative charge on the balloon .
hence there is mutual attraction between balloon and surface of wall is just like attraction between opposite charges . But once the ballon due to mutual attraction comes in contact with the wall , the charge on balloon and on wall neutralises each other and hence after some time the balloon falls off from the wall on the ground . It does not remain attracted to wall for ever . It happens due to neutralisation of charges on balloon and wall .
When the magnet falls toward the copper block, the changing flux in the copper creates eddy currents that oppose the change in flux. The resulting braking force between the magnet and the copper block always opposes the motion of the magnet, slowing it as it falls. The braking force on the magnet is nearly equal to its weight, so it falls very slowly. The rate of the fall produces a rate of flux change sufficient to produce a current that provides the braking force. If the magnet is pushed, forcefully, toward the block, the rate of change of flux is much higher than this. When the magnet is moving much more quickly than it will fall unaided, what is the direction of the net force on the magnet?
Answer:
The net force is directed downwards.
Explanation:
Since the magnet is falling much more faster than it would unaided, then there is a net force that is accelerating the magnet downwards. We know that acceleration is due to a force acting on a mass, and in this case, the magnet is the mass. Also, the acceleration is always in the direction of the force producing it, which means that the net force on the magnet is vertically downwards.
1. Why do you see colors when you look at reflected light from a CD or DVD disk, or when you look at a soap bubble or oil film on water?
2. What do you think causes the colors on the artwork panels on the side of HLS2 (Health Sciences building) which change with time of day and the angle from which you view them?
Explanation:
1.The light reflected from the CD/DVD or soap bubble or oil film forms an interference with the surrounding light. The inference both constructive and destructive making some color appear and some disappear.
2.As light behaves as wave it will interfere differently at different angles. At certain angle it will interfere constructively and at certain angle it will interfere destructively making some color brighter and some disappear. So, at different angles the color are different.
Interference pattern is responsible for the formation of different colour when a light reflected from CD or soap bubble.
We can see colors when we look at reflected light from a CD or DVD disk, or a soap bubble or oil film on water because of the interference pattern. The colors that we see on the CD are created due to the reflection of white light from ridges in the metal. When light passes through something with many small ridges or scratches, we often see rainbow colors and interesting patterns.
These patterns are called interference patterns. White light is made up of 7 colors i.e. red, orange, yellow, green, blue, indigo, violet. The CD converts or separates the white light into 7 colors so we can conclude that interference pattern is responsible for the formation of different colour when a light reflected from CD OR soap bubble.
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You have three resistors: R1 = 1.00 Ω, R2 = 2.00 Ω, and R3 = 4.00 Ω in parallel. Find the equivalent resistance for the combination
Answer:
4 / 7
Explanation:
1/total resistance = 1/1 + 1/2 + 1/4
= 1¾
total resistance = 1 ÷ 1¾
= 4/7
A rigid container holds 4.00 mol of a monatomic ideal gas that has temperature 300 K. The initial pressure of the gas is 6.00 * 104 Pa. What is the pressure after 6000 J of heat energy is added to the gas?
Answer:
The final pressure of the monoatomic ideal gas is 8.406 × 10⁶ pascals.
Explanation:
When a container is rigid, the process is supposed to be isochoric, that is, at constant volume. Then, the equation of state for ideal gases can be simplified into the following expression:
[tex]\frac{P_{1}}{T_{1}} = \frac{P_{2}}{T_{2}}[/tex]
Where:
[tex]P_{1}[/tex], [tex]P_{2}[/tex] - Initial and final pressures, measured in pascals.
[tex]T_{1}[/tex], [tex]T_{2}[/tex] - Initial and final temperatures, measured in Kelvins.
In addtion, the specific heat at constant volume for monoatomic ideal gases, measured in joules per mole-Kelvin is given by:
[tex]\bar c_{v} = \frac{3}{2}\cdot R_{u}[/tex]
Where:
[tex]R_{u}[/tex] - Ideal gas constant, measured by pascal-cubic meters per mole-Kelvin.
If [tex]R_{u} = 8.314\,\frac{Pa\cdot m^{3}}{mol\cdot K}[/tex], then:
[tex]\bar c_{v} = \frac{3}{2}\cdot \left(8.314\,\frac{Pa\cdot m^{2}}{mol\cdot K} \right)[/tex]
[tex]\bar c_{v} = 12.471\,\frac{J}{mol\cdot K}[/tex]
And change in heat energy ([tex]Q[/tex]), measured by joules, by:
[tex]Q = n\cdot \bar c_{v}\cdot (T_{2}-T_{1})[/tex]
Where:
[tex]n[/tex] - Molar quantity, measured in moles.
The final temperature of the monoatomic ideal gas is now cleared:
[tex]T_{2} = T_{1} + \frac{Q}{n\cdot \bar c_{v}}[/tex]
Given that [tex]T_{1} = 300\,K[/tex], [tex]Q = 6000\,J[/tex], [tex]n = 4\,mol[/tex] and [tex]\bar c_{v} = 12.471\,\frac{J}{mol\cdot K}[/tex], the final temperature is:
[tex]T_{2} = 300\,K + \frac{6000\,J}{(4\,mol)\cdot \left(12.471\,\frac{J}{mol\cdot K} \right)}[/tex]
[tex]T_{2} = 420.279\,K[/tex]
The final pressure of the system is calculated by the following relationship:
[tex]P_{2} = \left(\frac{T_{2}}{T_{1}}\right) \cdot P_{1}[/tex]
If [tex]T_{1} = 300\,K[/tex], [tex]T_{2} = 420.279\,K[/tex] and [tex]P_{1} = 6.00\times 10^{4}\,Pa[/tex], the final pressure is:
[tex]P_{2} = \left(\frac{420.279\,K}{300\,K} \right)\cdot (6.00\times 10^{4}\,Pa)[/tex]
[tex]P_{2} = 8.406\times 10^{4}\,Pa[/tex]
The final pressure of the monoatomic ideal gas is 8.406 × 10⁶ pascals.
Water is pumped with a 120 kPa compressor entering the lower pipe (1) and flows upward at a speed of 1 m/s. Acceleration due to gravity is 10 m/s and water density is1000 kg/m-3. What is the water pressure on the upper pipe (II).
Answer:
The water pressure on the upper pipe is 92.5 kPa.
Explanation:
Given that,
Pressure in lower pipe= 120 kPa
Speed of water in lower pipe= 1 m/s
Acceleration due to gravity = 10 m/s²
Density of water = 1000 kg/m³
Radius of lower pipe = 12 m
Radius of uppes pipe = 6 m
Height of upper pipe = 2 m
We need to calculate the velocity in upper pipe
Using continuity equation
[tex]A_{1}v_{1}=A_{2}v_{1}[/tex]
[tex]\pi r_{1}^2\times v_{1}=\pi r_{2}^2\times v_{2}[/tex]
[tex]v_{2}=\dfrac{r_{1}^2\times v_{1}}{r_{2}^2}[/tex]
Put the value into the formula
[tex]v_{2}=\dfrac{12^2\times1}{6^2}[/tex]
[tex]v_{2}=4\ m/s[/tex]
We need to calculate the water pressure on the upper pipe
Using bernoulli equation
[tex]P_{1}+\dfrac{1}{2}\rho v_{1}^2+\rho gh_{1}=P_{2}+\dfrac{1}{2}\rho v_{2}^2+\rho gh_{2}[/tex]
Put the value into the formula
[tex]120\times10^{3}+\dfrac{1}{2}\times1000\times1^2+1000\times10\times0=P_{2}+\dfrac{1}{2}\times1000\times(4)^2+1000\times10\times2[/tex]
[tex]120500=P_{2}+28000[/tex]
[tex]P_{2}=120500-28000[/tex]
[tex]P_{2}=92500\ Pa[/tex]
[tex]P_{2}=92.5\ kPa[/tex]
Hence, The water pressure on the upper pipe is 92.5 kPa.
Suppose that a sound source is emitting waves uniformly in all directions. If you move to a point twice as far away from the source, the frequency of the sound will be:________.
a. one-fourth as great.
b. half as great.
c. twice as great.
d. unchanged.
Answer:
d. unchanged.
Explanation:
The frequency of a wave is dependent on the speed of the wave and the wavelength of the wave. The frequency is characteristic for a wave, and does not change with distance. This is unlike the amplitude which determines the intensity, which decreases with distance.
In a wave, the velocity of propagation of a wave is the product of its wavelength and its frequency. The speed of sound does not change with distance, except when entering from one medium to another, and we can see from
v = fλ
that the frequency is tied to the wave, and does not change throughout the waveform.
where v is the speed of the sound wave
f is the frequency
λ is the wavelength of the sound wave.
What is the separation in meters between two slits for which 594 nm orange light has its first maximum at an angle of 32.8°?
Answer:
1.1micro meter
Explanation:
Given that
Constructive interference is
ma = alpha x sin theta
Alpha = 1 x 594 x10^ -9/ sin 32.8°
= 1.1 x 10^ -6m
Explanation:
At what temperature (degrees Fahrenheit) is the Fahrenheit scale reading equal to:_____
(a) 3 times that of the Celsius and
(b) 1/5 times that of the Celsius
Answer:
C = 26.67° and F = 80°C = -20° and F = -4°Explanation:
Find:
3 times that of the Celsius and 1/5 times that of the CelsiusComputation:
F = (9/5)C + 32
3 times that of the Celsius
If C = x
So F = 3x
So,
3x = (9/5)x + 32
15x = 9x +160
6x = 160
x = 26.67
So, C = 26.67° and F = 80°
1/5 times that of the Celsius
If C = x
So F = x/5
So,
x/5 = (9/5)x + 32
x = 9x + 160
x = -20
So, C = -20° and F = -4°
An organ pipe open at both ends is 1.5 m long. A second organ pipe that is closed at one end and open at the other is 0.75 m long. The speed of sound in the room is 330 m/s. Which of the following sets of frequencies consists of frequencies which can be produced by both pipes?
a. 110Hz,220Hz, 330 Hz
b. 220Hz 440Hz 66 Hz
c. 110Hz, 330Hz, 550Hz
d. 330 Hz, 550Hz, 440Hz
e. 660Hz, 1100Hz, 220Hz
Answer:
A. 110Hz,220Hz, 330 Hz
Explanation:
for organ open at open both ends;
the length of the organ for the fundamental frequency, L = A---->N + N----->A
A---->N = λ /4 and N----->A = λ /4
L = λ /4 + λ /4 = λ /2
[tex]L = \frac{\lambda}{2} \\\\\lambda = 2L[/tex]
λ = 2 x 1.5m = 3.0 m
Wave equation is given by;
V = Fλ
Where;
V is the speed of sound
F is the frequency of the wave
F = V/ λ
F₀ = V / 2L
Where;
F₀ is the fundamental frequency
F₀ = 330 / 2(1.5)
F₀ = 330 / 3
F₀ = 110 Hz
the length of the organ for the first overtone, L = A---->N + N----->A + A----->N + N----->A
L = 4λ /4
L = λ
λ = 1.5 m
F₁ = 330 / 1.5
F₁ = 220 Hz
Thus, F₁ = 2F₀
For open organ at one end
the length of the organ for the fundamental frequency, L = N------A
L = λ /4
λ = 4L
F₀ = V/4L
F₀ = 330 / (4 x 0.75)
F₀ = 110 Hz
the length of the organ for the first overtone, L = N-----N + N-----A
L = λ/2 + λ / 4
L = 3λ /4
F₁ = 3F₀
F₁ = 3 x 110
F₁ = 330 Hz
Thus the fundamental frequency for both organs is 110 Hz,
The first overtone for the organ open at both ends is 220 Hz
The first overtone for the organ open at one end is 330 Hz
The correct option is "A. 110Hz,220Hz, 330 Hz"
The correct option is option (A)
the frequencies produced by the pipes are (A) 110Hz,220Hz, 330 Hz
Frequencies and overtones:(I) For an organ pipe open at open both ends the frequency of different modes is given by:
F = nv/2L
where
F is the frequency
L is the length of the organ pipe
v is the speed of the wave
and, n is the mode of frequency
the fundamental frequency corresponds to n = 1, given by:
F₀ = v/2L
F₀ = 330 / 2(1.5)
F₀ = 330 / 3
F₀ = 110 Hz
The first overtone corresponds to n = 2, the second overtone corresponds to n = 3, and so on...
F₁ =2v/2L
F₁ = 330 / 1.5
F₁ = 220 Hz
Thus, F₁ = 2F₀
The difference between successive overtones is F₀
(II) For an organ pipe open at one end the frequency of different modes is given by:
F = nv/4L
where
F is the frequency
L is the length of the organ pipe
v is the speed of the wave
and, n is the mode of frequency
the fundamental frequency corresponds to n = 1, given by:
F₀ = V/4L
F₀ = 330 / (4 x 0.75)
F₀ = 110 Hz
For an organ pipe open at one end, only those overtones are present which correspond to odd n, that is n = 3,5,...so:
F₁ = 3F₀
F₁ = 3 x 110
F₁ = 330 Hz
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A beam of light from a laser illuminates a glass how long will a short pulse of light beam take to travel the length of the glass.
Answer:
The time of short pulse of light beam is [tex]2.37\times10^{-9}\ sec[/tex]
Explanation:
Given that,
A beam of light from a laser illuminates a glass.
Suppose, the length of piece is [tex]L=25.21\times10^{-2}\ m[/tex]
Index of refraction is 2.83.
We need to calculate the speed of light pulse in glass
Using formula of speed
[tex]v=\dfrac{c}{\mu}[/tex]
Put the value into the formula
[tex]v=\dfrac{3\times10^{8}}{2.83}[/tex]
[tex]v=1.06\times10^{8}\ m/s[/tex]
We need to calculate the time of short pulse of light beam
Using formula of velocity
[tex]v=\dfrac{d}{t}[/tex]
[tex]t=\dfrac{d}{v}[/tex]
Put the value into the formula
[tex]t=\dfrac{25.21\times10^{-2}}{1.06\times10^{8}}[/tex]
[tex]t=2.37\times10^{-9}\ sec[/tex]
Hence, The time of short pulse of light beam is [tex]2.37\times10^{-9}\ sec[/tex]
How wide is the central diffraction peak on a screen 2.20 mm behind a 0.0328-mmmm-wide slit illuminated by 588-nmnm light?
Answer:
[tex]y = 0.0394 \ m[/tex]
Explanation:
From the question we are told that
The distance of the screen is [tex]D = 2.20 \ m[/tex]
The distance of separation of the slit is [tex]d = 0.0328 \ mm = 0.0328*10^{-3} \ m[/tex]
The wavelength of light is [tex]\lambda = 588 \ nm = 588 *10^{-9} \ m[/tex]
Generally the condition for constructive interference is
[tex]dsin\theta = n * \lambda[/tex]
=> [tex]\theta = sin^{-1} [ \frac{ n * \lambda }{d } ][/tex]
here n = 1 because we are considering the central diffraction peak
=> [tex]\theta = sin^{-1} [ \frac{ 1 * 588*10^{-9} }{0.0328*10^{-3} } ][/tex]
=> [tex]\theta = 1.0274 ^o[/tex]
Generally the width of central diffraction peak on a screen is mathematically evaluated as
[tex]y = D tan (\theta )[/tex]
substituting values
[tex]y = 2.20 * tan (1.0274)[/tex]
[tex]y = 0.0394 \ m[/tex]
A 5.0-µC point charge is placed at the 0.00 cm mark of a meter stick and a -4.0-µC point charge is placed at the 50 cm mark. At what point on a line joining the two charges is the electric field due to these charges equal to zero?
Answer:
Electric field is zero at point 4.73 m
Explanation:
Given:
Charge place = 50 cm = 0.50 m
change q1 = 5 µC
change q2 = 4 µC
Computation:
electric field zero calculated by:
[tex]E1 =k\frac{q1}{r^2} \\\\E2 =k\frac{q2}{R^2} \\\\[/tex]
Where electric field is zero,
First distance = x
Second distance = (x-0.50)
So,
E1 = E2
[tex]k\frac{q1}{r^2}=k\frac{q2}{R^2} \\\\[/tex]
[tex]\frac{5}{x^2}=\frac{4}{(x-50)^2} \\\\[/tex]
x = 0.263 or x = 4.73
So,
Electric field is zero at point 4.73 m
Which unbalanced force accounts for the direction of the net force of the rocket?
a. Air resistance
b. Friction
c. Gravity
d. Thrust of rocket engine
It depends on what stage of the mission you're talking about.
==> While it's sitting on the pad before launch, the forces on the rocket are balanced, so there's no net force on it.
==> When the engines ignite, their thrust (d) is greater than the force of gravity. So the net force on the rocket is upward, and the spacecraft accelerates upward.
==> After the engines shut down, the net force acting on the rocket is due to Gravity (c).
. . . If the rocket has enough vertical speed, it escapes the Earth completely, and just keeps going.
. . . If it has enough horizontal speed, it enters Earth orbit.
. . . If it doesn't have enough vertical or horizontal speed, it falls back to Earth.
A rocket will preserve to speed up so long as there's a resultant pressure upwards resulting from the thrust of the rocket engine.
What unbalanced force bills for the course of the internet pressure of the rocket?A rocket launches whilst the pressure of thrust pushing it upwards is greater than the burden force because of gravity downwards. This unbalanced pressure reasons a rocket to accelerate upwards. A rocket will maintain to hurry up so long as there's a resultant force upwards resulting from the thrust of the rocket engine.
What's the net pressure of unbalanced?
If the forces on an item are balanced, the net pressure is zero. If the forces are unbalanced forces, the results do not cancel each difference. Any time the forces acting on an object are unbalanced, the net pressure is not 0, and the movement of the item modifications.
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48. A patient presents with a thrombosis in
the popliteal vein. This thrombosis most likely
causes reduction of blood flow in which of the
following veins?
Answer:
the interation blood veins
Explanation:
A 10-cm-long thin glass rod uniformly charged to 6.00 nC and a 10-cm-long thin plastic rod uniformly charged to - 6.00 nC are placed side by side, 4.4 cm apart. What are the electric field strengths E1 to E3 at distances 1.0 cm, 2.0 cm, and 3.0 cm from the glass rod along the line connecting the midpoints of the two rods?
A. Specify the electric field strength E1
B. Specify the electric field strength E2
C. Specify the electric field strength E3
Answer:
A) E(r) = 1.3957 × 10^(5) N/C
B) E(r) = 9.8864 × 10⁴ N/C
C) E(r) = 1.13 × 10^(5) N/C
Explanation:
We are given;
q = 6 nc = 6 × 10^(-9) C
L = 10 cm = 0.1 m
d = 4.4 cm = 0.044 m
r1 = 1 cm = 0.01 m
r2 = 2 cm = 0.02 m
r3 = 3 cm = 0.03 m
Formula for the electric field strength in this question is given as;
E(r) = q/(2π(ε_o)rL) + q/(2π(ε_o)(d - r)L)
When factorized, we have;
E(r) = q/(2π(ε_o)L) × [(1/r) + (1/(d - r))]
Plugging in the relevant values for q/(2π(ε_o)L)
We know that (ε_o) has a constant value of 8.854 × 10^(−12) C²/N².m
Thus; q/(2π(ε_o)L) = (6 × 10^(-9))/(2π(8.854 × 10^(−12)0.1) = 1078.53
Thus;
E(r) = 1078.52 [1/r + 1/(d - r)]
A) E1 is at r = 1 cm = 0.01m
Thus;
E(r) = 1078.52 (1/0.01 + (1/(0.044 - 0.01))
E(r) = 1.3957 × 10^(5) N/C
B) E2 is at r = 2 cm = 0.02 m
Thus;
E(r) = 1078.52 (1/0.02 + (1/(0.044 - 0.02))
E(r) = 9.8864 × 10⁴ N/C
C) E2 is at r = 3 cm = 0.03 m
Thus;
E(r) = 1078.52 (1/0.03 + (1/(0.044 - 0.03))
E(r) = 1.13 × 10^(5) N/C
A 28.0 kg child plays on a swing having support ropes that are 2.30 m long. A friend pulls her back until the ropes are 45.0 ∘ from the vertical and releases her from rest.
A: What is the potential energy for the child just as she is released, compared with the potential energy at the bottom of the swing?
B: How fast will she be moving at the bottom of the swing?
C: How much work does the tension in the ropes do as the child swings from the initial position to the bottom?
Answer
A)184.9J
B)=3.63m/s
C) Zero
Explanation:
A)potential energy of the child at the initial position, measured relative the her potential energy at the bottom of the motion, is
U=Mgh
Where m=28kg
g= 9.8m/s
h= difference in height between the initial position and the bottom position
We are told that the rope is L = 2.30 m long and inclined at 45.0° from the vertical
h=L-Lcos(x)= L(1-cosx)=2.30(1-cos45)
=0.674m
Her Potential Energy will now
= 28× 9.8×0.674
=184.9J
B)we can see that at the bottom of the motion, all the initial potential energy of the child has been converted into kinetic energy:
E= 0.5mv^2
where
m = 28.0 kg is the mass of the child
v is the speed of the child at the bottom position
Solving the equation for v, we find
V=√2k/m
V=√(2×184.9/28
=3.63m/s
C)we can find work done by the tension in the rope is given using expresion below
W= Tdcosx
where W= work done
T is the tension
d = displacement of the child
x= angle between the directions of T and d
In this situation, we have that the tension in the rope, T, is always perpendicular to the displacement of the child, d. x= 90∘ and cos90∘=0 hence, the work done is zero.
A pool ball moving 1.83 m/s strikes an identical ball at rest. Afterward, the first ball moves 1.15 m/s at a 23.3 degrees angle. What is the y-component of the velocity of the second ball?
Answer:
v_{1fy} = - 0.4549 m / s
Explanation:
This is an exercise of conservation of the momentum, for this we must define a system formed by the two balls, so that the forces during the collision have internal and the momentum is conserved
initial. Before the crash
p₀ = m v₁₀
final. After the crash
[tex]p_{f}[/tex] = m [tex]v_{1f}[/tex] + m v_{2f}
Recall that velocities are a vector so it has x and y components
p₀ = p_{f}
we write this equation for each axis
X axis
m v₁₀ = m v_{1fx} + m v_{2fx}
Y Axis
0 = -m v_{1fy} + m v_{2fy}
the exercise tells us the initial velocity v₁₀ = 1.83 m / s, the final velocity v_{2f} = 1.15, let's use trigonometry to find its components
sin 23.3 = v_{2fy} / v_{2f}
cos 23.3 = v_{2fx} / v_{2f}
v_{2fy} = v_{2f} sin 23.3
v_{2fx} = v_{2f} cos 23.3
we substitute in the momentum conservation equation
m v₁₀ = m v_{1f} cos θ + m v_{2f} cos 23.3
0 = - m v_{1f} sin θ + m v_{2f} sin 23.3
1.83 = v_{1f} cos θ + 1.15 cos 23.3
0 = - v_{1f} sin θ + 1.15 sin 23.3
1.83 = v_{1f} cos θ + 1.0562
0 = - v_{1f} sin θ + 0.4549
v_{1f} sin θ = 0.4549
v_{1f} cos θ = -0.7738
we divide these two equations
tan θ = - 0.5878
θ = tan-1 (-0.5878)
θ = -30.45º
we substitute in one of the two and find the final velocity of the incident ball
v_{1f} cos (-30.45) = - 0.7738
v_{1f} = -0.7738 / cos 30.45
v_{1f} = -0.8976 m / s
the component and this speed is
v_{1fy} = v1f sin θ
v_{1fy} = 0.8976 sin (30.45)
v_{1fy} = - 0.4549 m / s
A ball travels with velocity given by [21] [ 2 1 ], with wind blowing in the direction given by [3−4] [ 3 −4 ] with respect to some co-ordinate axes. What is the size of the velocity of the ball in the direction of the wind?
Answer:
2/5 m/s
Explanation:
There are two vectors v and w . Let θ be angle b/w the two vector.
[tex]cos\theta =\frac{\overleftarrow{v}\cdot \overleftarrow{w}}{\left | v \right |\left | w \right |}\\=\frac{6-4}{\sqrt(2^2+1^2)\sqrt(3^2+4^2)} =\frac{2}{5\sqrt(5)}[/tex]
velocity of the ball in direction of the the wind
[tex]\left | vcos\theta \right |\\\left | v \right |cos\theta\\\sqrt(2^2+1^2)\frac{2}{5\sqrt(5)} = \frac{2}{5}[/tex]
The size of the velocity of the ball in the direction of the wind is 2/5 ms.
Calculation of the size of velocity:Since there are two vectors v and w
Also, here we assume θ be angle b/w the two vector.
So
Cos θ = 6-4 / √(2^2 + 1^2) √(3^2 + 4^2)
= 2/5√5
Now the velocity of the ball should be
= √(2^2 + 1^2) 2 ÷ 5√(5)
= 2 /5
hence, The size of the velocity of the ball in the direction of the wind is 2/5 ms.
Learn more about velocity here: https://brainly.com/question/1303810
An electron is accelerated from rest through a potential difference. After acceleration the electron has a de Broglie wavelength of 880 nm. What is the potential difference though which this electron was accelerated
Answer:
3x10⁴v
Explanation:
Using
Wavelength= h/ √(2m.Ke)
880nm = 6.6E-34/√ 2.9.1E-31 x me
Ke= 6.6E-34/880nm x 18.2E -31.
5.6E-27/18.2E-31
= 3 x 10⁴ Volts
A velocity selector in a mass spectrometer uses a 0.100-T magnetic field. (a) What electric field strength is needed to select a speed of 4.00 . 106 m/s
Answer:
The electric field strength needed is 4 x 10⁵ N/C
Explanation:
Given;
magnitude of magnetic field, B = 0.1 T
velocity of the charge, v = 4 x 10⁶ m/s
The velocity of the charge when there is a balance in the magnetic and electric force is given by;
[tex]v = \frac{E}{B}[/tex]
where;
v is the velocity of the charge
E is the electric field strength
B is the magnetic field strength
The electric field strength needed is calculated as;
E = vB
E = 4 x 10⁶ x 0.1
E = 4 x 10⁵ N/C
Therefore, the electric field strength needed is 4 x 10⁵ N/C
Kasek rides his bicycle down a 6.0° hill (incline is
6° with the horizontal) at a steady speed of 4.0
m/s. Assuming a total mass of 75 kg (bicycle and
Kasek), what must be Kasek's power output to
climb the same hill at the same speed?
Answer:
P = 2923.89 W
Explanation:
Power is
P = F v
for which we must calculate the force, let's use Newton's second law, let's set a coordinate system with a flat parallel axis and the other axis (y) perpendicular to the plane
X Axis
F - Wₓ = 0
F = Wₓ
Y Axis
N - [tex]W_{y}[/tex] = 0
let's use trigonometry for the components of the weight
sin 6 = Wₓ / W
cos 6 = W_{y} / W
Wₓ = W sin 6
W_{y} = W cos 6
F = mg cos 6
F = 75 9.8 cos 6
F = 730.97 N
let's calculate the power
P = F v
P = 730.97 4.0
P = 2923.89 W
A city of Punjab has a 15 percent chance of wet weather on any given day. What is the probability that it will take a week for it three wet weather on 3 separate days?
Answer: 0.0617
Explanation:
Given: The probability of wet weather on any given day in a city of Punjab : p=15%=0.15
Let X be a binomial variable that represents the number of days having wet weather.
Binomial probability formula : [tex]P(X=x)=^nC_xp^x(1-p)^x[/tex], where n= total outcomes, p = probability of success in each outcomes.
Here, n= 7 ( 1 week = 7 days)
The probability that it will take a week for it three wet weather on 3 separate days:
[tex]P(X=3)^=\ ^7C_3(0.15)^3(1-0.15)^{7-3}\\\\=\dfrac{7!}{3!(7-3)!}(0.15)^3(0.85)^4\\\\=\dfrac{7\times6\times5}{3\times2}\times 0.003375\times0.52200625\approx0.0617[/tex]
Hence, the required probability =0.0617
A radar installation operates at 9000 MHz with an antenna (dish) that is 15 meters across. Determine the maximum distance (in kilometers) for which this system can distinguish two aircraft 100 meters apart.
Answer:
R = 36.885 km
Explanation:
In order to distinguish the two planes we must use the Rayleigh criterion that establishes two distinguishable objects if in their diffraction the central maximum of one coincides with the first minimum of the other
The diffraction equation for slits is
a sin θ = m λ
the first minimum occurs for m = 1
sin θ = λ a
as the diffraction experiments the angles are very small, we approximate
sin θ = θ
θ = λ / a
This expression is for a slit, in the case of circular objects, when solving the system in polar coordinates, a numerical constant appears, leaving the expression of the form
θ = 1.22 λ / a
In this problem they give us the frequency, let's find the wavelength with the relation
c = λ f
λ = c / f
θ = 1.22 c/ f a
since they ask us for the distance between the planes, we can use the definition of radians
θ = s / R
if we assume that the distance is large, we can approximate the arc to the horizontal distance
s = x
we substitute
x / R = 1.22 c / fa
R = x f a / 1.22c
Let's reduce the magnitudes to the SI system
f = 9000 MHz = 9 109 Hz
a = 15 m
x = 100 m
let's calculate
R = 100 10⁹ 15 / (1.22 3 108)
R = 3.6885 10⁴ m
let's reduce to km
R = 3.6885 10¹ km
R = 36.885 km
Consider two parallel wires where the magnitude of the left currentis 2 I0(io) and that of the right current is I0(io). Point A is midway between the wires,and B is an equal distance on the other side of the wires.
The ratio ofthe magnitude of the magnetic field at point A to that at point Bis________
Answer:
Explanation:
At the point midway between wires
magnetic field due to wire having current 2I₀
= 10⁻⁷ x 2 x2I₀ / r where 2r is the distance between wires .
magnetic field due to wire having current I₀
= 10⁻⁷ x 4 I₀ / r
magnetic field due to wire having current I₀
= 10⁻⁷ x 2I₀ / r
= 10⁻⁷ x 2 I₀ / r where 2r is the distance between wires .
these fields are in opposite direction as direction of current is same in both .
net magnetic field = (4 - 2 )x 10⁻⁷ x I₀ / r
= 2 x 10⁻⁷ x I₀ / r
At point A net magnetic field = 2 x 10⁻⁷ x I₀ / r
At point B , we shall calculate magnetic field
magnetic field due to nearer wire having current 2 I₀ = 10⁻⁷ x 4 I₀ / r
magnetic field due to wire far away = 10⁻⁷ x 2 I₀ / 3r
These magnetic fields act in the same direction so they will add up
net magnetic field = [ (4 I₀ / r) + (2 I₀ / 3r) ] x 10⁻⁷
= (14 I₀ / 3r ) x 10⁻⁷
Magnetic field at point B = (14 I₀ / 3r ) x 10⁻⁷
Ratio of field at A and B
= 3 / 7 . Ans
The ratio of the magnitude of the magnetic field at point A to point B is :
3 / 7
Given data :
Magnitude of the left current is 2I₀
Magnitude of the right current is I₀
First step : Determine the magnetic field at point A
The magnetic field due to the left current ( 2I₀ )
10⁻⁷ * 2 * 2I₀ / r ( 2r = distance between wires )
The magnetic field due to the right current ( I₀ )
10⁻⁷ * 2 I₀ / r
From the expressions above the magnetic fields are in opposite direction
∴ Net magnetic field = (4 - 2 )* 10⁻⁷ * I₀ / r = 2 * 10⁻⁷ * I₀ / r
Hence The magnetic field at point A = 2 * 10⁻⁷ * I₀ / r
Next step : determine the magnetic field at point B
Magnetic field due to the closest wire to point B ( i.e.2I₀ ) = 10⁻⁷ * 4 I₀ / r
Magnetic field due to the wire away from point A = 10⁻⁷ * 2 I₀ / 3r
Since the fields acts in the same directions
The net magnetic field = (4 I₀ / r) + (2 I₀ / 3r) ] * 10⁻⁷ = ( 14 I₀ / 3r ) * 10⁻⁷
Hence The magnetic field at point A = ( 14 I₀ / 3r ) * 10⁻⁷
Therefore the ratio of the magnitude of the magnetic field at point A to point B = 3/ 7
Hence we can conclude that the ratio of the magnitude of the magnetic field at point A to point B = 3 / 7
Learn more : https://brainly.com/question/22403676
Simple harmonic oscillations can be modeled by the projection of circular motion at constant angular velocity onto the diameter of a circle. When this is done, the analog along the diameter of the acceleration of the particle executing simple harmonic motion is
Answer:
the analog along the diameter of the acceleration of the particle executing simple harmonic motion is the projection along the diameter of the centripetal acceleration of the particle in the circle
Two coherent sources of radio waves, A and B, are 5.00 meters apart. Each source emits waves with wavelength 6.00 meters. Consider points along the line connecting the two sources.Required:a. At what distance from source A is there constructive interference between points A and B?b. At what distances from source A is there destructive interference between points A and B?
Answer:
a
[tex]z= 2.5 \ m[/tex]
b
[tex]z = (1 \ m , 4 \ m )[/tex]
Explanation:
From the question we are told that
Their distance apart is [tex]d = 5.00 \ m[/tex]
The wavelength of each source wave [tex]\lambda = 6.0 \ m[/tex]
Let the distance from source A where the construct interference occurred be z
Generally the path difference for constructive interference is
[tex]z - (d-z) = m \lambda[/tex]
Now given that we are considering just the straight line (i.e points along the line connecting the two sources ) then the order of the maxima m = 0
so
[tex]z - (5-z) = 0[/tex]
=> [tex]2 z - 5 = 0[/tex]
=> [tex]z= 2.5 \ m[/tex]
Generally the path difference for destructive interference is
[tex]|z-(d-z)| = (2m + 1)\frac{\lambda}{2}[/tex]
=> [tex]|2z - d |= (0 + 1)\frac{\lambda}{2}[/tex]
=> [tex]|2z - d| =\frac{\lambda}{2}[/tex]
substituting values
[tex]|2z - 5| =\frac{6}{2}[/tex]
=> [tex]z = \frac{5 \pm 3}{2}[/tex]
So
[tex]z = \frac{5 + 3}{2}[/tex]
[tex]z = 4\ m[/tex]
and
[tex]z = \frac{ 5 -3 }{2}[/tex]
=> [tex]z = 1 \ m[/tex]
=> [tex]z = (1 \ m , 4 \ m )[/tex]
The hot glowing surfaces of stars emit energy in the form of electromagnetic radiation. It is a good approximation to assume that the emissivity eee is equal to 1 for these surfaces.
Required:
a. Find the radius RRigel of the star Rigel, the bright blue star in the constellation Orion that radiates energy at a rate of 2.7 x 10^31 W and has a surface temperature of 11,000 K.
b. Find the radius RProcyonB of the star Procyon B, which radiates energy at a rate of 2.1 x 10^23 W and has a surface temperature of 10,000 K. Assume both stars are spherical. Use σ=5.67 x 10−8^ W/m^2*K^4 for the Stefan-Boltzmann constant.
Given that,
Energy [tex]H=2.7\times10^{31}\ W[/tex]
Surface temperature = 11000 K
Emissivity e =1
(a). We need to calculate the radius of the star
Using formula of energy
[tex]H=Ae\sigma T^4[/tex]
[tex]A=\dfrac{H}{e\sigma T^4}[/tex]
[tex]4\pi R^2=\dfrac{H}{e\sigma T^4}[/tex]
[tex]R^2=\dfrac{H}{e\sigma T^4\times4\pi}[/tex]
Put the value into the formula
[tex]R=\sqrt{\dfrac{2.7\times10^{31}}{1\times5.67\times10^{-8}\times(11000)^4\times 4\pi}}[/tex]
[tex]R=5.0\times10^{10}\ m[/tex]
(b). Given that,
Radiates energy [tex] H=2.1\times10^{23}\ W[/tex]
Temperature T = 10000 K
We need to calculate the radius of the star
Using formula of radius
[tex]R^2=\dfrac{H}{e\sigma T^4\times4\pi}[/tex]
Put the value into the formula
[tex]R=\sqrt{\dfrac{2.1\times10^{23}}{1\times5.67\times10^{-8}\times(10000)^4\times4\pi}}[/tex]
[tex]R=5.42\times10^{6}\ m[/tex]
Hence, (a). The radius of the star is [tex]5.0\times10^{10}\ m[/tex]
(b). The radius of the star is [tex]5.42\times10^{6}\ m[/tex]
The frequency of light emitted from hydrogen present in the Andromeda galaxy has been found to be 0.10% higher than that from hydrogen measured on Earth.
Is this galaxy approaching or receding from the Earth, and at what speed?
Answer:
3x10^5m/s
Explanation:
See attached file
Explanation:
The speed of the light emitted from the earth is approaching the galaxy at [tex]3\times 10^5\;\rm m/s[/tex].
Doppler's Effect
According to the Doppler effect, the difference between the frequency at which light wave leave a source and reaches an observer is caused by the relative motion of the observer and the wave source.
Given that the difference in the frequency is 0.10 %. The speed of light emitted from the galaxy can be calculated by the Doppler effect.
[tex]\dfrac {\Delta f}{f} = \dfrac {v}{c}[/tex]
Where f is the frequency of the light, v is the speed of light emitted from the galaxy and c is the speed of light emitted from the earth.
[tex]\dfrac {0.10 f}{100 f} = \dfrac {v}{3\times 10^8}[/tex]
[tex]v = 3\times 10^5\;\rm m/s[/tex]
Hence we can conclude that the speed of the light emitted from the earth is approaching the galaxy at [tex]3\times 10^5\;\rm m/s[/tex].
To know more about the doppler effect, follow the link given below.
https://brainly.com/question/1330077.
