The distance to your cousin's house is 156 miles, and the distance to Dallas is 936 miles. If it took 3 hours to drive to your cousin's house, how long would it take to drive to Dallas?

Answer:

<ABE = 109

Step-by-step explanation:

Angle Formed by Two Chords= 1/2(sum of Intercepted Arcs)

< ABE = 1/2 ( 38+180)

< ABE = 1/2 (218)

<ABE = 109

Answer:

Formula: Half the sum of the two arcs. So, this would be the equation:

[tex]\frac{1}{2}[/tex][tex](38[/tex]+[tex]180[/tex])

Solve:

218 / 2 = 109

Answer: 109

The answer is 19 they worked it out right above the question.

Answer:

19

Step-by-step explanation:

3(x+6) = 5(x-4)

Distribute

3x+18 = 5x-20

Subtract 3x from each side

18 = 2x-20

Add 20 to each side

38 = 2x

Divide by 2

19 = x

The solution is 19

Answer:

We have 28 bags of butter cookies and 12 bags of chocolate chip cookies

Step-by-step explanation:

Let b be the number of butter cookies and c the number of chocolate chips.

Since we have them in the ratio 7:3, b/c = 7/3   (1)

Also, when Mrs Benjamin gives away 24 butter cookies, the ratio becomes 11:6. So, the remaining number of butter cookies are b - 24. So, the ratio of remaining butter cookies to chocolate chips is (b - 24)/c = 11/6   (2)

From (1) b = 7c/3 and from (2) 6(b - 24)  = 11c  ⇒  6b - 144 = 11c  (3)

Substituting b into (3), we have

6b - 144 = 11c

6(7c/3) - 144 = 11c

2 × 7c - 144 = 11c

14c - 144 = 11c

subtracting 11c from both sides, we have

14c - 11c - 144 = 11c - 11c

14c - 11c - 144 = 0

adding 144 to both sides, we have

14c - 11c -144 + 144 = 144

14c - 11c = 144

3c = 144

c = 144/3

c = 48

So, b = 7c/3 = 7(48)/3 = 7 × 16 = 112

Since each cookie is packed into bags of 4, we divide the number of each cookie by 4 to find the number of bags of cookies.

So, number of bags of butter cookies = b/4 = 112/4 = 28 bags of butter cookies

number of bags of chocolate chip cookies = c/4 = 48/4 = 12 bags of chocolate chip cookies

So, we have 28 bags of butter cookies and 12 bags of chocolate chip cookies

Answer:

v . u = < v1 , v2 > . <u1 , u2> = v1 u1 + v2 u2

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

x=-6 and x=1

Step-by-step explanation:

Given that:

[tex]3x^2+15x-18[/tex]

Now,

[tex]3x^2+15x-18=0\\[/tex]

Using the quadratic formula where a=3, b=15, and C=-18

x=-b±[tex]\sqrt{b^2-4ac} /2a[/tex]

x=-15±[tex]{\sqrt{15^2-4(3)(-18} } /2(3)[/tex]

x=-15±[tex]\sqrt{441} /6[/tex]

the discriminant [tex]b^2-4ac>0[/tex]

So, there are two real roots

x=-15±21/6

[tex]x=\frac{6}{6} \\x=1\\x=\frac{-36}{6} \\x=-6[/tex]

Therefore, x=-6 and x=1

Answer:

We have to:

"All of the plots are the same length, x"

L = x

"and the width of each plot is 5 yards less than the length"

W = x-5

"The total number of plots Liam owns is 20 more than the length of a plot"

20 + x

"the total area of all the plots Liam owns is 2,688 square yards"

A = (20 + x) * (x) * (x-5)

A = (20x - 100 + x ^ 2 -5x) * (x)

A = (x ^ 2 + 15x - 100) * (x)

2688 = (x ^ 3 + 15x ^ 2 - 100x)

x ^ 3 + 15x ^ 2 - 100x = 2688

x ^ 3 + 15x ^ 2 - 100x - 2688 = 0

Answer:

*** The equation x3 + 15x2 - 100x - 2.688 = 0 can be used to find the length of each plot.

Answer:x^3+15x^2-100x-2,688=0

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

banks change people fees to make a profit off of them other wise they would be giving away free money.

Step-by-step explanation:

hope this helps and what you were asking for.

Answer:

20 minutes

Step-by-step explanation:

If you add 20 minutes to 7:55 P.M., it becomes 8:15 P.M.

Answer:

20 minutos

Step-by-step explanation:

De 7:55 pm hasta las 8: pasaron 5 minutos, luego de 8:00 a 8:15 pm pasaron 15 minutos.

Así que sería 5 + 15 = 20 minutos

Using an absolute value inequality, it is found that the range of temperatures is between 70ºF and 74ºF.

---------------

[tex]|x| = x, x \geq 0[/tex]

[tex]|x| = -x, x < 0[/tex]

---------------

[tex]|x - 72| \leq 2[/tex]

Solving the inequality:

[tex]x - 72 \geq >= -2[/tex]

[tex]x \geq 70[/tex]

And

[tex]x - 72 \leq 2[/tex]

[tex]x \leq 74[/tex]

Thus, the range of temperatures is between 70ºF and 74ºF.

A similar problem is given at https://brainly.com/question/24514895

Answer:

B.

right scalene triangle

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

Y=2x+0.5

Step-by-step explanation:

The gradient is 2/1=2x

The y-intercept looks to be around 0.5

Answer:

y = [tex]\frac{1}{2}[/tex] x + [tex]\frac{1}{2}[/tex]

Step-by-step explanation:

The equation of a line in slope- intercept form is

y = mx + c ( m is the slope and c the y- intercept )

Calculate m using the slope formula

m = [tex]\frac{y_{2}-y_{1} }{x_{2}-x_{1} }[/tex]

with (x₁, y₁ ) = (- 1, 0) and (x₂, y₂ ) = (1, 1) ← 2 points on the line

m = [tex]\frac{1-0}{1-(-1)}[/tex] = [tex]\frac{1}{1+1}[/tex] = [tex]\frac{1}{2}[/tex] , then

y = [tex]\frac{1}{2}[/tex] x + c ← is the partial equation

To find c substitute either of the 2 points into the partial equation

Using (1, 1 ) , then

1 = [tex]\frac{1}{2}[/tex] + c ⇒ c = 1 - [tex]\frac{1}{2}[/tex] = [tex]\frac{1}{2}[/tex]

y = [tex]\frac{1}{2}[/tex] x + [tex]\frac{1}{2}[/tex] ← equation of line

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

Using this same method of solving, solve the rest. I will help you with 2 more.

5. [tex]10^6[/tex] = 1,000,000

8. [tex]10^0[/tex] = 1

Answer:

C

Step-by-step explanation:

16 - 7 = 9

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

Note : In multiplication if the bases are same u can add their exponent while in division if the bases are same u can subtract their exponent.

Hope this helps u !!

Answer:

1m=1000 mm.

1m^2=(1000)*(1000)=10^6 mm^2

So just multiply the given result in m^2 by 10^6 to get the result in mm^2.

So ,16 m^2 =16*(10^6)mm^2.

Hope you got it.

Answers:

=========================================

Explanations:

3. We have negative correlation because the regression line is going downhill (move from left to right). The points are fairly close to the same regression line, so I'd say we have either moderate or fairly strong negative correlation. That means r is fairly close to -1. It's not -1 exactly since that would have to mean all points are on the same line.

-----------------

4. Negative correlation goes with negative r values. Refer to problem 3. Positive correlation goes to positive r values. The r value will most likely not equal the slope value, but they share the same sign.

----------------

5. If r is close to +1, then we have fairly strong positive linear correlation. If r is close to -1, then we have fairly strong negative linear correlation. If r = 0 or close to it, then we should use some other kind of regression tool. Or perhaps the data points are simply randomly scattered about and they have no pattern at all.

-----------------

6. Refer to problem 5.

-----------------

7. Plug in x = 15 and you should find that y = -0.632(15)+27.1 = 17.62, which means that the estimated tip is roughly 17.62% of the bill.

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

To determine the x-intercept, we set y equal to zero and solve for x. Similarly, to determine the y-intercept, we set x equal to zero and solve for y.

To find the x-intercept, set y = 0 \displaystyle y=0 y=0.

To find the y-intercept, set x = 0 \displaystyle x=0 x=0.

Answer:

pls dont kill me for wacky lines. this shall just give you a basic idea. the important part is the 90° angle

Answer:

73

Step-by-step explanation:

(9x - 62)

(9(15) - 62) =

(135 - 62) =

(73)

m∠KJL = 73

Answer:

question 1:

step #1:divide both sides by x

step #2:multiply both sides by 4

step #3: plug it into equation

Step-by-step explanation:

question 1:

step #1: divide both sides by x

you get x/4 = 1

step #2:multiply both sides by 4

you get x = 4

step #3: plug it into equation

4 squared/4 = 4

Answer:

see below

Step-by-step explanation:

They are completing the square

x^2 +12x +29

Take the coefficient of the x term

12

Divide by 2

12/2 = 6

Square  it

6^2 = 36

Add 36 and subtract 36

(x^2 +12x +36) -36 +29

Inside the parentheses becomes ( x+6)^2

Answer:

2300 apples

Step-by-step explanation:

2500 - 200 = 2300

Answer:

2300

Step-by-step explanation:

2500 - 200 = 2300

Note: "have left" means the answer after subtraction.

Answer:

[tex] {i}^{1} = i \\ {i}^{2} - 1 \\ {i}^{3} = - i \\ {i}^{4} = 1[/tex]

Mark me as Brainliest

Answer: rounded off to the nearest tenths, the volume is equivalent to

4022.9

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

a) 38.74% probability that the main printer is operating properly for exactly 9 inspections.

b) Approximately 100% probability that the main printer is operating properly for at least 3 inspections.

c) The expected number of inspections in which the main printer is operating properly is 9.

Step-by-step explanation:

For each inspection, there are only two possible outcomes. Either it is operating correctly, or it is not. The probability of the printer operating correctly for an inspection is independent of any other inspection, which means that the binomial probability distribution is used to solve this question.

Binomial probability distribution

The binomial probability is the probability of exactly x successes on n repeated trials, and X can only have two outcomes.

[tex]P(X = x) = C_{n,x}.p^{x}.(1-p)^{n-x}[/tex]

In which [tex]C_{n,x}[/tex] is the number of different combinations of x objects from a set of n elements, given by the following formula.

[tex]C_{n,x} = \frac{n!}{x!(n-x)!}[/tex]

And p is the probability of X happening.

Based on past experience, the main printer in a university computer centre is operating properly 90% of the time.

This means that [tex]p = 0.9[/tex]

Suppose inspections are made at 10 randomly selected times.

This means that [tex]n = 10[/tex]

A) What is the probability that the main printer is operating properly for exactly 9 inspections.

This is [tex]P(X = 9)[/tex]. So

[tex]P(X = x) = C_{n,x}.p^{x}.(1-p)^{n-x}[/tex]

[tex]P(X = 9) = C_{10,9}.(0.9)^{9}.(0.1)^{1} = 0.3874[/tex]

38.74% probability that the main printer is operating properly for exactly 9 inspections.

B) What is the probability that the main printer is operating properly for at least 3 inspections?

This is:

[tex]P(X \geq 3) = 1 - P(X < 3)[/tex]

In which

[tex]P(X < 3) = P(X = 0) + P(X = 1) + P(X = 2)[/tex]

So

[tex]P(X = x) = C_{n,x}.p^{x}.(1-p)^{n-x}[/tex]

[tex]P(X = 0) = C_{10,0}.(0.9)^{0}.(0.1)^{10} \approx 0[/tex]

[tex]P(X = 1) = C_{10,1}.(0.9)^{1}.(0.1)^{9} \approx 0[/tex]

[tex]P(X = 2) = C_{10,2}.(0.9)^{2}.(0.1)^{8} \approx 0[/tex]

Thus:

[tex]P(X < 3) = P(X = 0) + P(X = 1) + P(X = 2) = 0 + 0 + 0 = 0[/tex]

Then:

[tex]P(X \geq 3) = 1 - P(X < 3) = 1 - 0 = 1[/tex]

Approximately 100% probability that the main printer is operating properly for at least 3 inspections.

C) What is the expected number of inspections in which the main printer is operating properly?

The expected value for the binomial distribution is given by:

[tex]E(X) = np[/tex]

In this question:

[tex]E(X) = 10(0.9) = 9[/tex]

Answer:

D po

Step-by-step explanation:

yan po!sana nakatulong po

Answer:

[tex]\displaystyle A_\text{shaded}=18-\frac{9}{2}\pi \text{ units}^2[/tex]

Step-by-step explanation:

First, find the area of the rectangle:

[tex]A_\text{rect}=9(3)=18\text{ units}^2[/tex]

In order to find the area of the shaded region, we can subtract the areas of the two sectors from the total area of the rectangle.

Find the area of the sectors. We can use the sector formula:

[tex]\displaystyle A=\pi r^2\cdot \frac{\theta}{360^\circ}[/tex]

The left sector has a radius of three units and an angle of 90°. Hence, its area is:

[tex]\displaystyle A_\text{L}=\pi (3)^2\cdot \frac{90}{360}=9\pi\cdot \frac{1}{4}=\frac{9}{4}\pi[/tex]

The right sector is identical to the left sector. So, the total area of the two sectors is:

[tex]\displaystyle A_{\text{T}}=\frac{9}{4}\pi +\frac{9}{4}\pi =\frac{9}{2}\pi[/tex]

Hence, the area of the shaded region is:

[tex]\displaystyle A_\text{shaded}=18-\frac{9}{2}\pi \text{ units}^2[/tex]

Answer:

e and f

Step-by-step explanation:

there is a great app to use called algebrator it helps me everyday for things like this <3