Answer:
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Explanation:
H4HJ7R7FFEHGR
2. Describe social diversity and discuss two examples.
In we all the society members gather in any problems and solve that problem is call social diversity
Explanation:
if the water tap broken all the society members join and solve to fix that problem.
Social diversity may be defined as the sum total of all humans that live in a single culture and are set apart from each other through various elements of it.
What are the elements of social diversity?The elements of social diversity are lifestyle, religion, language, ethnicity, race, gender, tastes, preferences, etc.
The examples of social diversity are as follows:
Religious diversity: It is one of the most common and highlighted diversity that is frequently seen across the world. According to the reports, there are approximately 4200 religions are present in the world. But all maintain a relationship of brotherhood and spread peace, harmony, and happiness to the entire world. Cultural diversity: This type of diversity is considered the subpart of religious diversity. It is associated with the ethnicity of each person and fixed the social norms for the society that aid in raising the values of each family.Therefore, it is well described above.
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A weight reducing diet required the daily intake of ‘liquid protein’[soup of hydrolyzed gelatin], water and an assortments of vitamins. All other food and drink were to be avoided. People on this diet typically lost 10 to 14kg in the first week. A number of persons on this diet died. What are some of the dangers inherent in the diet and how can they lead to death?
Answer: See explanation
Explanation:
From the information given, it should be noted that Gelatin has a nutritional distribution of amino acids that's unbalanced.
It should be noted that in a scenario whereby large amounts of gelatin are ingested into the body such that there is catabolizing of the excess amino acids, there will be an excess of the urwa cycle capacity which then brings about ammonia toxicity.
Furthermore, the dehydration which can be caused due to the excretion of large amount of urea can also lead to death.
The diversity of both students and faculty poses important considerations for teaching and learning. Reflect on the characteristic differences in gender, race, and culture, as well as the differences among the diverse generations in today’s nursing education classroom. When considering your personal philosophy of teaching, discuss how you might use these characteristic differences and diverse backgrounds and experiences of today’s nursing students as a teaching tool to connect students to nursing content and increase their understanding. In other words, how might you incorporate the background and experiences of your students into your teaching methods to enhance the ability of all students in your classroom to think critically and problem solve patient-care issues?
Answer:
As of 2016, the ethnic breakdown of the United States was 61.3 percent white (non-Hispanic/Latino), 17.8 percent Hispanic/Latinx, 13.3 percent black/African-American, 5.7 percent Asian, 1.3 percent Native American/Alaskan Native, and 2.6 percent reporting two or more races. In the same year, about 70 percent of all nurses were white — significantly more than the general population. African-American and Latinx populations in particular were underrepresented as a proportion of the nursing profession. The contrast was even more stark when considering nursing educators. In 19 states, the percentage of minority nursing students was at least double that of minority faculty.
This disparity can be a barrier to effective nursing education. Studies by respected organizations, such as the Sullivan Commission on Diversity in the Healthcare Workforce, show that educational outcomes improve when nurse educators reflect, value, and celebrate the diverse attributes of the student groups they teach. On the other hand, educational outcomes suffer when nurse educators fail to do these things. Diversity within an organization’s teaching staff is therefore a helpful tool for attracting, retaining, and training enthusiastic and skilled nursing students.
The UB-04 form has space for more diagnosis codes, but it is not possible to link the procedures to a specific diagnosis. True False
Answer:
True
Explanation:
The UB-04 stands for the uniform billing form. It is the standard claim form, printed with red ink on white standard paper, used by institutional providers for the billing of medical and mental health claims. The form can accommodate about twelve diagnosis codes, with four codes mapping to a specific CPT code. The CPT code describes the treatment and diagnostic services that the healthcare institution has provided for a particular diagnosis, ICD-9.
The nurse is trying to determine the ability of the client with myocardial infarction (MI) to manage independently at home after discharge. Which statement by the client is the strongest indicator of the potential for difficulty after discharge?1. I need to start exercising more to improve my health.2. I will be sure to keep my appointment with the cardiologist.3. I don't have anyone to help me with doing heavy housework at home.4. I think I have a good understanding of what all my medications are for.
Answer:
3. I don't have anyone to help me with doing heavy housework at home.
Explanation:
All the response options, with the exception of the third, have an autonomy of the patient, where he shows that he will have no difficulties in performing necessary tasks, without the help of third parties. However, in the third answer option, the patient shows that he will have difficulties after being discharged, as he fears that he will have difficulties in being alone, since he has no one to help him.
Therefore, we can assume that the correct answer to your question is the third answer option.
Bone cells are called:
Answer:
Bone is a mineralized connective tissue that exhibits four types of cells: osteoblasts, bone lining cells, osteocytes, and osteoclasts.
Hank is a competitive endurance athlete who weighs 80 kg and trains for less than 4 hours a day. He would like to plan a nutritionally adequate diet that provides enough carbohydrate to maintain his weight and glycogen stores during training and competition. According to expert recommendations, he should consume _____ grams of carbohydrate daily.
Answer: 480 to 800
Explanation:
Based on the information given, according to expert recommendations, he should consume 480 to 800 grams of carbohydrate daily.
This is calculated as:
(80kg × 6) - (80kg × 10) = 480 - 800 grams.
Assuming his weight is 90kg, the grams of carbohydrate to be consumed will be. 540 to 900 grams.
1. Explain how your scores compare to the Healthy Fitness Zone Standards. Based on this comparison, what should you do next
Answer:
My score are good.
Explanation:
My score are good because there is little difference and more similarities between my score and Healthy Fitness Zone Standards. Based on this comparison, we should follow the next level fitness due to promotion to the next level of fitness. If my score in every level is satisfactory so I will completed all the levels in a short period of time otherwise it takes too much time. I need more hard work to do it earlier.
Mr. Barker enjoys a comfortable retirement income. He recently had surgery and expected that he would have certain services and items covered by the plan with minimal out-of-pocket costs because his MA-PD coverage has been very good. However, when he received the bill, he was surprised to see large charges in excess of his maximum out-of-pocket limit that included some services and items he thought would be fully covered. He called you to ask what he could do? What could you tell him?
Answer:
The correct answer is - You can offer to review the plan's appeal process to help him ask the plan to review the coverage decision.
Explanation:
Mr. Barker received the bill and there is an excess of the maximum out-of-pocket limit that is a limit a person has to pay for covered medical care services.
As he asked what he could do, you could explain that there are several plans he could review all the plans appeal process and to as well help him to ask the issue, benefits of each plan to review. Explaining and reviewing plans and coverage will help a person to makes decisions about their benefits including the amount they have to pay for their medical services plan.
You find a person that just fell down a flight of stairs. How would you start an assessment for a head, neck, or back injury?
Answer:
Look at them first to try and see visual wounds and then touch the areas to feel for broken bones or cracked skull
Explanation:
Injuries are damages or impairments caused due to accidents, hits, weapons, etc. First aid is given for any physical wound while assessing the head, neck, or back injuries.
What is first aid?First aid is the preliminary and immediate assistance given to any injured person to prevent further worsening of the condition. It is helpful till the medical services arrive.
In the case of an injured person that fell from stairs the neck, shoulder, head, and back region should be assessed for any physical wounds and abrasions that can be directly treated with first aid.
Further, the regions should be checked for any cracked bones and fractures so that there is no or minimum movement of that area to avoid further injury.
Therefore, the assessment starts with an inspection of the physical wounds and fractures.
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Cholesterol is necessary for the production of many other compounds in the body but can become harmful when blood levels exceed 135 mg/dl. exceed the body's ability to use it. can only be controlled through medications. a and b.
Answer:
The correct answer is a and b( exceed 135 mg/dl and can only be controlled through medications.)
Explanation:
Cholesterol is a natural fatty substance that is present in the body and is necessary for the proper functioning of the cells of the human body. It is considered to be at the high limit when the whole blood level exceeds 130 milligrams per deciliter of blood (mg / dl). When this happens, fats tend to build up inside the arteries, impeding blood flow and can lead to serious heart disease and stroke. A doctor usually prescribes drugs to lower high cholesterol (they usually recommend statins), it is because the person is in the intermediate risk limit and has factors that increase the risk of heart disease or stroke, causing long-term arteries become clogged and diseases such as atherosclerosis or heart attack appear.
Why have risky behaviors for zoonotic diseases continued even though we know that some of these diseases can infect humans?
Answer: Zoonotic diseases are those diseases that are transferred from animals to humans.
Explanation:
In zoonotic diseases animals are the vectors for the transfer of disease from humans to animals. The organisms that are transferred through zoonotic diseases are bacteria, viruses, fungi, and parasites. Mostly the disease causing organisms are parasites. For example rabies, Lyme disease, plague, salmonellosis, west nile virus, and others. These diseases develop risky human behavior. For example humans affected by rabies show phobia from water. Some humans also develop biting tendency.
Overcoming challenges to cultural competence in research requires that: (Check ALL that apply)
Answer: • Investigators examine and understand of historical contexts for study populations before initiating research study design.
• Early-phase study design should take into account race, ethnicity and cultural factors.
• IRB membership should include representatives of large communities and cultural groups as representatives.
Explanation:
Cultural competence in research refers to the ability of researchers to provide high quality research whereby the culture and the diversity of the population is taken into account during the development of the research ideas and when conducting the research.
The requirements for cultural competence include:
• Investigators examine and understand of historical contexts for study populations before initiating research study design.
• Early-phase study design should take into account race, ethnicity and cultural factors.
• IRB membership should include representatives of large communities and cultural groups as representatives.
The RDAs for nutrients are set based on the dietary intakes of people who appear to be maintaining nutritional health. based on a person's height and weight. to cover the needs of 97% of the population. by the FDA for food labeling purposes.
Answer:
The correct answer is '' to cover the needs of 97% of the population.''
Explanation:
The Recommended Daily Allowances or RDA, by definition, correspond to the average amount of a nutrient that a healthy person must ingest daily, through diet, to maintain a correct state of health. These established values are an approximate guide to meet the needs (intake level of a sufficient nutrient) of almost all (97 to 98%) individuals in the healthy population, but may vary due to factors such as age, sex or level of activity. It must be taken into account that each nutrient has a series of functions in the body, hence the importance of knowing the approximate amount that we should consume each day and, therefore, of knowing the RDA.
Occurs when an area heart muscle dies or is permanently damaged because if an inadequate supply of oxygen to that area; also known as heart attack.
Myocardial Infarction (Heart Attack)
It occurs when an area heart muscle dies or is permanently damaged because if an inadequate supply of oxygen to that area. It is a life threatening emergency.
Symptoms of myocardial infarction are anxiety, shortness of breath, tightness in chest, dizziness and etc.
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Candidacy is the beginning of a firefighter's career.
False
O True
Pleasee help me
I Describe the duties and responsibilities of own work role?
Answer:
Your duties and responsibilities refer to your legal and professional obligations as well as the tasks and behaviours that your employer expects from you as part of your job role. Your main duties and responsibilities will be dependent on your own particular role.
Meredith in labor for the first time she had a normal pregnancy and good prenatal care labor preceded normal until she was dilated to 4 cm since that point no progress has taken place it has been 12 hours meredith is tired and frustrated the fetus demonstrates no stress as of yet meredith is scheduled for a c-section
Answer:
Explanation:
A C-section scheduled for Meredith is best for her. A dilation of 4cm can't proceed with normal labor. Being in labor for 12 hours is dangerous for the mother and fetus. Even if the fetus demonstrates no stress yet, it is safer to have a C-section for Meridith to keep the mother and fetus in good status.
54.Uterine subinvolution after normal delivery may occur as a
result of:
a. Vaginal infection
b. Urinary tract infection
c. Gastroenteritis
d. Endometritis
A 40-year-old male vegetarian is diagnosed with folate deficiency anemia. He reports that he is an alcoholic. Which of the following factors put him at greatest risk for developing his disease? a. Being vegetarian b. Being alcoholic c. Age d. Gender
hid gender
because he was diagnosed for folate deficiency anemia
A 56 year old woman is complaining of vaginal dryness and dyspareunia. She is prescribed this medicine with lesser side effects
Answer:
osphena (ospemifene)
Explanation:
Responses of the Mast cells to the allergen include/s a. All of the answers are correct b. Degranulation c. Secretion of lipid mediators d. Secretion of cytokines
Answer:
The correct answer is - A. All of the answers are correct.
Explanation:
Mast cells are the cells that are present on connective tissue. These cells have many garnules that are filled with histamin and heparin that play role in first line immune response against allergens. Degranuation is the process of releasing these granules.
Other than this mast cells or mastocytes also secrete lipid mediators and cytokines. These are activated and secreted in presence of allergen or anaphalyxis response.
If a person’s diet includes a lot of processed foods and not a lot of fresh fruits or vegetables, failing to meet recommended intakes of ______ is likely.
Answer:
potassium
Explanation:
Got it right on the test.
If a person's diet consists primarily of processed foods and not a lot of fresh fruit and vegetables, he or she is more likely to fall short of meeting recommended potassium intakes, as fresh foods are high in potassium.
What are the roles of the ions in the body?The ions' role is important for the body as they maintain equilibrium in the body and there are many ions such as sodium, potassium, calcium, chloride, etc., and if an ionic imbalance is attained in the body, many diseases are seen and the body's homeostasis is affected. In general, eating green vegetables and natural foods balances the ions, whereas eating processed foods creates an imbalance due to the high sodium content of preservative products.
Hence, if a person's diet consists primarily of processed foods and not a lot of fresh fruit and vegetables, he or she is more likely to fall short of meeting recommended potassium intakes, as fresh foods are high in potassium.
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The question is incomplete; the complete question is below.
If a person's diet includes a lot of processed foods and not a lot of fresh fruits or vegetables, failing to meet recommended intakes of _____ is likely.
A. Sodium
B. Chloride
C. Potassium
D. Calcium
Judy, a 28 y/o, presents to the clinic with a fever, vaginal discharge, and pain in the lower abdomen, pelvis, and lower back. These symptoms are accompanied by chills, nausea, and vomiting. This presentation is most typical of:
This presentation is most typical of pelvic inflammatory disease. Pelvic
inflammatory disease affects the reproductive organs in females such as:
UterusFallopian tubeOvaryThe symptoms include:
Chills NauseaVomitingVaginal discharge etcIt is usually caused by bacteria which causes various degree of inflammation
and can be treated with the use of antibiotics.
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Mr. C. is at the grocery store, his niece told him to buy whole grain bread. All of the following statements are true about whole grains products EXCEPT:________
A. Any flour made from the endosperm of the wheat kernel is called wheat flour.
B. Whole grain products contain germ and bran as well asendosperm.
C. Refined-grain products contain germ and bran as well as endosperm.
D. Enriched white flour refers to refined flour.
The statement given is true except "Refined-grain products contains germ and bran as well as endosperm".
It should be noted that the wheat flour is made from the endosperm of the wheat kernel. Also, the germ, bran, and endosperm are contained in the whole grain.The refined grain doesn't contain germ or bran because they're removed during the processing. It only contains the endosperm.
In conclusion, the correct option is C.
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Mrs. Mendoza, who has had type 2 diabetes for 17 years, had a below-the-knee amputation of her gangrenous left foot. Her electronic health record indicates that she has had peripheral neuropath, diabetic retinopathy with loss of visual acuity, gastroparesis, and two previous hospitalizations for hyperosmolar hyperglycemic nonketotic syndrome. The two basic components of type 2 diabetes are _________. (select all that apply)
Answer:
The correct answer is - Type 2 diabetes mellitus has major components: insulin resistance and impaired insulin secretion.
Explanation:
In type 2 diabetes there are two major components that play an important role to cause this that are Insulin resistance in which insulin could not bind with the specific receptors that result in less effective at stimulating glucose uptake.
The other major component is impaired insulin secretion in which an increased amount of insulin is required that there is not enough insulin to prevent the breakdown of fats and production of ketones.
Poisoning most commonly occurs:
In the home
On the job
In a restaurant
In public spaces, such as parks
Answer:
In the home is your answer.
9 out of 10 poisonings happen at home so be careful!
Explanation:
Answer:
in the home?
Explanation:
Canadian individual or group medical insurance plans typically cover which of the following?
Answer:
l que debemis pirfa que paso
The nurse provides dietary instructions to a client with diabetes mellitus regarding the prescribed diet. Which statement if made by the client indicates a need fir further teaching
Answer:
A nurses caring for a client after a thyroidectomy and notes that calcium gluconate is prescribed for the client. The nurse determines that this medicine has been prescribed to
treat hypoglycemic tetany.
Prescription: XYZ medication 200 mg, 5 tabs bid x 6 days. How many tablets will be dispensed from the pharmacy?
Answer:
60 tablets
Explanation:
BID means 2x a day, and it says take 5 tablets 2x a day. So, if 10 tablets are taken in one day for 6 days, then 60 tablets will need to be dispensed by the pharmacy.
