Answer:
$.00102
Explanation:
The forward peso's spot value in 3 years can be computed using the below formula:
forward exchange rate=current spot rate*(1+US inflation)^3/(1+Mexican inflation)^3
current spot rate=$.005,
US inflation rate is 6%
Mexican inflation rate is 80%
forward exchange rate=$.005,*(1+6%)^3/(1+80%)^3
forward exchange rate(in 3 years)=$0.00102
Q3) Creative Sports Design (CSD) manufactures a standard-size racket and an oversize racket. The firm’s rackets are extremely light due to the use of a magnesium-graphite alloy that was invented by the firm’s founder. Each standard-size racket uses 0.125 kilograms of the alloy and each oversize racket uses 0.4 kilograms; over the next two-week production period only 80 kilograms of the alloy are available. Each standard-size racket uses 10 minutes of manufacturing time and each oversize racket uses 12 minutes. The profit contributions are $10 for each standard-size racket and $15 for each oversize racket, and 40 hours of manufacturing time are available each week. Management specified that at least 20% of the total production must be the standard-size racket. How many rackets of each type should CSD manufacture over the next two weeks to maximize the total profit contribution? Assume that because of the unique nature of their products, CSD can sell as many rackets as they can produce.
Answer:
165 oversize rackets = 32 machine hours (79.71% of total production)
42 standard size rackets = 7 machine hours (20.29% of total production)
total profit contribution = (165 x $15) + (42 x $10) = $2,895
Explanation:
materials machine hours profit
standard size 0.125 kg 1/6 $10
oversize 0.4 kg 1/5 $15
constraints 80 kilograms of materials
40 hours of manufacturing
profit per machine hour:
standard size $10 x 6 = $60 x 40 hours = $2,400 (total possible production = 240 rackets)
oversize $15 x 5 = $75 x 40 hours = $3,000 (total possible production = 200 rackets)
profit per kilogram of alloy:
standard size $10 / 0.125 = $80 x 80 kgs = $6,400 (total possible production = 480 rackets)
oversize $15 / .4 = $37.50 x 80 hours = $3,000 (total possible production = 200 rackets)
since the most important constraint is the manufacturing hours available, the company should try to produce the products that yield the highest contribution margin per machine hour. In this case, at least 20% of total production must be standard size rackets, so the remaining 80% should be oversize rackets that yield a higher profit.
165 oversize rackets = 32 machine hours (79.71% of total production)
42 standard size rackets = 7 machine hours (20.29% of total production)
total manufacturing time = 40 hours
if we produce 166 oversize rackets and 41 standard size rackets, total manufacturing time will exceed 40 hours (40.03 hours exactly).
A negative supply shock, such as the OPEC oil price increases of the early 1970s, can be illustrated by a shift to the ______________ of the short-run aggregate supply curve and a shift _________________ of the short-run Phillips curve.
Answer: Leftward; upwards.
Explanation: A Supply shock is a term used to describe the sudden and unexpected change in the supply of a given product or commodity usually indicated by the leftward shift if the shock is negative in the aggregate supply curve and an upward change in direction in the Phillips curve both on the short run. Both curves are used to demonstrate graphically the impacts of shifts in supply for a given product or commodity.
Debra and Merina sell electronic equipment and supplies through their partnership. They wish to expand their computer lines and decide to admit Wayne to the partnership. Debra's capital is $200,000, Merina's capital is $160,000, and they share income in a ratio of 3:2, respectively.Required:Record Wayne's admission for each of the following independent situations:a. Wayne directly purchases half of Merina's investment in the partnership for $97,000.b. Wayne invests the amount needed to give him a one-third interest in the partnership's capital if no goodwill or bonus is recorded.
Answer:
a. Merina's captal is $160,000. Half would be $80,000.
Entry;
DR Merina, Capital ..................................................................$80,000
CR Wayne, Capital ....................................................................................$80,000
(To record purchase of half of Merina Capital)
b.
DR Cash......................................................................$180,000
CR Wayne, Capital.........................................................................$180,000
(To record Wayne investment)
Working
The current Capital amount is;
= 200,000 +160,000
= $360,000
If Wayne joins and adds to this such that he owns 1/3 then;
2/3x = 360,000
x = 360,000/2/3
x = $540,000
Wayne's share would be;
= 1/3 * 540,000
= $180,000
The journal entries that would take place will take effect as A- A debit in Merina's capital amount and Cash account as $17000 and a credit effect in Wayne's capital account. The amount of debit and credit will be $97000.
And for B- There will be Debit in Cash account effecting a credit in The Wayne's capital account. The amount effecting the debit and credit side will be $180,000.
The journal entries are added in the images attached to the answer. The entries would take place in the journal entries on the respective date of their occurrence.( Image attached below).When Wayne is introduced as partner for one third share the calculation of the amount of his capital would be shown as considering the capital as x. The capital by existing partners is $360000. (Image below).,[tex]\dfrac{2}{3}x\ = 360000[/tex]
[tex]x= \dfrac {360000}{\dfrac{2}{3}}[/tex]
Now the value of x will be calculated as
[tex]x= \dfrac{540000}{3}[/tex]
[tex]x=180000[/tex]
Therefore Wayne's capital will be calculated as $180,000, so he will be required to bring in additional $180,000 capital in the firm for getting one third share in the profits and losses of the company.Hence, the correct statements for A will be that Wayne pays $97000 which will be divided in Merina's capital and cash accounts in the proportion of $80000 and $17000 respectively.
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ROI, Residual Income, and EVA with Different Bases Envision Company has a target return on capital of 12 percent. The following financial information is available for October ($ thousands):
Software Division . Consulting Division Venture Capital Division
(Value Base) (Value Base) (Value Base)
Book Current Book Current Book Current
Sales $100,000 $100,000 $200,000 $200,000 $800,000 $800,000
Income 12,250 11,700 16,400 20,020 56,730 51,920
Assets 70,000 90,000 100,000 110,000 610,000 590,000
Liabilities 10,000 10,000 14,000 14,000 40,000 40,000
Required
a. Compute the return on investment using both book and current values for each division. Round answers to three decimal places.
Book Value Current Value
Software Answer ? Answer ?
Consulting Answer ? Answer ?
Venture Capital Answer ? Answer ?
b. Compute the residual income for both book and current values for each division. Use negative signs with answers, when appropriate.
Book Value Current Value
Software $Answer 3,850 $Answer 900
Consulting Answer 4,400 . Answer 6,820
Venture Capital Answer (16,470) Answer (1,880)
c. Compute the economic value added income for both book and current values for each division if the tax rate is 30 percent and the weighted average cost of capital is 10 percent. Use negative signs with answers, when appropriate. Book Value Current Value
Software $Answer ? $Answer ?
Consulting Answer ? Answer ?
Venture Capital Answer ? Answer ?
Answer:
a. ROI = income / Assets
Book Value Current Value
Software Division 0.175 0.13
Consulting Division 0.164 0.182
Venture Capital Division 0.093 0.088
Workings:
i. Book value
Software Division = 12,250/70,000=0.175
Consulting Division = 16,400/100,000=0.164
Venture Capital Division = 56,730/610,000 =0.093
ii. Current value
Software Division = 11,700/90,000=0.13
Consulting Division = 20,020/110,000=0.182
Venture Capital Division= 51,920/ 590,000=0.088
b. Residual income = Income - {Asset x Return on capital 12% }
Book Value Current Value
Software Division 3850 900
Consulting Division 4400 6820
Venture Capital Division -16470 -18880
Workings:
i. Book value
Software Division = 12,250-(70,000*12%)=3850
Consulting Division = 16,400-(100,000*12%)=4400
Venture Capital Division = 56,730-(610,000*12%) =-16470
ii. Current value
Software Division = 11,700-(90,000*12%)=900
Consulting Division = 20,020-(110,000*12%)=6820
Venture Capital Division= 51,920-(590,000*12%)=-18880
c. Economic Value Added ( EVA ) = Net Income After Tax - ( Amount of Capital x Weighted Average Cost of Capital [WACC] )
C. Software Division
(Value Base)
Book Current
Sales 100,000 100,000
Income 12,250 11,700
Assets 70,000 90,000
Liabilities 10,000 10,000
Capital invested 60,000 80,000
(Asset - Liabilities)
Tax on Income(30%) 3675 3510
Income after Tax 8,575 8,190
(Income - Tax on
income) (A)
Capital invested 6,000 8,000
* WACC - 10% ) (B)
EVA (C)=(A)-(B) 2,575 190
Consulting Division
(Value Base)
Book Current
Sales 200,000 200,000
Income 16,400 20,020
Assets 100,000 110,000
Liabilities 14,000 14,000
Capital invested 86,000 96,000
(Asset - Liabilities)
Tax on Income(30%) 4920 6006
Income after Tax 11,480 14,014
(Income - Tax on
income) (A)
Capital invested 8,600 9,600
* WACC - 10% ) (B)
EVA (C)=(A)-(B) 2,880 4,414
Venture Capital Division
(Value Base)
Book Current
Sales 800,000 800,000
Income 56,730 51,920
Assets 610,000 590,000
Liabilities 40,000 40,000
Capital invested 570,000 550,000
(Asset - Liabilities)
Tax on Income(30%) 17019 15576
Income after Tax 39,711 36,344
(Income - Tax on
income) (A)
Capital invested 57,000 55,000
* WACC - 10% ) (B)
EVA (C)=(A)-(B) -17,289 -18,656
dazzle, inc. produces beads for jewelry making use the journal entry to record production activities for direct labor usage is
Answer:
Debit Work in Process Inventory $180,000; credit Factory Wages Payable $180,000.
Explanation:
The journal entry to record the direct labor usage is shown belwo:
Work in process inventory Dr
To factory wages payable
(Being the direct labor usage is recorded)
For recording this we debited the work in process as it increased the assets and credited the factory wages payable as it also increased the liabilities
Moreover, when the wages is applied in the production level so the respective account is debited and credited
A customer who has routinely traded securities through your firm has placed an order to buy a security that is only listed on the Malaysian Stock Exchange. To effect the transaction, your firm must use a correspondent broker-dealer located in Malaysia that charges large special handling fees to cover Malaysian securities transfer taxes. Which statement is TRUE
Answer:
the broker-dealer must notify the customer of the additional charges prior to executing the transaction
Explanation:
In such a scenario, the statement that would be completely true is that the broker-dealer must notify the customer of the additional charges prior to executing the transaction. Since the broker is acting on behalf of the customer, then the customer needs to be notified beforehand in order for him/her to be able to analyze and decide whether or not they still want to go ahead with the transaction.
A company sold equipment that originally cost $290,000 for $145,000 cash. The accumulated depreciation on the equipment was $145,000. The company should recognize a:
Answer:
$0 gain/loss
Explanation:
A company sold an equipment that originally cost $290,000 for $145,000
The accumulated depreciation on the equipment was $145,000
The first step is to calculate the book value of the equipment
Book value of the equipment= Cost of equipment-accumulated depreciation
= $290,000-$145,000
= $145,000
Therefore, the gain/loss on the equipment can be calculated as follows
= Selling price-book value
= $145,000-$145,000
= 0
Hence there is no recognized gain or loss on the equipment
Answer:
Company would recognize a no loss or gain on the disposal i.e Nil
Explanation:
The gain or loss on disposal is the difference between the carrying value of an assets at the point of disposal and the the disposal value.
Gains/(Loss)= Disposal value - carrying value
The carrying value is the difference between the historical cost and the accumulated depreciation till date.
Carrying value = Historical cost - Accumulated depreciation till date
Carrying value = 290,000 - 145,000 = 145 ,000
Gains/Loss= 145,000 - 145,000 = 0.
Company would recognize a no loss or gain on the disposal i.e Nil
Blossom, Inc., manufactures golf clubs in three models. For the year, the Big Bart line has a net loss of $4,700 from sales $201,000, variable costs $175,000, and fixed costs $30,700. If the Big Bart line is eliminated, $19,800 of fixed costs will remain. Prepare an analysis showing whether the Big Bart line should be eliminated. (Enter negative amounts using either a negative sign preceding the number e.g. -45 or parentheses e.g. (45).) g
Answer:
Analysis of the Big Bart line discontinuity
Opportunity Costs :
Sales ($201,000)
Savings :
Variable Costs $175,000
Fixed Costs ($30,700 - $19,800) $10,900
Financial Advantage / (Disadvantage) ($15,100)
Conclusion :
Do not eliminate / discontinue Big Bart line.
Explanation:
The results show that closing Big Bart line results in a contribution towards fixed cost being lost to the amount of $15,100. Therefore leaving the entire company in a worse off position.
Which of the following stocks is less risky? Stock Average Return Standard Deviation Coefficient of Variation X 10% 40% 4 Y 20% 40% 2
Answer:
Stock X has a CV of 4 while Stock Y has a CV of 2. As stock Y has a lower CV than Stock X, it is less riskier.
Explanation:
The coefficient of variation is a statistical model which is also used to determine the volatility per unit of a factor. In terms of a stock, the coefficient of variation calculates the volatility of its return. It is calculated by dividing the stock's standard deviation, which is a measure of risk, by the stock's mean return or expected return.
CV = SD / r
Where,
CV is coefficient of variationSD is standard deviationr is expected returnThe CV of a stock tells us the risk per unit of return. The higher the CV, the riskier the stock and vice versa.
Stock X has a CV of 4 while Stock Y has a CV of 2. As stock Y has a lower CV than Stock X, it is less riskier.
Caribou Gold Mining Corporation is expected to pay a dividend of $6 in the upcoming year. Dividends are expected to decline at the rate of 3% per year. The risk-free rate of return is 5%, and the expected return on the market portfolio is 13%. The stock of Caribou Gold Mining Corporation has a beta of .5. Using the constant-growth DDM, the value of the stock is _________. A. $150 B. $50 C. $100 D. $200
The question is incomplete. Here is the complete question.
Caribou Gold Mining Corporation is expected to pay a dividend of $6 in the upcoming year. Dividends are expected to decline at the rate of 3% per year. The risk-free rate of return is 5%, and the expected return on the market portfolio is 13%. The stock of Caribou Gold Mining Corporation has a beta of .5. Using the constant-growth DDM, the intrinsic value of the stock is _________. A. $150 B. $50 C. $100 D. $200
Answer:
$50
Explanation:
Caribou Gold mining corporation is expected to make a dividend payment of $6 next year
Dividend are expected to decline at a rate of 3%
= 3/100
= 0.03
The risk free rate of return is 5%
= 5/100
= 0.05
The expected return on the market portfolio is 13%
= 13/100
= 0.13
The beta is 0.5
The first step is to calculate the expected rate of return
= 0.05+0.5(0.13-0.05)
= 0.05+0.5(0.08)
= 0.05+0.04
= 0.09
Therefore, the intrinsic value of the stock using the constant growth DDM model can be calculated as follows
Vo= 6/(0.09+0.03)
Vo= 6/0.12
Vo= $50
Hence the intrinsic value of the stock is $50
All About Animals has two product lines: Cat food and Dog food. Contribution margin income statement data for the most recent year follow:
Total Cat Food Dog Food
Sales revenue $435,000 $350,000 $85,000
Variable expenses $61,000 $21,000 $40,000
Contribution margin $374,000 $329,000 $45,000
Fixed expenses $101.000 $49,000 $52,000
Operating income (loss) $273,000 $280,000 $(7,000)
Assuming the Dog food is discontinued, total fixed costs remain unchanged, and the space formerly used to produce the line is rented for $26,000 per year, how will operating income be affected?
A. Increase $254,000
B. Decrease $19,000
C. Increase $527,000
D. Increase $19,000
Answer:
B. Decrease $19,000
Explanation:
The computation of the amount affect the operating income is shown below
But before that first we need to find the new operating income
Total operating income for Cat Food $280,000
Less: Fixed costs for Dog Food ($52000)
Add: rented per year $26000
New net operating income $254000
Now decrease in net operating income is
= operating income - new operating income
= $273,000 - $254,000
= $19,000
Vaughn Manufacturing is constructing a building. Construction began in 2020 and the building was completed 12/31/20. Vaughn made payments to the construction company of $3114000 on 7/1, $6456000 on 9/1, and $5950000 on 12/31. Weighted-average accumulated expenditures were
Answer:
$3,709,000
Explanation:
7/1 Time weighted amount = $3,114,000 * 6/12 = $1,557,000
9/1 Time weighted amount = $6,456,000 * 4/12 = $2,152,000
12/31 Time weighted amount = $5,950,000 * 0/12 = $0
Weighted-average accumulated expenditures = 7/1 Time weighted amount + 9/1 Time weighted amount + 12/31 Time weighted amount
Weighted-average accumulated expenditures = $1,557,000 + $2,152,000 + 0
Weighted-average accumulated expenditures = $3,709,000
Geese Company utilizes the LIFO retail inventory method. Its cost-to-retail percentage is 60% based on beginning inventory and 64% based on current-period purchases. The company determined that beginning inventory at retail was $200,000 and that during the current period a new layer was added with retail value of $50,000. The cost of ending inventory should be
Answer:
$152,000
Explanation:
Calculation for the cost of the ending inventory
First step is to calculate the cost-to-retail percentage of the beginning inventory amount
Using this formula
Beginning Inventory =Cost-to-retail percentage*Beginning inventory at retail
Let plug in the formula
Beginning Inventory =60%*$200,000
Beginning Inventory =$120,000
Second step is to calculate current-period purchases percentage of the new layer amount
Using this formula
Current period purchases= Purchases percentage* New layer
Let plug in the formula
Current period purchases=64%*50,000
Current period purchases=$32,000
The last step is to find the cost of the ending inventory using this formula
Ending inventory cost=Beginning Inventory+Current period purchases
Let plug in the formula
Ending inventory cost=$120,000+$32,000
Ending inventory cost=$152,000
Therefore the cost of the ending inventory will be $152,000
Which of the following methods is appropriate for a business whose inventory consists of a relatively small number of unique, high-cost items?
a. FIFO
b. average
c. LIFO
d. specific identification
Answer: Specific identification
Hope it is correct
Consider the following information and then calculate the required rate of return for the Global Investment Fund, which holds 4 stocks. The market’s required rate of return is 13.25%, the risk-free rate is 7.00%, and the Fund’s assets are as follows:(hint: market beta =1.0) Stock Investment Beta A $ 200,000 1.50 B 300,000 −0.50 C 500,000 1.25 D $1,000,000 0.75
Answer:
11.77%
Explanation:
total investment = $200,000 + $300,000 + $500,000 + $1,000,000 = $2,000,000
stock weight beta total
A $200,000 / $2,000,000 1.5 0.15
B $300,000 / $2,000,000 -0.5 -0.075
C $500,000 / $2,000,000 1.25 0.3125
D $1,000,000 / $2,000,000 0.75 0.375
Portfolio 0.7625
required rate of return = Rf + beta(Rm - Rf) = 7% + 0.7625(13.25% - 7%) = 11.7656% = 11.77%
The credit terms 2/10, n/30 are interpreted as: Multiple Choice 2% cash discount if the amount is paid within 10 days, or the balance due in 30 days. 30% discount if paid within 2 days. 2% discount if paid within 30 days. 30% discount if paid within 10 days. 10% cash discount if the amount is paid within 2 days, or the balance due in 30 days.
Answer:
The credit terms 2/10, n/30 are interpreted as:
2% cash discount if the amount is paid within 10 days, or the balance due in 30 days.Explanation:
I will explain using an example:
On January 2, the company sells $1,000 worth of goods with credit terms 2/10, n/30.
January 2
Dr Accounts receivable 1,000
Cr Sales revenue
If the client pays within the discount period:
January 11
Dr Cash 980
Dr Sales discounts 20
Cr Accounts receivable 1,000
If the client pays after the discount period but before 30 days:
January 31
Dr Cash 1,000
Cr Accounts receivable 1,000
The credit terms 2/10, and n/30 are interpreted as a 2% cash discount if the amount is paid within 10 days, or the balance is due in 30 days. Thus, option A is the correct option.
Trade credits like 2/10 net 30 are frequently provided by suppliers to purchasers. It stands for an agreement that if payment is made within 10 days, the buyer would get a 2% reduction on the net invoice amount. Otherwise, you have 30 days to pay the entire invoice amount.
It's a common way to express an early payment discount. In accounting, the discount amount and the window of availability are typically represented using a formula like 2/10, n/30. This implies that if the invoice is paid in full within ten days, a 2% reduction is applied; otherwise, the full amount is owed.
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Bank's Balance Sheet Assets Liabilities and Owners' Equity $1,600 $250 Securities $1,000 Capital (owners' equity) $150 Reserves$200 Deposits Loans $800 Debt Suppose the owners of the bank borrow $100 to supplement their existing reserves.
This would increase the reserves account and ______ the ______ account.
This would also bring the leverage ratio from its initial value of __________ to a new value of_______
Which of the following is true of the capital requirement?
a. The higher the percentage of assets a bank holds as loans, the higher the capital requirement.
b. A minimum leverage ratio for all banks.
c. Its intended goal is to protect the interests of those who hold equity in the bank.
Answer:
1. This would increase the reserves account and increase the debt account.
Borrowing refers to debt and so it will increase the debt account.
2. This would also bring the leverage ratio from its initial value of 13.33 to a new value of 14.
The bank leverage ratio refers to its Assets divided by Capital (Owners equity).
Before the $100 was borrowed, the leverage ratio was;
= (Reserves + loans + securities)/Capital
= ( 200 + 800 + 1,000) / 150
= 13.33
After the $100 was borrowed
= ( 200 + 800 + 1,000 + 100) /150
= 14.
3. a. The higher the percentage of assets a bank holds as loans, the higher the capital requirement.
The capital requirement is meant to protect depositors in case the loans are defaulted on as the loans are created from the funds depositors bring in. Should the loans be defaulted on, they will be paid from the capital therefore if the bank holds more loans, it will have to hold more capital to ensure it can cover those loans.
Using the following data on bond yields: This Year Last Year Yield on top-rated corporate bonds 4 % 7 % Yield on intermediate-grade corporate bonds 6 % 9 % a. Calculate the confidence index this year and last year.
Answer:
0.6667 ; 0.7778
Explanation:
Given the following :
- - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - this year - - - - last year
Top rated bond - - - - - 4% - - - - - - - - - 7%
Intermediate grade - - 6% - - - - - - - - - 9%
Confidence Index (This year) :
(Yield on top rated corporate bond / yield on intermediate grade corporate bond)
= 4% / 6% = 0.6667
Confidence index(last year) :
(Yield on top rated corporate bond / yield on intermediate grade corporate bond)
= 7% / 9% = 0.7778
Abica Roast Coffee Company produces Columbian coffee in batches of 6,000 pounds. The
standard quantity of materials required in the process is 6,000 pounds, which cost $5.00per pound. Columbian coffee can be sold without further processing for $8.40 per pound.
Columbian coffee can also be processed further to yield Decaf Columbian, which can
be sold for $10.00 per pound. The processing into Decaf Columbian requires additional
processing costs of $9,450 per batch. The additional processing will also cause a 5% loss
of product due to evaporation.
Columbian coffee can be sold without further processing for $8.40 per pound.
Columbian coffee can also be processed further to yield Decaf Columbian, which can
be sold for $10.00 per pound. The processing into Decaf Columbian requires additional
processing costs of $9,450 per batch. The additional processing will also cause a 5% loss
of product due to evaporation.
a. Prepare a differential analysis dated August 28, 2012, on whether to sell regular
Columbian (Alternative 1) or process further into Decaf Columbian (Alternative 2).
b. Should Abica Roast sell Columbian coffee or process further and sell Decaf
Columbian?
c. Determine the price of Decaf Columbian that would cause neither an advantage or
disadvantage for processing further and selling Decaf Columbian.
Answer:
A)
no further further differential
processing processing amount
price per pound $8.40 $10.00 $1.60
materials $5 $5.25 ($0.25)
processing costs $0 = $9,450 / ($1.66)
5,700 = $1.66
operating profit per $3.40 $3.09 ($0.31)
pound
B)
The company should sell coffee without any further processing, just sell it as normal Colombian coffee.
C)
In order to eliminate the financial disadvantage of processing further the decaf coffee, the the price should be $10 + $0.31 = $10.31 per pound.
Gen-Fast Shoes wants to expand internationally and is deciding if its line of tennis shoes can be sold at a high price in Europe. One way for Gen-Fast Shoes to assess this is to determine whether these types of shoes in the foreign market offer customers greater.
a. cost.
b. exports.
c. value.
d. competition.
e. production.
Answer: value
Explanation:
From the question, we are informed that Gen-Fast Shoes wants to expand internationally and is deciding if its line of tennis shoes can be sold at a high price in Europe.
One way for Gen-Fast Shoes to assess this is to determine whether these types of shoes in the foreign market offer customers greater value.
Value simply means the worth of something. When people realize that the tennis shoes are worth it, it'll command a high value.
Find the operating cash flow for the year for Harper Brothers, Inc. if it had sales revenue of , cost of goods sold of , sales and administrative costs of , depreciation expense of , and a tax rate of .
Answer:
$101,960,000
Explanation:
For the computation of operating cash flow first we need to follow some steps which are shown below:-
Step 1
EBIT = Sales - Cost of goods sold - Sales and administrative costs - Depreciation
= $302,100,000 - $135,900,000 - $39,600,000 - $65,000,000
= $61,600,000
Step 2
Net income = EBIT - Tax
= $61,600,000 - ($61,600,000 × 40%)
= $61,600,000 - $24,640,000
= $36,960,000
and finally
Operating cash flow = EBIT - Taxes + Depreciation
= $61,600,000 - $24,640,000 + $65,000,000
= $101,960,000
Brodrick Company expects to produce 21,200 units for the year ending December 31. A flexible budget for 21,200 units of production reflects sales of $508,800; variable costs of $63,600; and fixed costs of $142,000. Assume that actual sales for the year are $587,200 (26,300 units), actual variable costs for the year are $113,900, and actual fixed costs for the year are $137,000. Prepare a flexible budget performance report for the year.
Answer:
Flexible budget performance report for the year
Flexible budget Actual Variance Fav/Unf
Sales 631,200 587,200 44,000 UNF
Variable cost (78,900) (113,900) 35,000 F
Contribution 416,000 368,000 48,000 UNF
margin
Fixed cost (142,000) (137,000) 5000 UNF
Net operating 274,000 231,000 43,000 UNF
income
Working:
a. At flexible budget, selling price per unit = $508,800 / 21,200 = $24 per unit . Total sales =26,300 *24 = $631,200
b. Variable cost per unit = $63,600 / 21,200 = $3 per unit . Total cost = 3 * 26,300 = 78,900
The two main types of e-commerce are
Answer:
B2B (Business to business) and B2C (Business to consumer)
Assume you have a margin account with a 50% initial margin. You purchase 100 shares of stock at $80 per share. The price increases to $100 per share. What is the net value of your investment (margin) now
Answer:
Net value of the investment (margin) is $6,000
Explanation:
The initial margin = (100 shares * $80) * 50%
The initial margin = $4,000
Increase in the Margin value = 100 shares* ($100-$80)
Increase in the Margin value = 100 shares * $20
Increase in the Margin value =$2,000
Net value of the investment (margin) = $4,000 + $2,000
Net value of the investment (margin) = $6,000
"Your customer has been declared legally incompetent and his daughter has presented the proper legal papers appointing her as the guardian. Which statement is TRUE?"
Answer: B. Trading instructions can be accepted only from the daughter
Explanation:
The customer has been declared legally incompetent which means that he should not be making decisions that have to do with something as serious as trading instructions as he will not be able to comprehend them.
The only person that should therefore take over such roles would be his daughter who is a legal guardian. As she is not his guardian, she is able to take such decisions for him and so the trading instructions should be accepted only from the daughter.
An all-equity firm is considering the following projects:
Project Beta IRR
W .85 8.9%
X .92 10.8
Y 1.09 12.8
Z 1.35 13.3
The T-bill rate is 4 percent, and the expected return on the market is 11 percent.
a. Which projects have a higher expected return than the firm's 11 percent cost of capital?
b. Which projects should be accepted?
c. Which projects would be incorrectly accepted or rejected if the firm's overall cost of capital were used as a hurdle rate?
Answer:
Projects Y and Z
b. Projects W and Z
c. Projects W and Y
Explanation:
CAPM equation : Expected return = Risk free rate + Beta x (Expected market return - Risk free rate)
W = 4% + [0.85 x (11% - 4%)] = 9.95%
X = 4% + (0.92 x 7%) = 10.44%
Y = 4% + (1.09 x 7%) = 11.63%
Z = 4% + (1.35 x 7%) = 13.45%
Projects Y and Z have an expected return greater than 11%
b. Projects W and Z should be accepted because its expected return is higher than the IRR
c. Project W would be incorrectly rejected because the expected rate of return is less than the overall cost of capital (i.e. 9.95 is less than 11). But its expected rate of return is greater than the IRR
Y would be incorrectly accepted because its expected rate of return is greater than the overall cost of capital but its expected rate of return is less than the IRR
A portfolio to the right of the market portfolio on the CML is: Group of answer choices a lending portfolio. an inefficient portfolio. a borrowing portfolio.
Answer:
a borrowing portfolio.
Explanation:
A borrowing portfolio is a portfolio to the right of the market portfolio. It is on the right half of the line. It shows that an investor can purchase the market portfolio and still borrow money so as to purchase more.
CML is known as the the capital market line. It shows the most advantageous portfolios that are a combination of risk and return.
Answer:
a borrowing portfolio.
Explanation:
A borrowing portfolio is a portfolio to the right of the market portfolio. It is on the right half of the line. It shows that an investor can purchase the market portfolio and still borrow money so as to purchase more.
CML is known as the the capital market line. It shows the most advantageous portfolios that are a combination of risk and return.
Explanation:
Emira wants to buy a classic drawing from an art centre in Kuala Lumpur. She managed to secure a painting by a renowned Malaysian artist that costs her RM99,800. Currently, she only has RM12,650 in her savings account and she intends to use 70% of her saving to fund the purchase. If she borrows the remaining amount from Bank Atlantis that levies 4.77% of interest rates, determine the total interest payment that she will pay if the agreement takes 10 years of settlement.
Answer:
RM23,617.80
Explanation:
cost of the painting RM99,800
she has RM12,650 on her bank account and she will use 70% = RM8,855 as down payment. She will borrow the rest = RM99,800 - RM8,855 = RM90,945
interest charged on the loan 4.77% / 12 = 0.3975%
120 monthly periods (10 years)
using the present value formula to determine the monthly payment:
PV = monthly payment x annuity factor
monthly payment = PV / annuity factor
PV = 90,945
annuity factor (120 periods, 0.3975%) = 95.26168
monthly payment = 90,945 / 95.26168 = 954.69
total payments = 120 x 954.69 = RM114,562.80
interests paid = RM114,562.80 - RM90,945 = RM23,617.80
Burke's Corner currently sells blue jeans and T-shirts. Management is considering adding fleece tops to its inventory to provide a cooler weather option. The tops would sell for $53 each with expected sales of 4,300 tops annually. By adding the fleece tops, management feels the firm will sell an additional 285 pairs of jeans at $65 a pair and 420 fewer T-shirts at $26 each. The variable cost per unit is $36 on the jeans, $16 on the T-shirts, and $31 on the fleece tops. With the new item, the depreciation expense is $33,000 a year and the fixed costs are $76,000 annually. The tax rate is 35 percent. What is the project's operating cash flow?
Answer: $26,282.25
Explanation:
The operating cash-flow will be the amount of cash the company got from sales less the amount they would have to pay on taxes.
Cash from tops
= (Sales price - Variable costs) * quantity
= ( 53 - 31) * 4,300
= $94,600
Cash from jeans
= ( 65 - 36) * 285
= $8,265
Cash from jeans
= (26 - 16) * -420
= -$4,200
As this deals with cash, a tax adjusted depreciation will need to be added back because it is a non cash expense and fixed costs will have to be deducted.
Pre-tax operating cash-flow = 94,600 + 8,265 - 4,200 - 76,000
= $22,665
Post-tax Project Operating cash-flow
= $22,665 * ( 1 - 0.35) + (depreciation * tax)
= $22,665 * ( 1 - 0.35) + (33,000 * 0.35)
= $14,732.25 + 11,550
= $26,282.25
The following data relate to the direct materials cost for the production of 50,000 automobile tires: Actual: 725,000 lbs. at $3.00 per lb. Standard: 730,000 lbs. at $2.95 per lb. a. Determine the direct materials price variance, direct materials quantity variance, and total direct materials cost variance. Enter a favorable variance as a negative number using a minus sign and an unfavorable variance as a positive number.
Answer and Explanation:
a. The computation of the material price variance is shown below:
= Actual Quantity × (Standard Price - Actual Price)
= 725,000 × ($2.95- $3)
= 725,000 × $0.5
= $36,250 unfavorable
b. The computation of the material quantity variance is shown below:
= Standard Price × (Standard Quantity - Actual Quantity)
= $2.95 × (730,000 - 725,000)
= $2.95 × 5,000
= $14,750 favorable
And, the total direct material cost variance is
= Material price variance + material cost variance
= $36,250 unfavorable + 14,750 favorable
= $21,500 unfavorable
