Shalom, Guys! The Question is in the image down below! Love, Piper Rockelle

Answer:

Yes

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

y < -4

Step-by-step explanation:

-5y+6>26

subtract 6 from each side

-5y+6-6>26-6

-5y > 20

Divide each side by -5. remembering to flip the inequality

-5y/-5 < 20/-5

y < -4

Answer:

c=13.42

Step-by-step explanation:

[tex]A^2+B^2=C^2\\6^2+14^2=C^2\\C^2=144+36\\C^2=180\\\sqrt{c^2}=\sqrt{180} \\c=13.42[/tex]

Answer:

50%

Step-by-step explanation:

its 50% it will land on head and 50% it will land on tails since there is only two sides on a coin

Answer:

1/2 or .5

p(1/2)

Step-by-step explanation:

its simple, there are 2 sides to a coin, so there are 2 possible outcomes. and the question asks what is the probability of the coin landing on one or in other wrds, its asking what is te probilitity of one of the two heads to be up. SO the probility is 1/2

Answer:

the result is 4.5 minutes.

- Erica runs 1/6 km in a minute.

- The school is 3/1 km away from her home.

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

99

Step-by-step explanation:

x = 90 x 10/100 + 90

=> x = 900/100 + 90

=> x = 9 + 90

=> x = 99

Answer:

18 : 30

Step-by-step explanation:

Our ratio could look like this:

Number of games won : Number of games played

6 : 10

=> .6 : 1

Let's check whether the 1st option is correct.

=>  18 : 20

=> 1 x 20 = 20

=> .6 x 20 = 12

=> 12 : 20 is not equal to 18 : 20

The second option is 100% incorrect because the number of games won is greater than the number of games played.

let's check whether the 3rd option is correct.

=> 18 : 30

=> 1 x 30 = 30

=> .6 x 30 = 18

18 : 30 = 18: 30

So, the 3rd option is correct.

Answer:

18:30

Step-by-step explanation:

The ratio of games is 6 won out of 10 games

The ratio at the bottom that is 6:10 is

18:30

Divide each side by 3

18/3 : 30/3

6:10

The point shown on g(x) is (1,3)

If x = 1 and y = 3, this means x is multiplied by 3 ( 1 x 3 = 3)

This makes g(x) 3x^2

The answer is A.

Answer:

10.9

Step-by-step Explanation:

The Mean Absolute Deviation of a given data set tells us how far apart, on average, each data value is to the mean of the data set.

The smaller the Mean Absolute Deviation of a given data set is, the closer each data value is to the mean. This also implies less variability of the data set.

Invariably, the smaller the M.A.D, which connotes less variability, the more consistent the data set is.

Therefore, a M.A.D of 10.9 represents more consistency than a M.A.D of 15.2

Answer:

10

Step-by-step explanation:

(-1 - 3i)(-1 + 3i) = 1 - 3i + 3i -9i²

1 - 9i²; i² = -1, therefore 1 - 9(-1) = 1 + 9 = 10

Answer:

x =  2 units

Step-by-step explanation:

Diagonals of rectangle are congruent and bisect each other

Therefore, OB = OA

   5x + 4 =  3x + 8

    5x = 3x + 8 -4

    5x = 3x + 4

5x - 3x = 4

      2x =  4

      x = 4/2

      x =2

[tex](x+3)(x+1)(x-2)=\\(x^2+x+3x+3)(x-2)=\\(x^2+4x+3)(x-2)=\\x^3-2x^2+4x^2-8x+3x-6=\\x^3+2x^2-5x-6[/tex]

Answer:

well just do area, and since it's the same in each side 12×4= 144

Answer:

38.5 miles

Step-by-step explanation:

Proportions:

4 inches ⇔ 10 miles

15.4 inches ⇔ M miles

M = 15.4*10/4

M = 38.5 miles

Answer:  38.5    

Step-by-step explanation: cuz im smart

Answer:

To make only 12% profit, the discount should be increased to 16%

Step-by-step explanation:

The given information are;

The percentage discount on goods = 10%

The profit made from the sale of the watch = 20%

The amount the watch was sold = Rs.10,710

The percentage VAT included = 13%

Let the recommended selling price of the watch = X

Therefore, we have;

The price after 10% discount = 0.9×X

Which gives;

The amount the watch was sold = Price after 10% discount + Price after 10% discount ×VAT

The amount the watch was sold = 0.9×X + 0.9×X×13% = 0.9×X + 0.9×X×0.13

Rs.10,710 = 0.9×X + 0.9×X×0.13 = 1.017×X

X = Rs.10,170/1.017 = Rs. 10,000

The recommended selling price of the watch = Rs. 10,000

The profit was 20% of selling price which gives;

Profit = Selling price - Cost price = Rs. 9,000  - Rs. X = 0.2 × Rs. X

9000 - X = 0.2×X

9000 = X + 0.2×X  = 1.2×X

X = 9000/1.2 = Rs. 7,500

To make only 12% profit, we have;

12% of Rs. 7,500 = 0.12 × Rs.7,500 = Rs. 900

Selling price = Cost price + Profit = Rs. 7,500 + Rs. 900 = Rs. 8,400

Percentage discount from Rs.10,000 to get Rs. 8,400 is given as follows;

Percentage discount = Y%

Therefore;

Y = (10,000 - 8,400)/10000 × 100 = 0.16 × 100 = 16%

Y = 16%

Therefore, to make only 12% profit, the discount should be increased to 16%.

[tex](f+g)(f)=f(x)+g(x)\\\\\\f(x)=\dfrac{x}{2}-2\\g(x)=2x^2+x-3\\\\(f+g)(x)=\dfrac{x}{2}-2+2x^2+x-3\\(f+g)(x)=2x^2+\dfrac{x}{2}+\dfrac{2x}{2}-5\\(f+g)(x)=2x^2+\dfrac{3x}{2}-5\\(f+g)(x)=2x^2+\dfrac{3}{2}x-5[/tex]

Answer:

17 quarters

Step-by-step explanation:

Let q = quarters

n = nickels

.25q + .05n = 5.90

we have 16 more nickels than quarters so add 16 quarters to make them equal

n = q+16

Substitute

.25q + .05( q+16) = 5.90

Distribute

.25q+.5q+.80=5.90

Combine like terms

.30q +.8 = 5.90

Subtract .8 from each side

.30q = 5.10

Divide each side by .3

.3q/.3 = 5.1/.3

q = 17

Answer:

Gisel have:

17

quarters

Step-by-step explanation:

1 nickel = 5 cents

1 quarter = 25 cents

1 dollar = 100 cents

5,90 dollars = 5,9*100 = 590 cents

then:

n = t + 16

5n + 25t = 590

n = quantity of nickels

t = quantity of quarters

5(t+16) + 25t = 590

5*t + 5*16 + 25t = 590

5t + 80 + 25t = 590

30 t = 590 - 80

30 t = 510

t = 510 / 30

t = 17

n = t + 16

n = 17 + 16

n = 33

Check:

5n + 25t = 590

5*33 + 25*17 = 590

165 + 425 = 590

Answer:

1.015

Step-by-step explanation:

just find their average, which is adding them up and dividing by 2

(1.01 + 1.02)/2 = 1.015

The decimal number exactly halfway between 1.01 and 1.02 is 1.015.

A decimal numeral system is the standard system for denoting integer and non-integer numbers. The way of denoting numbers in the decimal system is often referred to as decimal notation.

The given numbers are,

1.01 and 1.02

Now to find the halfway between the number we need to find their sum first and then the half of the sum.

So, the sum of number,

1.01 + 1.02 = 1.03

Now for half way divide the sum by 2

1.03/2 = 1.015

Hence, The decimal number exactly halfway between 1.01 and 1.02 is 1.015.

More about decimal :

https://brainly.com/question/825223

#SPJ2

Answer:

[tex] x = \sqrt {40}[/tex]

Step-by-step explanation:

Given is an isosceles triangle, dotted line is the bisector of top angle which is also perpendicular bisector of the base of the triangle. Hence, by Pythagoras theorem:

[tex] {x}^{2} = {6}^{2} + ({ \frac{4}{2} })^{2} \\ = 36 + 4 \\ = 40 \\ \therefore \: x = \sqrt{40} \\ [/tex]

Answer:

D. x = sqrt(52).

Step-by-step explanation:

Since the line measuring 6 units bisects the top angle, there are two right angles. We can use the Pythagorean Theorem to solve for x.

a^2 + b^2 = x^2

4^2 + 6^2 = x^2

16 + 36 = x^2

52 = x^2

x = sqrt(52)

x = sqrt(2 * 2 * 13)

x = 2sqrt(13)

x = 7.211102551.

Hope this helps!

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

Given the length of the base of a square based pyramid as 12 units and the vertical height of the pyramid to be 15units, the height of one of its triangular faces can be gotten by using the pythagoras theorem.

Let the height of one of the triangular sides be s (it is also the slant height of the pyramid)

The vertical height of the pyramid to be h = 15units

The base of the right angled trangle will be half of the length of the base = 12/2 r  = 6 units

According to the pythagoras theorem; s² = h² + r²

Substituting the given values into the formula we will have;

s² = 15² + 6²

s² = 225 + 36

s = 261

s = 16.16 units

s ≈ 16units (to the nearest tenth)

Hence the length of the height of one of the triangular faces is 16units

Answer:

16.2 units

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

36=2×2×3×3

factors of 36 are 2,3,4,6,9,12,18,36

when N+2=2,N=0 (0 is neither positive nor negative.)

N+2=3,N=3-2=1

N+2=4,N=4-2=2

N+2=6,N+6-2=4

N+2=9,N=9-2=7

N+2=12

N=12-2=10

N+2=18,N=18-2=16

N+2=36,N=36-2=34

so for 7 positive integer values of N,36/(N+2)is a positive integer.

Since there are 8 factors of 36 hence 8 positive integers are possible for the expression 36/N + 2 to be an integer

Learn more on factors here: https://brainly.com/question/25829061

Answer:

-.26

Step-by-step explanation:

If you take the absolute value (indicates how far a number-negative/positive- is from 0) of each number u listed you will find that .26 is the smallest number,thus smallest number.

Answer:

-.26 is closest to 0 on the number line.

Step-by-step explanation:

To find distance we use absolute value to find the smallest absolute value.

The absolute value of each number is as follows

-0.26 (0.26)

0.3 (0.3)

0.275 (0.275)

-0.51 (0.51)

In order from least to greatest we have

.26, .275, .3, .51

Therefore -.26 is closest to 0 on the number line.

Good luck!!

45125|5

9025|5

1805|5

361|19

19|19

1

[tex]45125=5^3\cdot 19^2=5^2\cdot 5\cdot19^2[/tex]

It's 5

Answer:

25,886.01 in²

Step-by-step explanation:

The area of shaded region = Area of the outter circle (the larger circle) - area of the inner circle (the smaller circle)

Area of a circle = πr²

Radius of larger circle = PO = 93.4 in

Area of the larger circle = 3.14*93.4² = 27,391.98 in²

Radius of smaller circle = PO - RQ = 93.4 - 71.5 = 21.9

Area of smaller circle = 3.14*21.9² = 1,505.97 in²

Area of shaded region = 27,391.98 - 1,505.97 = 25,886.01 in²

Answer:

1. no solution 2. has one solution

Step-by-step explanation:

first you must find the discriminant of each quadratic also remember

if the discriminant is positive  b^{2}-4ac> 0, then the quadratic equation has two solutions.

if the discriminant is equal  b^{2}-4ac= 0, then the quadratic equation has one solution.

if the discriminant is negative  b^{2}-4ac< 0, then the quadratic equation has no solution.

1. the discriminant is [tex]\sqrt{b^2-4ac}[/tex] and when you plug in the numbers you get -55 which is less than 0

2. the discriminant is 0 so there is one solution

Answer:

1. has no real roots, no solutions (unless you can have imaginary solutions)

2. touches the x axis in one point, so one solution

Step-by-step explanation:

The equation of the line is y = 3x - 4, so the inequality is y <= 3x - 4.

Answer:

y <= 3x - 4

Standard form: [tex]3x-y-4\geq 0[/tex]

Copy-paste: 3x-y-4>=0

Answer:

the value of angle A is 82.819°

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

Let the price of the item = Rs x

13% of x = 390

[tex]\frac{13}{100}*x=390\\\\\\x = 390*\frac{100}{13}\\\\\\[/tex]

x = Rs. 3000

Answer:

d. [tex]\angle BIJ \cong \angle CGJ\ and\ \angle BJI \cong \angle CJG[/tex]

Step-by-step explanation:

Here, we are given a diagram in which there are two triangles to be considered:

[tex]\triangle CJG \ and\ \triangle BJI[/tex].

We can consider the whole diagram in the form as attached in the answer area.

To find:

The conditions to prove [tex]\triangle CJG \sim \triangle BJI[/tex].

Solution:

First of all, let us learn about AAA similarity.

AAA stands for Angle Angle Angle.

i.e. when we prove that the all the three corresponding angles of two triangles are equal ,the triangles are similar.

There is one more property of the triangles, that if two angles of two triangles are equal then the third angle of the triangles will also be equal to each other.

So, actually, to prove that [tex]\triangle CJG \sim \triangle BJI[/tex], we need the conditions that two corresponding angles of the triangles are equal to each other, then we can say that third angle will also be equal. Therefore the triangles will be similar to each other.

Let us consider the corresponding angles:

[tex]\angle BIJ \ and \ \angle CGJ\ ,\ \angle BJI \ and \ \angle CJG\ , \ \angle IBJ\ and \ \angle GCJ[/tex]

So, if we are given that any of the two above three pairs are equal/congruent to each other, we can prove [tex]\triangle CJG \sim \triangle BJI[/tex].

Therefore, the correct answer is:

d. [tex]\angle BIJ \cong \angle CGJ\ and\ \angle BJI \cong \angle CJG[/tex]