Answer:
The correct answer is - A. All of the answers are correct.
Explanation:
Mast cells are the cells that are present on connective tissue. These cells have many garnules that are filled with histamin and heparin that play role in first line immune response against allergens. Degranuation is the process of releasing these granules.
Other than this mast cells or mastocytes also secrete lipid mediators and cytokines. These are activated and secreted in presence of allergen or anaphalyxis response.
According to the NHSLS, about _____ of men report always having an orgasm with their partner. Group of answer choices 75 percent 15 percent 55 percent 35 percent
Answer:
According to the NHSLS, about _____ of men report always having an orgasm with their partner.
75 percent
Explanation:
Whereas 75% of the men reported having an orgasm with their partner, only 29% of the women experienced orgasm, according to the National Health and Social Life Survey (NHSLS) reports. Female orgasm marks the climax of contraction of the vaginal walls or the general feeling of heightened warmth as a result of sexual stimulation. It usually emanates from the pelvis, spreading throughout the entire female body with phases of sexual tension experienced during lovemaking. Seminal fluids are also released at such lovemaking climax, especially by males.
COMPARISON OF THE ACTION POTENTIAL OF THE NATURAL PACEMAKER (THE SA) NODE AND THE ACTION POTENTIAL OF THE CONTRACTILE MYOCYTES
Answer:
Pacemaker cells generate spontaneous action potentials that are also termed "slow response" action potentials because of their slower rate of depolarization. ... Another difference between cardiac and nerve and muscle action potentials is the role of calcium ions in depolarization.
A 12-year-old child experiences high fever and chills. He also says that his heart feels like its pounding. Two weeks before these symptoms, the child fell off his bike and skinned his knee. This child also has a history of a heart murmur. What disease should be considered and what is the treatment
Explanation:
Given:
Here a 12-year old child experineces high fever and chills. He also says that his heart feels like its pounding.Two weeks before these symptoms, the child fell off his bike and skinned his knee. This child also has a history of a heart murmur.
The objective is to identify the disease and the treatment for the disease
Solution:
The child is experiencing infective endocardits.
Treatment with aqueous penicillin or ceftriaxone is more effective foe most infections caused by streptococci. The combination of penicillin or ampicillin with gentamicin is appropriate for endocarditis caused by enterococci that are not highly resistant to penicillin intial empiric therapy in patients with suspected endocrditis should include plus in an aminoglycoside
The valve replacement is considered in selected patients with infectious endocarditis
The common congental defects that cause hearts murmurs include holes in the heart or cardiac shunts which is known as septal defects.
The disease that should be considered is infective endocarditis whose treatment can be based on antibiotics.
Infective endocarditis is a type of infection in the internal heart tissue called the endocardium.This disease (infective endocarditis) may be caused by different harmful microorganisms (.e.g, bacteria, fungi, etc), which in this case could have entered into the body through the skinned knee.Infective endocarditis can be treated by using proper antibiotics to kill harmful microorganisms.In conclusion, the disease that should be considered is infective endocarditis whose treatment can be based on antibiotics.
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What drug is popular at parties in the West?
la vaca Lola la vaca lola
5. Which of the following is not a common feature of practice management software?
a. claims processing
b. financial report generation
c. word processing
d. appointment scheduling
Answer:
i would say a
Explanation:
About lasiks eye surgery, Provide an example of changes over the years that may have prompted the public to opt for this procedure to correct their vision.
is what a drug does to your body. O a) Irrigation b) Pharmacodynamics c) Excretion d) Pharmacokinetics
Answer:
Pharmacodynamics druges make our body
⚠️Take 50 point!!!!please help!!! Q: choose the best correct answer . 1. During the treatment of hyperopia with PRK, the curvature of the anterior corneal surface must A: be flattened. B: remain unchanged. C: be steepened. 2. Er:YAG lasers are not suitable for the treatment of caries because of A: cytotoxicity. B: low efficiency. C: thermal effects. 3. Angioplasty with excimer lasers is likely to induce A: atherosclerosis. B: restenosis. C: thermal injury. 4. In stapedotomy with Er:YAG lasers, the fluence should be limited to A: 1 J/cm2. B: 10 J/cm2. C: 100 J/cm2.
1. A. be flattened
2. C. thermal effect
3. A. atherosclerosis
4. C. 100 J / cm2
During the treatment of hyperopia with PRK, curvature must be flattened. Lasik and PRK both methods are used to treat hyperopia farsightedness. The PRK treatment is mostly common in Europe. The curvature of anterior corneal surface is flattened during the surgery.
Excimer laser angioplasty is a safe technique used for patients who are suffering with atherosclerosis.
The distance of the laser tip to tooth must be kept at least 10 cm to avoid thermal damage to the teeth.
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A 20-year-old woman complains of difficulty breathing and the feeling of a lump in her throat approximately 10 minutes after being stung by a wasp. Your assessment reveals that she is anxious, is in obvious respiratory distress, and has hives covering her arms and legs. Further assessment reveals diffuse wheezing, a blood pressure of 80/50 mm Hg, and a heart rate of 120 beats/min. You should:
Answer:
apply oxygen via nonrebreathing mask, start an IV with normal saline, and administer 1 mg of epinephrine 1:10,000 via IV push
Answer: inject pt with Epipen into the middle of her outer thigh
Explanation:
she's having an anaphalctic reaction to the wasp sting
A repetitive dive is any dive:_____.
a. Made within 24 hours of a previous dive.
b. Made within 48 hours of a previous dive.
c. In which your computer indicates there is residual nitrogen left in your system from a prior dive.
d. Both the first and third answers are correct.
Repetitive dive is any dive that you make before you have completely off gassed from any previous dive or dives.
What is repetitive dive?This is any dive that you make before you have completely off gassed from any previous dive or dives. Residual Nitrogen Time (RNT) This is the amount of time you must consider as already having been spent at a given depth for a planned repetitive dive.
How do you calculate repetitive dive?To calculate this figure, you add your residual nitrogen time to your actual dive time.
Repetitive dive is any dive that you make before you have completely off gassed from any previous dive or dives.
Hence , C is correct option
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While giving discharge instructions to a patient who will be taking cholestyramine [Questran], the nurse wants to assess the patient's understanding of the treatment. Which statement made by the patient best demonstrates a need for additional teaching
How much ensure is needed to prepare 120 mL of a 1/4 strength solution?
Answer:
i dont know
Explanation:
The nurse is trying to determine the ability of the client with myocardial infarction (MI) to manage independently at home after discharge. Which statement by the client is the strongest indicator of the potential for difficulty after discharge?1. I need to start exercising more to improve my health.2. I will be sure to keep my appointment with the cardiologist.3. I don't have anyone to help me with doing heavy housework at home.4. I think I have a good understanding of what all my medications are for.
Answer:
3. I don't have anyone to help me with doing heavy housework at home.
Explanation:
All the response options, with the exception of the third, have an autonomy of the patient, where he shows that he will have no difficulties in performing necessary tasks, without the help of third parties. However, in the third answer option, the patient shows that he will have difficulties after being discharged, as he fears that he will have difficulties in being alone, since he has no one to help him.
Therefore, we can assume that the correct answer to your question is the third answer option.
Biochemical importance of buffers
Answer:
a buffer is a solution that helps to resist sudden changes in the PH .buffers are important in living organisms because most biochemical processes proceed normally only when the PH remains within a fairly narrow range.. therefore buffers are commonly used in living organisms to help maintain a relatively stable PH.
I hope this helps
if digoxin has a half life of 35 hours. how long will itake from a toxic level of 8ng/ml to 2 ng/ml
Answer:
Digoxin is absorbed quickly from the gastrointestinal tract with a bioavailability of between 75% and 95%. It is eliminated primarily through kidneys; therefore, it has a half-life of 36-48 hours in patients who have normal kidney function and 3.5-5 days in patients who are anuric.
Electronic Health Records (EHR) have truly changed everything in US healthcare. But like any major change in healthcare, there are pros and cons, advantages and disadvantages. Please discuss the benefits of EHR implementation, and also discuss the EHR challenges which are being encountered.
Answer and Explanation:
The implementation of EHR can be considered something extremely beneficial for the healthcare system anywhere in the world, due to its numerous benefits such as the centralization of patient information in a single system. This allows any health professional, in any region, to access the patient's health history, test results, medications used by the patient and family history. The EHR also promotes agility in the search for information about the patient and savings in physical space, as the EHR eliminates the need for storing patient papers and documents. Failures in drug prescriptions are also reduced and service and diagnosis are streamlined.
However, some challenges must be overcome for EHR to be efficiently implemented. One of these challenges is the cost, as the implementation of EHR can have a high cost that is passed on to the patient and can become unfeasible. in addition, it is necessary to create a very efficient electronic system, which prevents the existence of data loss, malfunctions and hacker attacks.
Mr. C. is at the grocery store, his niece told him to buy whole grain bread. All of the following statements are true about whole grains products EXCEPT:________
A. Any flour made from the endosperm of the wheat kernel is called wheat flour.
B. Whole grain products contain germ and bran as well asendosperm.
C. Refined-grain products contain germ and bran as well as endosperm.
D. Enriched white flour refers to refined flour.
The statement given is true except "Refined-grain products contains germ and bran as well as endosperm".
It should be noted that the wheat flour is made from the endosperm of the wheat kernel. Also, the germ, bran, and endosperm are contained in the whole grain.The refined grain doesn't contain germ or bran because they're removed during the processing. It only contains the endosperm.
In conclusion, the correct option is C.
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Bone cells are called:
Answer:
Bone is a mineralized connective tissue that exhibits four types of cells: osteoblasts, bone lining cells, osteocytes, and osteoclasts.
Kirron arrived and took over compressions. To ensure high quality CPR, providers should switch off giving compressions every ---------minutes or sooner if the provider giving compressions is fatigued. My answer was 2 minutes an was marked wrong answer.
Answer:
2 minutes
Explanation:
You should switch off every two minutes or about 5 cycles of chest compression and breathing, however, if it is a child, it should be about 10 cycles of compressions and breathing. That's weird that it was marked wrong though.
Kirron arrived and took over compressions. To ensure high quality CPR, providers should switch off giving compressions every 2 minutes or sooner if the provider giving compressions is fatigued.
In the context of providing high-quality cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR), it is recommended to switch the person giving compressions every 2 minutes or sooner if the provider becomes fatigued. CPR is a crucial life-saving technique performed during cardiac arrest to maintain blood flow to vital organs until more advanced medical help can be provided.
Performing effective CPR requires a significant amount of physical effort, and fatigue can quickly set in, affecting the quality and effectiveness of the compressions. By rotating compressors every 2 minutes, it ensures that providers remain fresh and able to deliver strong and consistent chest compressions.
Regular rotation also helps prevent compressions from becoming too shallow or too fast, which can be detrimental to the outcome of the resuscitation efforts. High-quality CPR involves compressions that are at least 2 inches deep and delivered at a rate of 100-120 compressions per minute.
It is essential for all providers involved in CPR to communicate effectively, so the switch happens smoothly without any delay in compressions. This teamwork and coordinated effort contribute to the best chances of successful resuscitation and better outcomes for the patient in cardiac arrest. Remember, CPR guidelines may vary slightly depending on the specific guidelines and protocols in different regions or organizations. Always follow the guidelines and training provided by a certified CPR training program or healthcare authority.
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Poisoning most commonly occurs:
In the home
On the job
In a restaurant
In public spaces, such as parks
Answer:
In the home is your answer.
9 out of 10 poisonings happen at home so be careful!
Explanation:
Answer:
in the home?
Explanation:
When can a CSNP member change carrier
Answer: the last month of enrollment in your current plan.
Explanation:If you do not choose another private health or drug plan immediately, your SEP is extended for 90 days from the time of your disenrollment in the plan.
While caring for a patient who is recovering from breast cancer surgery, the nurse observes
the patient's reaction to the surgical incision for assessment of what purpose?
The status of the incision
The patient's coping skills
The patient's functional ability
The patient's knowledge about the illness
Answer:
The patient functional ability
Explanation:
The nurse observes how the incision is functioning is the patient
What are the sites for abdominal hemia
Answer:
The most common types of hernia are inguinal (inner groin), incisional (resulting from an incision), femoral (outer groin), umbilical (belly button), and hiatal (upper stomach). In an inguinal hernia, the intestine or the bladder protrudes through the abdominal wall or into the inguinal canal in the groin.
Explanation:
hopeithelps <//3
Cholesterol is necessary for the production of many other compounds in the body but can become harmful when blood levels exceed 135 mg/dl. exceed the body's ability to use it. can only be controlled through medications. a and b.
Answer:
The correct answer is a and b( exceed 135 mg/dl and can only be controlled through medications.)
Explanation:
Cholesterol is a natural fatty substance that is present in the body and is necessary for the proper functioning of the cells of the human body. It is considered to be at the high limit when the whole blood level exceeds 130 milligrams per deciliter of blood (mg / dl). When this happens, fats tend to build up inside the arteries, impeding blood flow and can lead to serious heart disease and stroke. A doctor usually prescribes drugs to lower high cholesterol (they usually recommend statins), it is because the person is in the intermediate risk limit and has factors that increase the risk of heart disease or stroke, causing long-term arteries become clogged and diseases such as atherosclerosis or heart attack appear.
Basophils are O granules a) involved in the process of making hemoglobin. b) involved in the allergic process. Q) that resist infection by microorganisms. D) It fights infection with parasites.
Which of the following best describes “sleep-driving”
Answer:
Sleep driving refers to a motorist falling asleep while operating a vehicle on the road.
What is the opposite of spend
Answer:
Saving up
Explanation:
that's the answer
The following medical scenario presents information on one of the pathological conditions discussed in this chapter. Read the scenario carefully and select the most appropriate answer for each question that follows. Ginger Black, a 15-year-old patient, is visiting her pediatrician today for a physical. The health care professional explains to Ginger and her mother that Ginger will be screened for scoliosis today during her physical exam. Ginger asks the health care professional if there are any symptoms of scoliosis. The health care professional would respond by explaining to Ginger and her mother that symptoms of scoliosis are:
Answer:
Scoliosis is very common amongst disorder that is counted as disability it diagnosed more in teens, especially females. It is often develops during early adolescence, that is in between 15 to 19.
The symptoms of scoliosis are:
unevenness in the shoulder height and waistline.
Head position, its slightly tilted
Hip height or position, the pelvis shifted to one side.
Shoulder blade height or position.
The way the arms hang beside the body when standing straight.
The way the sides of the back look when bending forward.
Bump on the back.
unevenness in the shape of the rib cage at the back, when the bending forward.
Walking problems and pain like tingling or pain.
Due to the small size of the rabbit’s oral cavity, a ____________________ may be needed to perform a thorough dental exam under anesthesia.
Answer: A RADIOGRAPHIC EXAMINATION
Explanation:
The oral cavity of animals such as rabbits can be examined when cases of dental diseases are suspected. Dental diseases in rabbits may be due to congenital or traumatic origin. A proper oral examination can help in the prevention, onset, and treatment of dental disease.
The oral cavity of rabbits is small, making it impossible to examine the cheek teeth without instrumentation and sedation. To reduce stress and for proper examination of the oral cavity, radiographic examinations are used under anesthesia. This is the best option for a thorough dental examination because:
--> The bulk of the teeth and the supporting structures is below the gumline, HIDDEN from view during gross oral examination,
--> Proper positioning of the rabbit can be obtained which is vital for correct interpretation of radiographic images.
--> It provides the veterinarian with information on treatment options and long-term prognosis.
What is The Drug Classification For The Medication Buspar / Xanax
Answer:
Antianxiety Agents, Anxiolytics, Nonbenzodiazepines
Explanation:
