Reptiles do not have the ability to create their own heat, and instead, sit in the sun for long periods of time in the mornings to warm up. Mammals and birds, on the other hand, have the ability to create their own heat. Where do mammals and birds get the energy for this heat?answer choiceso from oxygen they breath ino from sunlight the animals absorbo from body fat that keeps all heat trapped in the bodyo from food the animals eat

Answers

Answer 1

Reptiles do not generate their own heat and rely on basking in the sun in order to warm up.

Mammals and birds, however, have the ability to create their own heat. The energy to generate this heat comes from food they eat. Mammals and birds obtain energy from the breakdown of carbohydrates, proteins, and fats in the food they consume. This energy is then used by the body to create heat through metabolic processes such as respiration and digestion. This process helps to maintain the body temperature of these animals, even in cold environments. Heat can also be generated by burning stored body fat which helps to keep the body warm in colder environments. So, the energy that mammals and birds use to generate their own heat comes from the food they eat and the stored body fat.

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Related Questions

how might a scientist determine whether a trait is sex-linked by observing the offspring of several genetic crosses? 4. compare and contrast how is the expression of sex-linked genes both similar to and different from the expression of autosomal genes?

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To determine whether a trait is sex-linked by observing the offspring of several genetic crosses, a scientist may examine the ratio of male and female offspring with and without the trait. If the trait is found to be inherited differently in males and females, then it may be sex-linked.Sex-linked genes differ from autosomal genes in their expression in various ways. Sex-linked genes are located on the sex chromosomes, X and Y. In contrast, autosomal genes are found on the non-sex chromosomes.

Autosomal traits are equally expressed in both males and females, while sex-linked traits are expressed differently in males and females. Males have only one X chromosome and no equivalent Y-linked genes to compensate for gene abnormalities, resulting in males expressing more sex-linked traits than females.

However, sex-linked traits are more likely to be recessive, meaning they will only be expressed if present on both the X chromosomes in females. As a result, males have a higher chance of inheriting and expressing a sex-linked recessive trait than females. Thus, the expression of sex-linked genes is similar to that of autosomal genes in some respects, while it differs in others.

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The functional role of sporopollenin is primarily to...
a) provide nutrients to spores
b) make spores less dense and able to disperse more readily
c) reduce dehydration
d) repel toxic chemicals

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The functional role of sporopollenin is primarily to reduce dehydration. Therefore the correct option is option C.

Sporopollenin is a polymer substance that is composed of fatty acids, carotenoids, phenylpropanoids, and other compounds. This substance is found in the outer layer of the spore wall or pollen grain wall. It is not digestible by most organisms and is chemically stable.

Sporopollenin's properties: Sporopollenin is a substance that is durable, chemically stable, and insoluble in water. It is one of the most chemically resistant organic substances known. It is not degraded by digestive enzymes or strong acids and bases, making it an excellent preservation agent.

Sporopollenin's properties make it essential for plants' reproduction since spores and pollen grains need to survive in adverse environments, and sporopollenin is responsible for making them less susceptible to dehydration. Therefore, the correct option is c) reduce dehydration.

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which idea of evolution is supported by the existence of vestigial structures?

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The existence of vestigial structures, which are anatomical features that no longer serve their original purpose, supports the idea of evolution through the process of common descent.

What are vestigial structures?

Vestigial structures are remnants of structures that were once useful to an organism's ancestors but have lost their original function over time as the organism's environment and needs have changed. For example, the wings of flightless birds, such as ostriches, are vestigial structures that no longer serve their original purpose of flight. Similarly, the human appendix is a vestigial structure that no longer plays a significant role in the digestive system.

The existence of vestigial structures provides evidence for evolution through common descent because it suggests that organisms have changed over time, with some structures becoming unnecessary or even harmful as a result of changes in the environment and selective pressures. This supports the idea that all living organisms are related and have evolved from a common ancestor.

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which activity negatively impacts biodiversity and the sustainability of an ecosystem?

Answers

Answers:

Introduction of invasive species

Explanation:

The invasive species makes competition for food much harder for the native species, which causes their numbers to decline. As a result, biodiversity and ability to sustain itself takes a sharp nosedive, even after a short amount of time after the invasive species is intoduced. An example of this is kudzu.

http://nc-ipc.weebly.com/pueraria-montana-kudzu.html

Answer:

The main direct cause of biodiversity loss is land use change (primarily for large-scale food production) which drives an estimated 30% of biodiversity decline globally. Second is overexploitation (overfishing, overhunting and overharvesting) for things like food, medicines and timber which drives around 20%.

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2.
PART B: Which TWO sentences from the article best support the answers to Part A?
"Fingerprints probably represent the best-known example of a feature
useful in biometrics." (Paragraph 5)
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
F.
"Any feature of the body with a unique shape, size, texture or pattern ...
potentially can be used to identify someone." (Paragraph 5)
"It can be hard to get a good print from people who have worn down the
skin on their fingers after years of working with rough materials, such as
brick or stone." (Paragraph 32)
"Health officials tap into this file, using the fingerprint scanner, to
accurately identify which children still need vaccinating..." (Paragraph 40)
"Using biometrics to keep kids healthy, log onto electronic devices and
catch criminals are important applications." (Paragraph 42)
"We eventually want to use facial recognition in robots that can identify
who you are." (Paragraph 44)

Answers

Answer:

The best two sentences that support the answers to Part A are:

"Any feature of the body with a unique shape, size, texture or pattern potentially can be used to identify someone." (Paragraph 5)

This sentence supports the answer to Part A because it indicates that any unique feature of the body can be used for biometric identification, including features like the pattern of veins in the hand.

"It can be hard to get a good print from people who have worn down the skin on their fingers after years of working with rough materials, such as brick or stone." (Paragraph 32)

This sentence supports the answer to Part A because it explains that people who have worked with rough materials for many years may have worn down their fingerprints, making it more difficult to use fingerprints for biometric identification.

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name 3 of the numerous upper body muscles you are using when you do a push up

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The push-up is an effective bodyweight workout that targets many upper body muscles. When you do a push-up, you use numerous muscles in your upper body. However, the three primary muscles are the chest, triceps, and shoulders.

Chest muscles when you do a push-up, the chest muscles are the main muscle group targeted. The pectoralis major and pectoralis minor muscles are the main muscles involved in the push-up. These muscles aid in shoulder extension and flexion, as well as arm adduction and abduction. Shoulder muscles when you do a push-up, the muscles in your shoulders are also worked. The primary muscles are the deltoid muscles. The deltoid muscle is a three-part muscle located on the shoulder. The front, middle, and rear deltoid muscles all work together to raise and lower your body.

The anterior deltoid muscles are activated when you lower your body, while the posterior deltoid muscles are activated when you push your body back up. Tricep muscles when you do a push-up, the tricep muscles are also engaged. The triceps are located at the back of the upper arm, and they are responsible for extending the elbow joint. When you lower your body during a push-up, the triceps contract eccentrically, which means that the muscle fibers lengthen as they contract. When you push your body back up, the triceps contract concentrically, which means that the muscle fibers shorten as they contract. In conclusion, the primary muscles used during a push-up are the chest, shoulders, and triceps. However, the muscles of the back, core, and legs also play a supporting role in maintaining proper form and stability.

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Researchers have found that gp41, a harpoon-like protein, resides on the surface of HIV. These researchers observed that if they interfere with the action of gp41, then HIV is unable to _____.
bind to and enter T-cells in the blood

Answers

The researchers observed that if they interfere with the action of gp41, a harpoon-like protein that resides on the surface of HIV, then HIV is unable to bind to and enter T-cells in the blood.


What is HIV?

HIV (Human Immunodeficiency Virus) is a lentivirus that causes HIV infection, which in turn causes Acquired Immunodeficiency Syndrome (AIDS). This is a lifelong disease with no cure, but medications can help people with HIV lead long, active lives.

The HIV envelope contains two glycoproteins, gp120 and gp41, which are required for virus entry into target cells.

gp120 is responsible for binding to the CD4 molecule on host cells, while gp41 is responsible for fusion between the viral and host cell membranes and entry of the virus into the cell.

The researchers found that interference with gp41 prevents HIV from binding to and entering T-cells in the blood. When gp41's activity is impeded, the virus's ability to penetrate host cells is impaired.

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what enzyme moves along the template strand of dna synthesizing the mrna strand?

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The enzyme that moves along the template strand of dna synthesizing the mRNA strand is RNA polymerases.

In molecular biology, an enzyme called RNA Polymerase, often known as RNA Pol or RNAP, synthesises RNA from a DNA template. With the aid of the enzyme helicase, which breaks down damaged DNA strands, RNA polymerase replicates the DNA sequence into an RNA sequence during the transcription process.

The RNA Pol participates in the identification of terminator areas, aids in the attachment and elongation of nucleotides, and not only transcribes DNA but also proofreads the transcribed RNA.

RNAP creates non-coding functional RNAs like tRNA, rRNA, and miRNA as well as functional mRNAs that code for proteins (translation). Prokaryotes, eukaryotes, and viruses all include the crucial enzyme RNA polymerase. Depending on the kind of organism, the RNAP complex might have different sizes and numbers of subunits.

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the cells that deposit new bone tissue are the ______.

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The cells that deposit new bone tissue are called osteoblasts.

A cell is the basic unit of life. It is the smallest structural and functional unit of an organism, capable of performing all the functions necessary for life. All living organisms are made up of one or more cells, and they can either be prokaryotic or eukaryotic. Cells carry out various functions, including energy production, protein synthesis, and DNA replication. They also maintain homeostasis and respond to changes in their environment.

Prokaryotic cells are found in bacteria and archaea and are characterized by lacking a membrane-bound nucleus and other organelles. Eukaryotic cells, on the other hand, are found in animals, plants, fungi, and protists and are characterized by having a membrane-bound nucleus and various organelles that carry out specific functions within the cell.

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which of the following is not a function of the spleen? destruction of old red blood cells removal of impurities storage of blood absorption of digested fats

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The spleen doesn't absorb digested fats. That is the function of the lymphatic system in our body.

The spleen is an organ in the body's lymphatic system, which functions to regulate and filter blood as it circulates. It is positioned in the upper-left portion of the abdomen, below the diaphragm, and to the left of the stomach. The spleen helps in the maintenance of a healthy immune system, blood cell metabolism, and other important body functions. It stores white blood cells and platelets, which play a crucial part in fighting infection and clotting blood.

The following are the primary functions of the spleen: Destruction of old red blood cells: When red blood cells reach the end of their lifespan, the spleen filters them out of the bloodstream and destroys them. Removal of impurities: The spleen's white pulp assists in the removal of impurities from the blood, including germs, viruses, and bacteria.Storage of blood: The spleen serves as a blood reservoir, storing excess blood that can be released into the bloodstream as needed.

Absorption of digested fats: The lymphatic system, not the spleen, absorbs digested fats. Fats and fat-soluble vitamins from our diet are absorbed in the intestines and transported via the lymphatic system to the bloodstream, where they can be utilized as required.

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the energy source for the light reactions of photosynthesis is ; the energy source for the calvin reactions is

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The energy source for the light reactions of photosynthesis is light energy, while the energy source for the Calvin reactions is ATP and NADPH.

Photosynthesis is the process by which plants convert light energy into chemical energy. Photosynthesis is a method that uses light energy to generate organic compounds. The process of photosynthesis is critical for life on the planet because it produces the oxygen that organisms require to survive.

The Calvin cycle, also known as the light-independent reactions, is a sequence of chemical reactions that convert carbon dioxide (CO2) into glucose, a simple sugar.

During the Calvin cycle, light energy is converted into chemical energy in the form of ATP and NADPH, which are used to produce glucose.

The light reactions are dependent on light, while the Calvin cycle is independent of light.

The energy source for the light reactions of photosynthesis is light energy, which is absorbed by pigments in the chloroplasts. During the light reactions, light energy is converted into chemical energy in the form of ATP and NADPH, which are used in the Calvin cycle.

In contrast, ATP and NADPH are used as energy sources for the Calvin cycle. This cycle takes place in the stroma of the chloroplasts and is used to create glucose from carbon dioxide.

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How would you explain the ""density of the elephant population"" to someone?

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The number of elephants living in a certain location is referred to as the population density of elephants.

Elephant density is often measured in terms of how many live in a certain area, such as a square kilometer. Depending on the habitat, the availability of food, and other environmental conditions, the density of the elephant population can vary significantly.

Elephant populations may compete for resources in locations where there are many of them, which might result in confrontations with people and other animals. It is crucial to manage the elephant population's influence on the ecology and carry out conservation initiatives.

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What is it called when a foreign gene is inserted into an organism?

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When a foreign gene is inserted into an organism, it is referred to as genetic engineering.

Genetic engineering is the method of modifying the genetic material of an organism, either by direct gene transfer or by selective breeding, to obtain desirable traits or to get a better understanding of the organism's genetics. It entails inserting, deleting, or changing genes in an organism's genetic code.The foreign gene is introduced into the organism by a vector. A vector is a carrier that carries genetic material from one organism to another. Plasmids, bacteriophages, and viral vectors are some of the most common vectors used in genetic engineering.

The foreign gene, for example, is isolated from its original organism and then inserted into a vector, which then carries it into the host organism.The new genetic material is then incorporated into the host organism's DNA. If it is carried out in a gamete, it will be inherited by the organism's progeny, resulting in genetic modification or genetic engineering of the species. The introduced gene might come from a different species, a natural variant of the organism, or a totally artificial construct, such as a gene designed to treat a genetic illness. The technique has a variety of uses, including biotechnology, agriculture, and medicine.

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Which evidence suggests that some of the first life on earth was prokaryotic bacteria?

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Microbial mats or large biofilms may represent the earliest forms of prokaryotic life on Earth; there is fossil evidence of their presence starting about 3.5 billion years ago.

ASAP PLS

Differentiate and explain the relationships between these:

Central nervous system and Peripheral nervous system


Motor neurons and sensory neurons


axon and dendrite

Answers

Answer:

The central nervous system (CNS) is composed of the brain and spinal cord and is responsible for coordinating and controlling body functions. The peripheral nervous system (PNS) is composed of nerves and ganglia outside of the brain and spinal cord and is responsible for connecting the CNS to the rest of the body.

Motor neurons are responsible for transmitting signals from the CNS to muscles and other effector organs to produce a response. Sensory neurons are responsible for transmitting signals from sensory organs and receptors to the CNS.

An axon is a long, slender projection of a nerve cell, or neuron, that conducts electrical impulses away from the neuron's cell body. A dendrite is a short, branching projection of a nerve cell that conducts electrical impulses toward the cell body.

many forests and grasslands depend on periodic wildfires to maintain their ecosystems. fires create new habitat with increased resources and reduced competition. this best demonstrates what ecosystem service?

Answers

Many forests and grasslands depend on periodic wildfires to maintain their ecosystems, this best demonstrates the ecosystem service of "natural disturbance."

Natural disturbance is a vital ecosystem service that maintains natural biodiversity, ensures ecosystem productivity, and enhances ecosystem services. Many ecosystems, including forests, grasslands, and wetlands, rely on natural disturbances to maintain their diversity and productivity.Periodic wildfires are a natural and essential disturbance that helps to maintain healthy ecosystems.

Wildfires produce new habitat, increase resources, and reduce competition, leading to a diversified, dynamic ecosystem that can withstand further environmental changes or stresses. The carbon cycle, nutrient cycling, and hydrological cycle are other important ecosystem services provided by natural disturbances, which play a critical role in regulating the environment and maintaining ecosystem stability.

Consequently, natural disturbances, such as wildfires, floods, storms, and droughts, are essential for maintaining the health and resilience of natural ecosystems. Therefore, the best way to ensure ecosystem sustainability is to maintain a balance between human activities and natural disturbances.

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which level of organization is the most complex in terms of size and composition?

Answers

Answer: organismal level

Explanation:

The most complex level of organization is the organismal level, where all eleven organ systems function in the human organism, the whole living person.

Explain how resting potential is maintained along an axon, the events that lead to an action potential, and the events of an action potential itself

Answers

The depolarizing current causes a burst of electrical activity called an action potential. This indicates that due to an action (stimulus), the resting potential becomes 0 mV.

The sodium/potassium pump uses ATP to transport 3 sodium ions out of the cell and 2 potassium ions into the cell, thus maintaining the resting membrane potential at the axon. This keeps the apparent negative charge of the neuron in place. The sodium-potassium pump sequentially removes three sodium ions from the cell for every two potassium ions introduced.

As such, it retains the significant gradient of potassium ions across the membrane that underlies the resting membrane potential.

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as you lean your arm against the front edge of your desk, you are compressing vessels and thereby decreasing the diameter of those vessels. as this occurs, you should expect blood flow toward your hand to increase. (true or false)

Answers

It is FALSE as you lean your arm against the front edge of your desk, you are compressing vessels and thereby decreasing the diameter of those vessels. as this occurs, you should expect blood flow toward your hand to increase.

The passage of blood through the circulatory system is referred to as blood flow. The heart pumps blood through a network of blood vessels, including arteries, veins, and capillaries, to transport it throughout the body. Delivering nutrition and oxygen to tissues, eliminating waste, and controlling body temperature all depend on blood flow.

Vascular compression can cause blood flow to decrease because it reduces the diameter of the vessels. As a result, you should anticipate a drop in blood flow to your hand rather than an increase as you lean your arm against the front edge of your desk and compress the veins.

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how are the antennae chelipeds, other walking legs, and swimmerets related?

Answers

They're all just limbs. The long antennae are utilised to physically sense a place, such the crevice's contours.

The tiny antennules are used to detect motion in the water, which may also be a sign of food, a fling, or danger, as well as to aid the creature in smelling for food, mates, or harmful predators. The antennae in crayfish come in two pairs. The brief pair is referred to as an antennule. Food and water are tasted through antennae. The crayfish's long antennae are employed for their touch sense, which aids in helping them locate food and detect vibrations from nearby predators.

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in a peptide bond, which parts of the two amino acids are joined together?

Answers

The answer is the carboxyl group

Proteins need to be denatured using an anionic detergent such as SDS before gel electrophoresis because: Select all that apply. (0.5pts) Multiple answers: Multiple answers are accepted for this question Select one or more answers and submit. For keyboard navigation... SHOW MORE a most proteins have a uniform positive charge b the overall charge of a protein depends on the amino acid composition of the protein and can vary greatly c most proteins have complex three dimensional structures that can impact their movement through the gel most proteins have a uniform neutral charge

Answers

Proteins need to be denatured using an anionic detergent such as SDS before gel electrophoresis because:

a) most proteins have a uniform positive charge,

b) the overall charge of a protein depends on the amino acid composition of the protein and can vary greatly, and

c) most proteins have complex three dimensional structures that can impact their movement through the gel.

Denaturing proteins with an anionic detergent like SDS neutralizes the charge of the proteins, allowing them to move evenly through the gel in a consistent pattern during the electrophoresis process.

Without the anionic detergent, the proteins would not move evenly and the results of the gel electrophoresis would not be accurate.

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guayule (parthenium argentatum) is a plant originating in mexico that is used to produce rubber. scientists used artificial selection to breed guayule with a relative plant from utah, parthenium ligulatum, and produced a hybrid plant that transferred cold tolerance to guayule. in this example, plant growth habits and leaf shape are components of that enabled cold tolerance, and the transferability of these traits is an example of . guayule (parthenium argentatum) is a plant originating in mexico that is used to produce rubber. scientists used artificial selection to breed guayule with a relative plant from utah, parthenium ligulatum, and produced a hybrid plant that transferred cold tolerance to guayule. in this example, plant growth habits and leaf shape are components of that enabled cold tolerance, and the transferability of these traits is an example of . sexual reproduction; variation variation; heritability genetic drift; taxonomy heritability; overproduction of offspring

Answers

In this example, plant growth habits and leaf shape are components that enabled cold tolerance, and the transferability of these traits is an example of genetic heritability.

Artificial selection is the intentional selection and breeding of organisms with desired characteristics that people can benefit from. It is performed by humans to influence the inherited traits of organisms, particularly for food production and the extraction of natural substances like rubber.

Guayule (Parthenium argentatum) is a plant that originated in Mexico and is used to create rubber.

Scientists crossed Guayule with a relative plant from Utah, Parthenium ligulate, using artificial selection, resulting in a hybrid plant that transmitted cold tolerance to Guayule.

The growth habits of plants and leaf shape are traits that contributed to cold tolerance in this case, and the transferability of these characteristics is an example of genetic heritability.

Genetic heritability is the proportion of phenotypic variation in a population that is attributable to genetic variation among individuals. In this case, the genetic variation of the hybrid plant contributed to the cold tolerance of the guayule plant.

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when a peptide bond is formed, two amino acids are linked between the group of one amino acid and the group of the other.

Answers

When a peptide bond is formed, two amino acids are linked together through a condensation reaction, also known as a dehydration synthesis.

Specifically, the carboxyl group (-COOH) of one amino acid reacts with the amino group (-NH2) of another amino acid, releasing a molecule of water (H2O) in the process. The resulting covalent bond between the carbon atom of the carboxyl group and the nitrogen atom of the amino group forms the peptide bond.

This reaction can be repeated many times to form a polypeptide chain, which is the primary structure of a protein. The sequence of amino acids in the polypeptide chain determines the unique structure and function of the protein.

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What is first-strand synthesis of cDNA?

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First-strand synthesis of cDNA refers to the process of generating the first strand of cDNA from an RNA template.

This process typically involves reverse transcription, where an enzyme called reverse transcriptase synthesizes a complementary DNA strand to the RNA template.

1. RNA isolation: The RNA template is first isolated from the sample of interest. This may involve purifying the RNA from a biological sample using techniques like column chromatography or gel electrophoresis.

2. Reverse transcription: The isolated RNA is then used as a template for the synthesis of the first cDNA strand. Reverse transcriptase, an enzyme that can synthesize a complementary DNA strand from an RNA template, is used to catalyze this process.

3. Second-strand synthesis: Once the first cDNA strand is synthesized, a second complementary strand is generated through polymerase chain reaction (PCR) or other methods.

Overall, first-strand synthesis of cDNA is an essential process for studying gene expression and manipulating DNA sequences in the lab.

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Explain how genetic screening is impacting the number of diagnosed cases?

Answers

Genetic screening is helping to find the number of genetic disorders like down syndrome while in pregnancy, elevating the number of diagnosed cases.

For Down syndrome, Edwards syndrome, and brain or neural tube anomalies, genetic testing is most frequently used. During the first trimester, blood tests to determine the levels of beta-hCG and PAPP-A are frequently performed as part of screening. The risk of Edwards syndrome is connected to decreased beta-hCG and PAPP-A levels in the mother's blood.

Those who do not exhibit any indications of a condition typically undergo genetic screening testing. These tests determine if a person's risk of developing a specific condition is higher or lower than the risk experienced by other members of a similar community. A positive result indicates that a person has a greater than usual risk of having the illness. An individual's risk is lower than average if the screening test results are negative.

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how does gene regulation help conserve energy for an organism?

Answers

By selecting expressing genes, expressing genes in the most energy-efficient manner possible, conserving energy during protein synthesis, and responding to feedback mechanisms, gene regulation aids in energy conservation for an organism.

Gene regulationGene regulation enables an organism to only express the genes necessary for a given function, leading to selective gene expression. This prevents the expression of genes that are not necessary, conserving energy that would have been used for their expression.Energy-efficient gene expression: Gene regulation enables an organism to express genes in the way that uses the least amount of energy. For instance, certain genes only express themselves when a certain stimulus, such as a particular dietary or environmental factor, is present. This implies that when the stimulus is not present, the organism does not need to expend energy on expressing these genes.Gene control enables an organism to save energy during protein synthesis, which results in more energy-efficient protein synthesis.

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Toxins and antibiotics and heavy metals from industrial pollutants are chemical hazards commonly found in

Answers

Chemical contaminants that are frequently found in chemical dangers include toxins, antibiotics, and heavy metals from industrial discharges.

Heavy metals can be found in coal-burning power plants' combustion byproducts, metal piping used in industrial operations, untreated sewage sludge, and traffic. Pollution from toxicants is a significant environmental issue that has posed substantial risks to both agricultural productivity and human health.

Top of the list of environmental toxins harming nature are heavy metals and pesticides. Heavy metal contamination is seen by many as a problem in places with extensive industrial activity. Yet, today it is thought that one of the main sources of heavy metals is through roads and automobiles.

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Sort the following events according to whether they occur in replicative transposition, nonreplicative transposition, or both:Donor DNA retains a copy of insertion sequence., Recombination separates donor and target DNAs. Hairpin structures form on each end of insertion sequence., Insertion sequence "jumps" into recipient DNA., Donor DNA loses insertion sequence. DNA polymerase fills in gaps, Transposase is required., Target sequence gets duplicated., DNA ligase seals nicks.- Replicative:- Nonreplicative:- Both:

Answers

In replicative transposition, the donor DNA retains a copy of insertion sequence, whereas in nonreplicative transposition, the donor DNA loses the insertion sequence. Hairpin structures form at each end of the insertion sequence in both nonreplicative and replicative transposition.

The insertion sequence jumps into the recipient DNA in both replicative and nonreplicative transposition. DNA polymerase fills in gaps in replicative transposition, while transposase is required in both replicative and nonreplicative transposition. The target sequence is duplicated in both replicative and nonreplicative transposition, while DNA ligase seals nicks in replicative transposition.

The following list shows how the events are sorted according to whether they occur in replicative transposition, nonreplicative transposition, or both:

Replicative transposition :

1. DNA polymerase fills in gaps.

2. DNA ligase seals nicks.

Nonreplicative transposition:

1. Donor DNA loses insertion sequence.

2. Transposase is required.

Both:

1. Donor DNA retains a copy of insertion sequence.

2. Recombination separates donor and target DNAs.

3. Hairpin structures form on each end of the insertion sequence.

4.Insertion sequence "jumps" into recipient DNA.

5. Target sequence gets duplicated.

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Suppose the systolic blood pressure (in mm) of adult males has an approximately normal distribution with mean μμ =125 and standard deviation σσ =14. Create an empirical rule graph with the following: A title and label for the horizontal axis including units. Vertical lines for the mean and first 3 standard deviations in each direction with numerical labels on the horizontal axis Labels for the areas of the 8 regions separated by the vertical lines as well. Note: This may be hand drawn or computer generated. See the models for desired formats. Now use your graph to answer the following questions. b. About 99.7% of men will have blood pressure between what amounts? ______ and _____ c. What percentage of men will have a systolic blood pressure outside the range 111 mm to 153 mm?

Answers

Option a) Empirical rule graph b) About 99.7% of men will have blood pressure between 83 mm and 167 mm. c) 0.3  percentage of men will have a systolic blood pressure outside the range 111 mm to 153 mm.

A graph to represent the systolic blood pressure of adult males with a mean of 125 mm and standard deviation of 14 mm will have a horizontal axis labelled with "Systolic Blood Pressure (mm)" and the vertical lines for the mean, the first 3 standard deviations below the mean, and the first 3 standard deviations above the mean labelled with numerical values. The 8 regions between the vertical lines will be labeled accordingly: μ-3σ, μ-2σ, μ-σ, μ, μ+σ, μ+2σ, μ+3σ, and μ+4σ.

Systolic blood pressure of adult males is approximately normally distributed with mean μ = 125 and standard deviation σ = 14.

We can find the data points for the horizontal axis by using the empirical rule. The empirical rule states that for a normal distribution:

About 68% of the data is within 1 standard deviation of the mean μ. ( μ ± σ)

About 95% of the data is within 2 standard deviations of the mean μ. ( μ ± 2σ)

About 99.7% of the data is within 3 standard deviations of the mean μ. ( μ ± 3σ)

Using these data points, we can create the following empirical rule graph:

Horizontal axis label: Systolic Blood Pressure (mm)

Vertical lines (labeled with standard deviations and the mean):

μ - 3σ = 83,

μ - 2σ = 97,

μ - σ = 111,

μ = 125,

μ + σ = 139,

μ + 2σ = 153,

μ + 3σ = 167

Label for areas of the 8 regions:

Region 1: 68% of data;

Region 2: 95% of data;

Region 3: 99.7% of data;

Region 4: 0.15% of data;

Region 5: 2.5% of data;

Region 6: 16% of data;

Region 7: 2.5% of data;

Region 8: 0.15% of data

b) About 99.7% of men will have blood pressure between 83 mm and 167 mm. This is because 99.7% of data lies within 3 standard deviations of the mean μ.

c) We can use the empirical rule graph for finding the percentage of men that will have systolic blood pressure outside the range of 111 mm to 153 mm. This range includes the data in Region 5, Region 6, and Region 7.

Thus, the percentage of men that will have systolic blood pressure outside this range is given by:

Percentage = Region 4 + Region 8

                   = 0.15% + 0.15% = 0.3%

Thus, about 0.3% of men will have systolic blood pressure outside the range of 111 mm to 153 mm.

About 99.7% of men will have blood pressure between 60 mm and 190 mm. The percentage of men outside the range of 111 mm to 153 mm will be about 0.3%.

Learn more about systolic blood pressure: https://brainly.com/question/14281501

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