Answer:
Explanation:
Prokaryotes are single cell organisms, including bacteria, which divides through binary fission where the daughter cell is a complete replica of the father cell.
Eukaryotes are multi-cell organism, which reproduce either through mitosis or meoisis. Meoisis is sexual reproduction while mitosis is asexual reproduction
Many of the phenotypes of DiGeorge syndrome have been traced back to one of the genes that is in the deleted region, TBX1. Some of the evidence for the important role of TBX1 in DiGeorge syndrome came from individuals who have some of the symptoms of DiGeorge syndrome without having the typical deletion. Closer examination showed that some of these individuals had SNV in the TBX1 gene. Which of the following SNVS would be most likely to create a similar phenotype to the deletion?
A. A variant in the promoter region of TBX1 that increases its expression
B. A variant in the intronic region of TBX1 that does not affect splicing. X
C. A nonsense variant near the 5' end of the TBX1 gene.
D. A silent variant near the 5' end of the TBX1 gene.
Answer:
D. A silent variant near the 5' end of the TBX1 gene.
Explanation:
TBX1 gene is wild type human being. It gives instructions for making protein called T-box 1. It plays an important role in tissue formation and organs during embryonic development.
que contiene el condón?
Answer:
plss translate it in English so i Can easyly answer it.
Explanation:
Thank you.
Afferont neurons
a.transmit sensory input to the CNS
b.are multipolar neurons
c.have many dendrites and a single long axon
d.are found only within the brain and spinal cord
Answer:
a.transmit sensory input to the CNS
Explanation:
Afferent neurons will take input from your muscles, skin etc. and send it to your CNS (usually via spinal nerves).
Write an experiment to show that sunlight is necessary for photosynthesis.
Answer:
Explanationwe have two or three plants, they both get the same water every day they both get the same amount of soil and fertilizer, one is without sunlight and one is with, after a 2 weeks our results will be found
hope this helps
Which of the cardiac cell characteristics describes the
ability to initiate an electrical impulse?
Answer:
The correct answer is: automaticity.
Explanation:
Cardiac muscle has several properties. These properties are: automaticity (given by the pacemaker cells), conductivity (meaning that each cardiac cell can transmit the electrical impulse to the next cardiac cells), contractility (like other types of muscles, cardiac muscle cells can contract), and irritability (each cell can contract on its own without the external stimuli).
Cardiac pacemaker cells are the ones with the capacity to initiate the electrical impulse by creating rhythmic impulses called action potentials, and thus directly regulating heart rate.
Pacemaker cells are located in the sinoatrial (SA) node, in the upper portion of the right atrial wall. In these cells, depolarization of the cardiac muscle begins, and the electrical impulse generated by it is transmitted to the atrioventricular (AV) node, the His bundle and then the Purkinje fibers - this order of events is necessary for the correct contraction of the heart to occur. All of these structures are part of the Conduction System of the heart.
A particular cross gives a modified dihybrid ratio of 9:7. What phenotypic ratio would you expect in a testcross of the fully heterozygous F1 crossed with the fully recessive type
Answer:
3:1
Explanation:
Due to technical problems, you will find the complete explanation in the attached files.
what are the difference between DNA and RNA
Answer:
There are two differences that distinguish DNA from RNA: (a) RNA contains the sugar ribose, while DNA contains the slightly different sugar deoxyribose (a type of ribose that lacks one oxygen atom), and (b) RNA has the nucleobase uracil while DNA contains thymine.
which property has not been observed for membrane proteins being degraded for energy during biological pathways
Answer:
energy storage
Explanation:
Membrane proteins are proteins that are either form part of or interact with cell membranes. Based on their interactions, membrane proteins can be categorized into integral proteins, which are a permanent part of a cell membrane, and peripheral proteins, which adhere temporarily to the cell membrane. Membrane proteins play many critical functions, for example, 1-they are involved in the passive and active transport of substances across cell membranes, 2-act as enzymes that catalyze chemical reactions, 3-act as receptors that bind specific molecules (such as hormones or neurotransmitters) in order to activate signaling cascades, 4-mediate communication between cells, 5-provide a mechanical link between the extracellular matrix and the cytoskeleton, etc.
The genetic code is defined degenerate or even redundant because:
A. the same codon codes for different amino acids
B. an amino acid can be encoded by several codons
C is different in all organisms, except in monozygotic twins
D. the sequence of codons is not separated by intervals, but is continuous
E. the structure of the genes is constantly mutating
Answer:
B. an amino acid can be encoded by several codons
Explanation:
The genetic code refers to the set of rules that govern how the four nitrogenous bases (A,U,G,C) is arranged to form amino acids. The genetic code is a collection of all the CODONS formed. There are different characteristics of the genetic code and one of them is its REDUNDANCY.
Since there are 4 nitrogenous bases combined in three's to form a codon i.e. 4³, there are 64 possible codons that could form 20 maximum amino acids. This means that there are more codons in relation to amino acids. Hence, more than one codon can encode an amino acid, and this is referred to as REDUNDANCY of the genetic code.
For example, LEUCINE amino acid is encoded by 6 codons as follows: UUA, UUG, CUU, CUC, CUA, CUG.
In a certain population, the allele causing sickle cell anemia has a frequency of 0.2. If the population is in genetic equilibrium for this allele, what fraction of the population would be heterozygous for this gene
Answer:
32% population would be heterozygous for this gene.
Explanation:
Due to technical problems, you will find the complete explanation in the attached files
Most streams result from _____.
a. altitude
b. melted snow
c. oceans
d. rivers
Answer:
....b........ melted snow
Which actions could be categorized in the “aerobic” section of the Venn diagram?
Answer:
Starts process with a glucose molecule (Obtaining ATP begins with a breakdown of a glucose molecule (hence the name of glycose), and this is in common with the anaerobic process since this step does not require oxygen.)
Explanation:
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Answer:
If your doing the test on edgen then the answers are A.)consists of three stages, B.)yields 36 ATP molecules and, E.)starts process with a glucose molecule
Explanation:
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The scientists mapping the SNPs in the human genome noticed that groups of SNPs tended to be inherited together, in blocks known as haplotypes, ranging in length from 5,000 to 200,000 base pairs. There are as few as four or five commonly occurring combinations of SNPs per haplotype. Integrating what you've learned throughout this chapter and this unit, propose an explanation for this observation.
Answer:
SNPs have shown that only 0.1 % of DNA sequences are different in the human genome between different individuals, thereby all the inherited phenotypic variation observed in our species is associated with only 0.1 % of differences at the genome level
Explanation:
Haplotypes are block-like sequences of DNA that are inherited together due to low recombination rates. Moreover, single-nucleotide polymorphism (SNP) mapping is a very useful methodology used to map the site of SNP mutations (i.e., SNP variants). In this regard, it has been observed that there are approximately 10 million common SNPs in the human genome. These SNPs contribute to the wide range of phenotypic variation observed in human populations for different traits (e.g., eye color, hair, weight, height, etc). Moreover, researchers have determined that SNPs can be clustered into haplotypes, thereby haplotypes can be accurately sampled by as few as approx. 300,000 selected SNPs, which are sufficient to represent all of the genetic variation across different human genomes.
3. A bacterial isolate from a urine specimen was grown in culture, Gram stained, and then tested for its ability to ferment sugars and hydrolyze various subtrates. What approach to bacterial identification is this an example of
Answer:
Phenotypic approach for bacterial identification
Explanation:
Bacterial identification can be done by conventional methods, which are based on phenotypical characteristics. These methods are much affordable and reasonable.
Phenotypical identification is based on bacteria´s observable characteristics, such as their morphology, development, and biochemical/metabolic properties.
It is important to consider that these methods do not provide absolute certainty. They can only indicate the genera or species to which the bacteria under study may belong.
Some primary evidence is usually used for fast bacteria identification:
Gram staining, morphology, growth at different media or different incubation atmospheres, glucose fermentation, spores production, motion, aerobiosis/anaerobiosis, among others.Knowing that the bacteria in the exposed example was isolated and grown in culture, then Gram-stained and tested for biochemical reaction, we can assume that the approach for its identification is phenotypic.
Which statement is true?
A.Peat is a fossil fuel because rewetting it takes only 3–5 years.
B.Peat is a fossil fuel because the total time for restoration is lengthy.
C.Peat is not a fossil fuel because it has biologic origins, making it a biofuel.
D.Peat is not a fossil fuel because humans can promote the replenishment of peat.
Peat is not a fossil fuel because humans can promote the replenishment of peat is a correct statement.
What do you mean by Fossil fuels?Fossil fuels may be defined as fuels that are derived from decomposed plants and animals. It includes coal, petroleum, oil, and natural gases.
Peat is considered forgotten fossil fuel because through the activity of humans it may be replenished into other forms for different use. It may maximum takes 3-5 years for rewetting.
Therefore, the true statement is Peat is not a fossil fuel because humans can promote the replenishment of peat.
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number of chiasmata during the stage of diakinesis:
a) increases
b) decreases
c) remains the same
d) there is no kiazma
Explain the answer
Answer:
a because it harm the people
2 True or False. A projectleie an object that once set in motion continues in motion by its own martia O True False
Answer:
The answer is true.Explanation:PARTICLES MOVING ALONG THE PATH POSSES A TWO DIMENSIONAL MOTIONMARK ME AS BRAINIST PLZ
Describe how table salt dissolves in water in 300 words.
Answer:
salt disloves in 300 words
Answer:
Salt (sodium chloride) is made from positive sodium ions bonded to negative chloride ions. Water can dissolve salt because the positive part of water molecules attracts the negative chloride ions and the negative part of water molecules attracts the positive sodium ions.
Explanation:
When sodium chloride is dissolved in water, the polar water molecules are able to work their way in between the individual ions in the lattice. The water molecules surround the negative chloride ions and positive sodium ions and pull them away into the solution. This process is called dissociation.
define cell and atom.....
Cell: A cell is the structural and fundamental unit of life. The study of cells from its basic structure to the functions of every cell organelle is called Cell Biology.
Atom: atom is the smallest component of an element, characterized by a sharing of the chemical properties of the element and a nucleus with neutrons, protons and electrons. The protons and the neutrons reside in the nucleus.
whats the difference between atom and cell?
function wise atoms take part in every chemical reaction while cells are responsible for the development and growth of living existences. Atoms do not have life. They do not need food, water, and they do not reproduce. Cells are alive. Cells consume food and water and can reproduce. Atoms construct molecules and Cells make tissues for organs.
¿Qué nombres reciben los tejidos que dan
origen a los tejidos adultos de las plantas?
a. Tejidos diferenciados
b. Tejidos indiferenciados (meristemos)
c. Tejidos vegetales
Answer:
D
Explanation:
Unlike other plants, trees are plants living for several years thus they are
A. Annual
B.shade
C.perennial
D. Fence
What is silk thread?
1. What features are located medial to the cranium and the mandible. Identify the category here.
2. How many individual items are included in this category?
2. There is a total of six individual items in this category.
The human skull is made up of two parts, the cranium, which contains the face and the brain and the only movable bone called the mandible or lower jaw.
The features that are medial to the cranium and the mandible are those structures that are nearer to the mid-line.
The above mentioned features works together to provide the following functions of the cranium:
protection of the delicate structures including the brain, eye and the inner ear.maintaining patency of the nasal passage enabling breathing.the movement of the mandible allows chewing.Learn more here:
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.
an ion is formed when an atom
Answer:
The basic unit of the chemical elements
P is an autosomal dominant allele that produces a pigment, p is a recessive allele that produces no pigment. A pigmented and a non-pigmented organism mate and produce a pigmented offspring. They then mate and produce a non-pigmented offspring. What is the probability the next offspring will be pigmented
Answer:3/4
Explanation:4 possibilities, 3 dominant
If a pigmented and non-pigmented organism mate and produce a pigmented organism, which mate again and produce non-pigmented organisms, the probability that the next offspring will be pigmented is ¾ as P is the dominant, pigment-producing allele.
What are dominant alleles?The association between two genetic variants is referred to as dominant. Each gene has two alleles that an individual inherits from each parent. One allele of a gene, known as the dominant gene, will be expressed if the alleles are different. The impact of the additional allele, known as the recessive one, is concealed.
If one is in charge, the other must be recessive. Then it is referred to as recessive. A dominant gene, or dominant form of a gene, is a specific variant of a gene that expresses itself more powerfully on its own than any other version of the gene that the individual is carrying—in this example, the recessive—for a variety of reasons.
Now, it mainly refers to patterns of inheritance typically used in combination with a Punnett square, where if a person has two copies of a gene and one is shown to frequently be passed down from one generation to another, it is referred to as dominant.
According to biochemistry, what is happening in this situation is that the genetic variant may, for a variety of reasons, cause a cell to perform a very advantageous or very disadvantageous function that the other version of the gene cannot cover up or counteract.
Therefore, the probability that the next offspring will be pigmented is ¾ as P is the dominant, pigment-producing allele.
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A penicillin reaction is a life-threatening event. In those who are allergic to penicillin, the drug acts as a __________ that binds to blood proteins, causing a strong immune response.
Answer:
A penicillin reaction is a life-threatening event. In those who are allergic to penicillin, the drug acts as a hapten that binds to blood proteins, causing a strong immune response.
Explanation:
Low molecular weight chemicals can bind to antibodies, but cannot activate B lymphocytes by themselves (they are not immunogenic). To generate specific antibodies to these small chemicals, immunologists typically bind them to macromolecules prior to immunization. In these cases, the chemical is called a hapten. Penicillin G is a typical hapten that tends to covalently bind to lysine residues both in solution and in protein-bound cells. Penicillin is a drug that behaves as a hapten, since the beta-lactam ring under physiological conditions opens and reacts with the lysine residues of proteins, forming a complex that is the main antigenic determinant of penicillin and other beta-lactams and is capable of to stimulate responses mediated by antibodies or by T cells.
Predict what will happen to the concentration of pyruvate, NADH and H+ when the Krebs cycle is stopped by arsenic
Answer: Pyruvate would increase, NADH would decrease, and intermembrane H+ would decrease as well.
Explanation:
Glycolysis would raise pyruvate, but the Krebs Cycle would not produce NADH, decreasing it. No protons (H+) will be pushed into the intermembrane gap, lowering its H+ content and raising its pH.
What is Kreb's cycle?The tricarboxylic acid (TCA) cycle, commonly referred to as the Krebs cycle or the citric acid cycle, is the primary route that cells use in order to acquire energy and is an essential component of aerobic respiration. The cycle transforms the oxidative potential of acetyl coenzyme A (acetyl CoA) into the reductive potential of nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide (NADH).
The synthesis of ATP via the Krebs cycle is disrupted when arsenic is present because it prevents pyruvate from being converted into acetyl coenzyme A (acetyl-CoA). In addition to the effects described above, arsenic also prevents glucose uptake at the cellular level, as well as gluconeogenesis, the oxidation of fatty acids, and additional acetyl-CoA formation.
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Two species of closely related frogs are found in the same pond high in the Andes of South America. Both species only have teeth on the top jaw. One has small teeth for holding small live prey prior to swallowing. The other species has very large sharp teeth for injuring and killing large prey prior to biting off pieces of flesh for consumption. The above is an example of:
Complete question:
Two species of closely related frogs are found in the same pond high in the Andes of South America. Both species only have teeth on the top jaw. One has small teeth for holding small live prey prior to swallowing. The other species has very large sharp teeth for injuring and killing large prey prior to biting off pieces of flesh for consumption. The above is an example of:
Directional selectionAnalogous structuresCharacter displacementHybridization Vestigial structuresAnswer:
Character displacementExplanation:
Competition is an ecological and evolutive process very common in nature. Competition might be intra- or interspecific. Competition between different species in a community or ecosystem might be due to the same resource use, or the same territory, shelter, etcetera. When a resource is useful for two or more species, and limited, they compete to gain it.
The principle of competitive exclusion states that different species with the same requirements sharing the niche can not coexist indefinitely based on the same limited resource. When two competing species coexist, this is because of niche partitioning or niche differentiation.
Differentiation of effective niche is closely related to character displacement.
Character displacement is the result of interspecific competition, in which two or more species that live in the same habitat manage to avoid competition by developing different traits. Morphological divergence, or any adaptative trait development, fixated genetically, is the product of niche segregation. Species tend to differentiate morphologically in the presence of strong competitors. Traits divergence favors coexistence in the same place.
In the exposed example, both species live in the same pond. But to avoid competition and competitive exclusion, species developed different teeth sizes to feed on different prey items.
Which of the following events contributes to the termination of a signal generated by the binding of a ligand to a receptor tyrosine kinase? Only one answer is correct
1. Phosphatases hydrolyze key phosphorylated residues.
2. Kinases hydrolyze key phosphorylated residues.
3. Kinases phosphorylate key residues.
4. The receptor tyrosine kinase dimerizes.
5. GTPase removes a phosphoryl group from GTP.
6. Phosphatases phosphorylate key residues.
Answer:
1. Phosphatases hydrolyze key phosphorylated residues.
Explanation:
Receptor Tyrosine Kinases (RTKs) are high-affinity transmembrane protein receptors that bind to a wide variety of ligands (e.g., growth factors, cytokines, hormones). These receptors (RTKs) have a transmembrane domain and therefore these proteins act as membrane receptors, as well as exhibit catalytic activity. The intracellular C terminal region of RTKs contains catalytic domains responsible for both autophosphorylation and tyrosine phosphorylation of their protein substrates. Moreover, Protein Tyrosine Phosphatase (PTPs) are critical enzymes that remove phosphate groups from tyrosine residues in different substrates (including RTKs), thereby regulating key signaling pathways such as cell proliferation, cell differentiation, and cell-cell adhesion.
When a neuron is stimulated and sodium channels open, the process of has begun. Structures of the nervous system surrounding, but not part of the central nervous system are part of the . Two consecutive neurons communicate at a , where they physically come together. are a group of natural chemicals that reduce the perception of pain. Supporting cells of the nervous system are collectively called . When potassium channels have been open long enough to go below resting membrane potential, has occurred.
Answer:
- When a neuron is stimulated and sodium channels open, the process of depolarization has begun.
- Structures of the nervous system surrounding, but not part of the central nervous system are part of the peripheral nervous system
- Two consecutive neurons communicate at a synapse, where they physically come together.
- Endorphins are a group of natural chemicals that reduce the perception of pain.
- Supporting cells of the nervous system are collectively called neuroglia
- When potassium channels have been open long enough to go below resting membrane potential, hyperpolarization has occurred.
Explanation:
Neurons undergo depolarization in response to diverse stimuli (e.g., heat, light, electrical, chemical, etc). The depolarization occurs when sodium (Na+) ions pass through specific channels (i.e., open voltage-gated Na+ channels) into a neuron, which causes an increase in the positivity of membrane potential. On the other hand, hyperpolarization occurs when potassium (K+) channels remain open and Na+ channels reset, thereby producing an increase in negativity of membrane potential. The peripheral nervous system (PNS) is composed of the cranial nerves, spinal nerves, peripheral nerves, and neuromuscular junctions, which connect the Central nervous system (CNS) to the organs, limbs, and skin. Endorphins (e.g., serotonin) are polypeptides secreted by the pituitary gland and CNS to relieve stress and pain. Neuroglia refers to a class of neural cells that have ectodermal (e.g., astroglia, peripheral glial cells) or mesodermal (e.g., microglia) origins. Neuroglia cells are involved in diverse roles, including, among others, the formation of the blood-brain barrier, homeostatic support, provision of nutrients for neurons, structural support to nerve cells, etc.
