Call the toll-free Poison Help line (1-800-222-1222), which connects you to your local poison center, as soon as you suspect someone has been poisoned to speak with a poison expert.
Which of the following should be handled first when treating poisoned patients?As with any severely ill patient, the initial step is to stabilize the patient's airway, breathing, and circulation. Identifying the toxin, whether through toxidrome, laboratory testing, or history, may point doctors in the proper direction.
What is the most effective poisonous antidote?Flumazenil and naloxone are the traditional antidotes at the receptor level. Flumazenil is a competitive antagonist at the GABA-A receptor complex's benzodiazepine site.
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a patient comes in complaining of 1 week of pain in the posterior neck with difficulty turning the head to the right. what additional history is needed?
The other two options may produce pain but not necessarily limit functioning.
Begin by inspecting the head for skin color and symmetry of facial movements, noting any drooping. If drooping is noted, ask the patient to smile, frown, and raise their eyebrows and observe for symmetrical movement.
The eyebrows, eyes, ears, nose, and mouth, as well as the palpebral fissures, and the nasolabial folds should appear symmetric when inspecting the head.
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n iv infusion of dextrose 5% in normal saline (d5ns) 1,000 ml with oxytocin (pitocin) 20 units is prescibed for a client to control postpartum bleeding. the solution is to be administered at a rate of 2 mu/minute. how many ml/hour should the nurse program the infusion pump?
For a patient going through labour, the doctor administers oxytocin (Pitocin) at 0.5 milliunits per minute. Ten units of oxytocin (Pitocin) are infused into one litre of Ringer's lactate. The infusion pump should be set to 6 ml/hour by the nurse.
There are 20 units of oxytocin in 1000 ml of D5NS.
20 U = 20000 mu
20000 mu oxytocin is present in a 1000 ml solution.
20 mu of oxytocin are present per millilitre (20000/1000).
The necessary dose is 2 mu/min
The total dose needed in one hour (60 minutes) is 120 mu.
20 mu are now present in 1 ml.
1 mu can be found in 1/20 ml. There are 120 mu in 120 (1/20) = 6 ml.
So, provide 6 ml (120 mu) over the course of an hour. The 6 ml/hour infusion pump rate will be used.
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In conducting a primary survey on a trauma patient, which of the following is considered one of the priority elements of the primary survey?
A. Initiation of pulse oximetry.
B. Complete set of vital signs.
C. Client’s allergy history.
D. Brief neurologic assessment.
In conducting a primary survey on a trauma patient, the following which is considered one of the priority elements of the primary survey is brief neurologic assessment and is therefore denoted as option D.
What is a Trauma?This is referred to as an incident that causes physical, emotional, spiritual, or psychological harm to an individual.
This could cause different types of negative effect which is why a brief neurologic assessment which helps to determine the level of consciousness is needed as part of the primary survey and is therefore the reason why option D was chosen as the correct choice in this scenario.
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the school nurse is urgently called to the gymnasium regarding an injured student. the student is crying in severe pain with a malformed fractured lower leg. which proper sequence will the nurse follow to perform the initial assessment?
The proper sequence followed by the nurse will be Inspection and light palpation.
The body begins the healing process after a bone is broken (fractured). If the two ends of the broken bone are not lined up properly, the bone can heal with a deformity called a malunion. A malunion fracture occurs when new bone fills a large space between the displaced ends of the bone.
A malunion occurs when a fractured bone heals in an abnormal position, which can impair the function of the bone or limb and cause it to appear bent. Similarly, a nonunion occurs when a fractured bone fails to heal after an extended period of time - in some cases, 9 to 12 months.
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a novice nurse asks the preceptor to describe the primary purpose of evaluation. which statement made by the nursing preceptor is most accurate?
"Nurses use evaluation to determine the effectiveness of nursing care." is the statement made by the nursing preceptor most accurate.
Healthcare is the development of health via the prevention, diagnosis, treatment, amelioration, or remedy of sickness, infection, injury, and other bodily and intellectual impairments in human beings. Fitness care is delivered with the aid of fitness professionals and allied health fields.
Health care facilitates saving you from diseases and improves nicely of existence. Wholesome people 2030 focuses on improving fitness care best and making sure everybody gets the fitness care offerings they need. Helping fitness care companies communicate extra effectively can help improve fitness and properly-being.
Health care is defined as specific tiers of care: primary, secondary, tertiary, and quaternary.
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A 4-year-old patient is brought to the emergency department by his parents after a choking incident that occurred one hour ago. The parents tell you that their son was eating steak, started to laugh and then began choking. Since the incident, he has been coughing and wheezing. Physical exam reveals unilateral diminished breath sounds with auscultation of the lungs. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
A. begin a course of antibiotics and steroids
B. CXR
C. flexible bronchoscopy
D. rigid bronchoscopy
The option that is most appropriate next step in the management of a 4-year-old patient with unilateral diminished breath sounds with auscultation of the lungs is rigid bronchoscopy. Therefore, the correct answer is option D.
Rigid bronchoscopy is a medical procedure that is used to gain access to a patient's airway, thus allowing larger airway instruments (and cameras) to diagnose and treat airway diseases. It is also used to treat airway obstruction and remove foreign objects.
The patient in the question above has unilateral diminished breath sounds. It may mean that there is air or fluid in or around the lungs. It also may indicate that an over-inflation of a part of the lungs is happening. To make sure what happened to the patient's lungs and how to treat him properly, the physicians should use rigid bronchoscopy to find out with minimum risk.
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excessive growths of stratum corneum layer of epidermis that often occur on hands and feet
Stratum corneum hyperplasia refers to abnormal stratum corneum growths, which frequently affect the hands and feet. as well as bedsores and pressure sores.
Which layer of epidermis is mostly found in the skin on hands and feet?The whole outside of the body is covered by the biggest organ in the body, the skin. The epidermis, dermis, and hypodermis, the three layers that make up the skin, have distinctly different anatomical structures and physiological roles. The complex network of cells that make up the skin act as the body's first line of defense against viruses, UV rays, chemicals, and mechanical harm. The volume of water discharged into the environment and temperature are both controlled by it. This page covers the relevant vascular supply, innervation, embryology, anatomical components, function, and clinical relevance of the skin's epidermal layer.Skin layer thicknesses are classified according to the thickness of the epidermal and dermal layers and vary depending on the area of the body. Because of a second layer of epidermis called the stratum lucidum, the hairless skin on the palms of the hands and soles of the feet is the thickest. According to the thickness of the dermis, the upper back is the thickest, but histologically it is referred to as "thin skin" since the epidermal thickness is thinner than hairless skin and lacks the stratum lucidum layer.To Learn more About stratum corneum growths, refer to:
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when assessing an older adult as a candidate for crutch walking, the nurse should take into account that for some elderly people, crutch walking is an impractical goal primarily because of decreased:
The nurse should take into account that for some elderly people, Crutch walking is an impractical goal primarily because of decreased Motor coordination.
Some senior citizens aren't ideal candidates for crutch walking because they aren't strong enough to use crutches or because they lack the coordination needed to walk securely with crutches. Though less crucial than motor coordination, visual acuity may have an impact on a person's capacity to learn crutch walking.
Though less crucial than motor coordination, reaction time may affect a person's capacity to acquire crutch walking. Although it may have an impact, motor coordination is more significant when learning crutch walking. The capacity to sequence the activation of muscles in a way that maintains posture is known as motor coordination.
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William has a cut that is superficial, painful but not bleeding. Based on this information you would predict that the cut has penetrated to _____.
a. the stratum corneum but not the stratum granulosum.
b. the subcutaneous layer, but no deeper.
c. the stratum basale but not the dermal layers.
d. the papillary layer but not the reticular layer.
William has a cut that is superficial, and painful but not bleeding. Based on this information you would predict that the cut has penetrated to the stratum basale but not the dermal layers.
What is stratum basale?The basement membrane (basal lamina), which divides the stratum basale from the dermis, and hemidesmosomes, which connect to the basement membrane, are what hold the stratum basale, also known as stratum germinativum, together.
The keratinocytes travel into the stratum spinosum, a layer so named because its cells have a spiny form, from the stratum basale.
Therefore, the cut has penetrated to the stratum basale but not the dermal layers, hence option C is correct.
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due to its associated toxicity, which medication is indicated for use in patients for both atrial and ventricular dysrhythmias?
Amiodarone due to its associated toxicity, which medication is indicated for use in patients for both atrial and ventricular dysrhythmias.
Heartbeat irregularities called arrhythmias include instances where the heart beats too rapidly or too slowly. Other names for them include dysrhythmias, cardiac, and heart. Adults with bradycardia have excessively low resting heart rates, while those with tachycardia have excessively high resting heart rates (above 100 beats per minute). There are certain arrhythmias that show no symptoms at all. Palpitations or a halt of heartbeats are examples of symptoms that could be present. Chest pain, breathlessness, lightheadedness, or fainting could be signs of a more serious condition. A few arrhythmia occurrences can raise a person's risk of experiencing problems like a stroke or heart failure, even if the majority of arrhythmia episodes are not hazardous. Unexpected deaths might be caused by other people.
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a patient presents with heatstroke. the nurse uses cool packs, cooling blanket, and a fan. which technique is the nurse using when the fan produces heat loss?
Your physician may perform the following to do this on heatstroke: Put cold water on you. It has been demonstrated that the fastest way to drop your core body temperature is to take a cold or ice bath.
There is a lower chance of death in heatstroke and organ damage the sooner you can be submerged in cold water. Use cooling methods that involve evaporation. Health care professionals may use evaporation to try to lower your body temperature if cold water immersion is not an option. Warm air is blown over you as cool water is misted on your body, evaporating as it cools your skin. Provide cooling blankets and ice for you. Applying ice packs to your groin is another technique, which involves wrapping you in a special cooling blanket.
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hich factor prolongs death for 3 to 5 days in patients who develop gastrointestinal syndrome after exposure to a radiation dose of 30 gyt (3000 rad)?
The cell regeneration process has a turnover duration of 3 to 5 days, which is the answer.
In patients who suffer gastrointestinal syndrome after receiving a radiation dose of 3000 rad, the turnover period of 3 to 5 days for the cell renewal process factor causes the death to be postponed for 3 to 5 days.
Any condition or illness that affects the gastrointestinal tract is referred to as having gastrointestinal disorders. The GI tract can be impacted by a variety of ailments or disorders, which may then have an effect on digestion and/or general health. Before making a diagnosis, a doctor may need to conduct more tests because some disorders have identical symptoms.
So, the answer is that the cell regeneration process takes between three and five days to complete.
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the nurse determines which nursing intervention would best assist the client with a brain tumor who may be at increased risk for aspiration?
the nurse should determine evaluation of gag reflex and ability to swallow intervention would best assist the client with a brain tumor who may be at increased risk for aspiration.
An accumulation of aberrant brain cells is known as a brain tumour. Brain tumours come in a wide variety of forms. Brain tumours can vary in their cancerousness and non-cancerousness. Like other cancers, brain and spinal cord tumours are brought on by modifications to the DNA of cells. Our genes, which regulate how cells work, are made out of the molecule called DNA. Our parents are the origin of our DNA, thus we typically resemble them. But DNA has an impact beyond just our appearance. A malignant brain tumor's prognosis depends on mucosal lining factors such its location inside the brain, size, and grade. A brain tumour frequently returns and cannot always be removed, but it can occasionally be healed if discovered early on.
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an older adult client, who leads a sedentary lifestyle, and a younger client, who has a very stressful and active lifestyle, require a vaccine against a particular viral disorder. the nurse knows that in one of these clients, the vaccine will be less effective. in which client is the vaccine more likely to be less effective and why?
The vaccine more likely to be less effective in the male client because of his age.
A vaccine is a biological preparation that induces active acquired immunity against a specific infectious or malignant disease. Vaccine safety and effectiveness have been extensively researched and validated. A vaccine usually contains an agent that looks like a disease-causing microorganism and is often made from weakened or killed versions of the microbe, its toxins, or one of its surface proteins.
The agent stimulates the body's immune system to recognize the agent as a threat, destroy it, and then recognize and destroy any future microorganisms associated with that agent.
Vaccines can be either prophylactic (to prevent or mitigate the effects of a future infection by a natural or "wild" pathogen) or therapeutic (to treat an existing infection) (to fight a disease that has already occurred, such as cancer). Some vaccines provide full sterilizing immunity, which means infection is completely avoided.
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Which of the following describes an acute infection caused by reactivation of dormant chickenpox virus?
a. Herpes simplex
b. Herpes zoster
c. Meningococcemia
d. Verrucae
Answer:
b. Herpes zoster
Explanation:
Herpes zoster, also known as shingles, is an acute infection caused by the reactivation of the dormant chickenpox virus (varicella zoster virus). It is characterized by a painful rash and blisters on the skin, often appearing on one side of the body or face. It can also cause neurological symptoms such as weakness, numbness, and pain. The virus is reactivated due to a decrease in the body's immune system function, which can occur due to aging, stress, or certain medications. Herpes simplex is a different type of herpes virus that causes cold sores or genital herpes. Meningococcemia is a bacterial infection caused by Neisseria meningitidis that can lead to meningitis and sepsis. Verrucae are wart-like growths caused by the human papillomavirus (HPV).
the main problem with u.s. services for the elderly who have adl (activities of daily life) impairments but do not need nursing-home care is their:
The main problem with U.S. services for the elderly who have ADL (activities of daily life) impairments but do not need nursing-home care is their high cost.
The activities of daily living ar classified into basic ADLs and Instrumental Activities of Daily Life (IADLs). The fundamental ADLs (BADL) or physical ADLs ar those skills needed to manage one's basic physical wants, as well as personal hygiene or grooming, dressing, toileting, transferring or ambulating, and eating.
Nursing Home Care is provided 24-hours on a daily basis by Registered Nurses who ar supported by Care Assistants. All residents need some part of medical care like administration of endovenous medication and or wound care; these are simply a couple of attainable reasons why 24-hour medical care would be needed.
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at 1930 the client reports experiencing neuropathic pain in the legs. the client has a history of neuropathic pain following chemotherapy. the client describes the pain as burning and rates the pain as a 7 on the pain scale of 1 to 10. based on the client's medication orders (above), which medication would the nurse administer to the client for a report of pain?
Answer:
acetaminophen/codeine 1 tablet
a client has been involved in a motor vehicle accident and has sustained spinal cord damage. the client has voluntary motor function loss on one side and a loss of pain and temperature sensation from the contralateral side below the level of the lesion. what type of cord syndrome does the nurse recognize the client has sustained?
Answer:
It sounds like the client has sustained a spinal cord injury that has resulted in Brown-Sequard syndrome. This type of spinal cord injury is characterized by the loss of voluntary motor function on one side of the body and a loss of pain and temperature sensation on the opposite side below the level of the lesion. This type of injury is typically caused by a penetrating injury to the spinal cord, such as a knife wound or gunshot wound. Treatment typically involves addressing any life-threatening injuries and providing supportive care to prevent complications. In some cases, surgery may be necessary to repair the damaged spinal cord.
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Explanation:
a client with septic shock receives a prescription for ddextrose 5% in water (d5w) 250 ml with dopamine (intropin) 0.6 grams/250 ml at a rate of 5 mcg/kg/minute. the client's weight is 148 pounds the nurse should set the infusion pump to deliver how many ml/hour?
The client's weight is 148 pounds the nurse should set the infusion pump to deliver 8 ml/hour.
First convert the weight into kilograms: 148 pounds/2.2 kg = 67 kg.
Next calculate the number of mcg/kg/minute: 5 x 67 x 1 minute = 335 mcg/min.
Calculate the number of mcg/hour: 335 x 60 minutes = 20,100 mcg/hour.
Now calculate the number of ml/hour needed to administer 20,100 mcg/hour: 600,000 mcg : 250 ml :: 20,100 mcg : X ml 600,000/20100 :: 250/X 600,000X = 5,02500 X = 8.375 (rounded to) 8 ml/hour.
Septic shock is a life-threatening condition that happens when your blood pressure drops to a dangerously low level after an infection. The infection can be caused by any type of bacteria. Fungi such as candida and viruses can also be a cause, although this is rare. At first the infection can lead to a reaction called sepsis.
Sepsis can cause abnormal blood clotting, resulting in small clots or burst blood vessels that cause tissue damage or destruction. Most people recover from mild sepsis, but septic shock has a 40% mortality rate.
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TRUE/FALSE. continuous improvement in the context of a hospital organization entails maintaining profitability, even if some quality measures have to be traded off.
Continuous improvement in the context of a hospital organization entails maintaining profitability, even if some quality measures have to be traded off. The given statement is false.
A group of people who cooperate is known as an organisation. Examples of such groups include unions, corporations, charities, and neighbourhood associations. The term "organisation" can be used to describe a person, a company, a group, or the process of creating something. A club, corporation, charity, or political party are all examples of official groups of individuals. These specialty schools are chronic illness primarily offered by nonprofit institutions. Functional, departmental, and matrix organisations are the three types of organisations that best reflect the organisational structures currently used by the majority of businesses. Owners must weigh the benefits and drawbacks of each of these formats before picking which to use for their particular firm.
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a pediatric client with a ventricular septal defect repair is placed on a maintenance dose of digoxin. the safe dose is 0.03 mg/kg/day, and the client's weight is 7.2 kg. the primary health care provider (phcp) prescribes the digoxin to be given twice daily. how much digoxin would the nurse administer to the client at each dose?
The digoxin that the nurse administers to the patient at each dose is 28.8 mcg.
Digoxin is in a class of drugs called cardiac glycosides. Their function is to slow the heart rate and improve the filling of the ventricles with blood. Digoxin belongs to a class of drugs called digitalis glycosides. Used to improve heart strength and efficiency or to control heart rate and rhythm.
This improves circulation and reduces swelling in the hands and ankles of patients with heart problems. Digoxin is used to treat heart failure, usually with other drugs. It is also used to treat certain types of arrhythmias. Treatment for heart failure helps maintain walking ability and improve heart strength.
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client signed a consent form for participation in a clinical trial for implantable cardioverter-defibrillators. which statement by the client indicates the need for further teaching before true informed consent can be obtained?
The client's statement that indicates that they need further teaching before true informed consent can be obtained is the one that says "I wonder if there is any other way to prevent these bad rhythms."
Informed consent is a principle in medical ethics and medical law. It's a communication process between the patient and their healthcare provider that is done in order to make sure that the patient has sufficient information and understanding before they make any decisions about their medical care.
The statement "I wonder if there is any other way to prevent these bad rhythms" indicates that other treatment options haven't been discussed yet with the client. To make sure that the client does informed consent, their provider must inform them with any other available treatment options.
Your question seems incomplete. The completed version is most likely as follows:
a client signed a consent form for participation in a clinical trial for implantable cardioverter-defibrillators. Which statement by the client indicates the need for further teaching before true informed consent can be obtained?
Options:
A) this implanted of defibrillator will protect me against some those bad rhythms my heart goes into
B) I wonder if there is any other way to prevent these bad rhythms
C) The physician will make a small incision in my chest wall and place the generator there
D) A wire from the generator will be attached to my heart
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When lifting or moving any patient, the EMT must remember to primarily use the muscles of his or her:
Select one:
a. arms.
b. legs.
c. back.
d. hips.
When lifting or moving any patient, the EMT must remember to primarily use the muscles of his or her legs. Thus, the correct option is B.
What measures should be taken by the EMT?EMT is the Emergency medical technician. It is also known as an ambulance technician, it is a health professional which provides emergency medical services to the patients such as basic first-aid treatment as needed.
The roles of EMT include response appropriately to the emergency calls, assess a person's condition and know how to provide proper medical care to the patient, put together an initial plan of care to quickly stabilize an individual in the distress.
The best way to lift or move any patient, includes the EMT must remember to primarily use the muscles of his or her legs.
Therefore, the correct option is B.
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the parents of a child admitted with rheumatic fever (rf) ask why the child has been placed on bedrest. the nurse explains that bedrest serves what primary purpose for the client?
Bedrest serves primary purpose for the client with rheumatic fever to restrict the inflammation and pain.
Rheumatic fever (acute rheumatic fever) is a condition that may have an effect on the guts, joints, brain, and skin. infectious disease will develop if infection, contagion, and strep skin infections aren't treated properly. Symptoms embody fever and painful, tender joints. Treatment involves medication, typically for keeps.
Rheumatic fever causes inflammation, particularly of the guts, blood vessels and joints. The heart valves may be inflamed and become scarred over time. Rheumatic fever will cause long complications in sure things. It primarily affects youngsters between the ages of six and sixteen.
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a written description of what is right and wrong, and what is acceptable behavior in the healthcare field, is known as:
A written description of what is right and wrong, and what is acceptable behavior in the health care field, is known as: The Patient's Bill of Rights.
The patient's bill of rights is a list of their legal privileges when receiving medical care. It could be stated as a legal principle or a recommendation. A patient's bill of rights typically guarantees that they will have access to information, be treated fairly, and have the ability to make their own medical decisions. Under the direction of the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare, India's National Human Rights Commission developed a Charter of Patients' Rights in 2018. (MOHFW). MOHFW placed the draft in the open for comments in August 2018 in response to the National Council of Clinical Establishments' request.
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___________ refers to the exploration of feelings of sorrow, anger, and guilt over the experience of a significant loss.a.Grief workb.Primal therapyc, catharsisd,Dream work
Grief work refers to the exploration of feelings of sorrow, anger, and guilt over the experience of a significant loss.
Grief work is a type of psychotherapy that tries to assist clients in navigating the cognitive, emotional, social, spiritual, and bodily reactions to loss. These feelings are frequently associated with the loss of a loved one, but they can also be regarded more generally as being influenced by any catastrophic loss that has a large life-altering impact. According to grief counsellors, each person's experience and expression of grief is unique to them and is influenced by their family background, personal values, and core beliefs. They think it's usual for people maternal comfort to isolate themselves from friends and family and feel helpless; some people may even be angry and wish to take action. Some people could laugh, while others might feel intense sorrow or guilt. Both crying and not crying might be considered acceptable ways to show grief.
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Which of the following is NOT a recommended guideline of the American Medical Association as a way to protect electronic medical records?
Keep all backup disks in a safe place away from the practice
Prepare a backup plan for use when the computer system is down
Change login codes every 18 months
Store disks in a bank safe deposit box
Set security levels to limit entry to all functions
In order to safeguard electronic medical records, the American Medical Association changes login codes every 18 months.
Which medical course is the best?Medical and surgical bachelor's degree: This degree, which is sometimes referred to as MBBS, is frequently regarded as the most prestigious in the medical industry. To enroll in this programme, one must successfully pass the NEET UG admission test.
What does a work medical entail?Pre-placement health testing and pre-employment medical exams both seek to analyze and monitor people in order to identify risk factors that could prevent them from performing effectively at work. It guarantees there is no risk to the employee or their coworkers.
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Mr. Davis had a percutaneous transluminal angioplasty of the left anterior descending artery and the left circumflex branch.
4A: _______ 4B: _______
I am having a hard time with this question and think I put the wrong answers. Should the ICD 10 code for percutaneous transluminal angioplasty start with a 3 or a 9?
Mr. Davis had a percutaneous transluminal angioplasty of the left anterior descending artery and the left circumflex branch.
4A: 92920 4B: 92921-51
What is percutaneous transluminal angioplasty?Percutaneous transluminal angioplasty (PTA) is described as a procedure that can open up a blocked blood vessel using a small, flexible plastic tube, or catheter, with a "balloon" at the end of it.
During, Percutaneous transluminal angioplasty and when the tube is in place, it inflates to open the blood vessel, or artery, so that normal blood flow is restored.
The ICD-10 code for Percutaneous transluminal angioplasty is Z98. 61. Coronary angioplasty status is a medical classification as listed by WHO under the range of factors influencing health status and contact with health services .
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the nurse is caring for a client who is scheduled for the creation of an ileal conduit. which statement by the client provides evidence that client teaching was effective?
The statement by the client provides evidence that client teaching was effective is "I will not need to worry about being incontinent of urine."
An ileal conduit is one of the numerous surgical techniques for urinary diversion. It's typically been named because of the Bricker ileal conduit after its inventor, Eugene M. Bricker. During the procedure, a MD creates a replacement tube from a chunk of bowel that permits the kidneys to empty and urine to exit the body through atiny low gap known as a stoma.
Incontinent of urine is a common and infrequently embarrassing problem. The severity ranges from sometimes leaking urine once you cough or sneeze to having an urge to urinate that is therefore sharp and powerful you do not get to a rest room in time.
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TRUE/FALSE. the medical record must meet the standards defined by the centers for medicare and medicaid services conditions of participation, any other federal regulations, state laws, and accrediting agencies such as the joint commission on accreditation of healthcare organizations.
The medical record must meet the standards defined by the Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services Conditions of Participation, any other federal regulations, state laws, and accrediting agencies such as the Joint Commission on Accreditation of Healthcare Organizations. This statement is True.
The Centers for Medicare & Medicaid Services (CMS) is a federal agency within the United States Department of Health and Human Services (HHS) that administers the Medicare program as well as Medicaid, the Children's Health Insurance Program (CHIP), and health insurance portability standards in collaboration with state governments.
CMS also has administrative simplification standards from the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act of 1996 (HIPAA), quality standards in long-term care facilities (more commonly known as nursing homes) through its survey and certification process, clinical laboratory quality standards under the Clinical Laboratory Improvement Amendments, and oversight of HealthCare.gov. Until 2001, CMS was known as the Health Care Financing Administration (HCFA).
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