PLZ I NEED ANSWER ILL GIVE BRAINLIEST

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

The formula for exponential equations is

[tex]y=a(b)^x[/tex] where a is the initial value and b is the growth rate. If b is greater than 1, we have growth; if  0 < b < 1, then we have decay. The only choice that shows a b value greater than 1 is the first one where b = 3. (The last one is also a decay as it can be written as

[tex]f(x)=0.9(\frac{1}{5x})[/tex] which isn't even exponential!)

9514 1404 393

Answer:

  C

Step-by-step explanation:

The ellipse y-intercepts are ±3, the x-intercepts are ±9, eliminating choices A and B. The parabola is shaded inside, eliminating choice D.

The correct choice is the third one.

Answer:

68.5

Step-by-step explanation:

Arc ABE = 360 - 2x

Arc AE = 2x

half the difference between the two arcs is 43

43 = [tex]\frac{1}{2}[/tex] [360 -2x - (2x)]    

Answer:

25

Step-by-step explanation:

6ab of 2a ÷ 12 × 12ab + 14a - a

= 6ab * 2a ÷ 12 × 12ab + 14a - a

= 12a²b ÷ 144ab + 13a

= 12*a*a*b / 144*a*b + 13*a

= a/12 + 13*a

= 1/12 + 13

= 1/25

Answer:

son Judy even eat and technology and yyry and then he will get your BMW

Answer:

La magnitud de la velocidad angular es 0.026 rad/s y la magnitud del desplazamiento angular es 4.71 rad.

Step-by-step explanation:

Podemos encontrar la magnitud de la velocidad angular (ω) del disco con la siguiente ecuación:

[tex] \omega = \frac{\theta}{t} [/tex]

En donde:

θ: es el desplazamiento angular = 0.75 rev

t: es el tiempo = 180 s

Primero debemos cambiar las unidades del desplazamiento angular de revoluciones a radianes:

[tex] \theta = 0.75 rev*\frac{2\pi rad}{1 rev} = 4.71 rad [/tex]

Entonces, la velocidad angular es:

[tex] \omega = \frac{4.71 rad}{180 s} = 0.026 rad/s [/tex]

Por lo tanto, la magnitud de la velocidad angular es 0.026 rad/s y la magnitud del desplazamiento angular es 4.71 rad.

Espero que te sea de utilidad!        

Step-by-step explanation:

ratio =4:1

total= 4+1 =5

1/5 × 52= 10.4 years

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

let age of Shyam=x

age of Ram=x+4

x+x+4=52

2x=52-4=48

2x=48

x=48/2=24

age of Shyam=24 years

age of Ram=24+4=28 years.

Orders of Magnitude are in terms of scientific notation.

23,000 written in scientific notation is 2.3 x 10^4, it's magnitude is 4 ( the number 10 is raised to)

56 in scientific notation would be 5.6 x 10^1, its magnitude is 1.

4 - 1 = 3

2300 is 3 order of magnitudes larger.

The answer is 3.

Answer: b

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

The answer should be 30. I don’t know if those letters are apart of it but it’s 30.

Answer:

[see below]

Step-by-step explanation:

There are 100 cm in a meter.

9.56/100 = 0.0956

Hope this helps you.

(PS: You can mark the other user as Branliest)

Answer:

C

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

2 units

Step-by-step explanation:

Using the given formula

P = 2(l + w)

  = 2([tex]\frac{2}{3}[/tex] + [tex]\frac{1}{3}[/tex] )

   = 2(1)

   = 2 units

Answer:

Im guessing because their no chart.

Step-by-step explanation:

The answer is.

Vertex: 0,4.

Domain: X is a real number.

Range: 4.

Answer:

2 meters.

Step-by-step explanation:

We know that a cube of sidelength L has a volume:

V = L^3

Here, we know that the volume of water that the cube can hold is:

(1000/125) m^3

Then the volume of our cube is exactly that:

V = (1000/125) m^3

Then we have the equation:

L^3 = (1000/125) m^3

Which we can solve for L

L = ∛((1000/125) m^3 ) = (∛1000/∛125) m

Where we used that:

∛(a/b) = ∛a/∛b

Solving the cubic roots, we get:

L = (10/5) m = 2m

The length of the side of the water tank is 2 meters.

Answer:

A mammogram is what she would receive

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

Please find the complete question in the attached file.

Step-by-step explanation:

Calculation with Lagrange multipliers of its optimum restricted places,

[tex]f_x = 2\ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ g_x = 2x\\\\f_y = 1 \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ g_y = 2y\\\\[/tex]

Set the multiplier formulas for Lagrange:

[tex]f_x = \lambda g_x \to 2 = \lambda 2x ............ (i)\\\\f-y = \lambda g_y \to 1 = \lambda 2y................ (ii)\\\\constraint: \\\\\to x^2 + y^2 = 5 .................... (iii)\\\\Taking \ (i)\ divides\ (ii), \ (assuming\ \lambda \neq 0)\\\\\frac{2}{1}=\frac{\lambda 2x}{\lambda 2y}=\frac{x}{y}\\\\\therefore \\\\2y = x\\\\Sub\ into\ (iii)\ to\ find\\\\4y^2 + y^2 = 5 \to y = \pm 1\\\\[/tex]

We get solutions (x,y)=(2,1) and (−2,−1) if combined with 2y = x. These are all the identical points we obtained in (c) and we know the f(2,1) is the max, whereas f(−2, −1) is a minimum.

Answer:

A number line from negative 5 to 5 in increments of 1. An open circle is at 3 and a bold line starts at 3 and is pointing to the right.

Step-by-step explanation:

Given

[tex]3(8 - 4x) < 6(x - 5)[/tex]

Required

Describe the number line

We have:

[tex]3(8 - 4x) < 6(x - 5)[/tex]

Open brackets

[tex]24 - 12x < 6x - 30[/tex]

Collect like terms

[tex]-12x - 6x < -30 - 24[/tex]

[tex]-18x < -54[/tex]

Divide by -18 (the inequality changes)

[tex]x > 3[/tex]

[tex]>[/tex] means that the arrow on the number line points to the right, and it makes use of an open circle that starts from 3.

Answer:

based on what he said the answer is b

Step-by-step explanation:

i belive the answer is c

Answer:

We know that in the box there are:

4 twix

3 kit-kat

Then the total number of candy in the box is:

4 +3 = 7

a)

Here we want to find the probability that we draw two twix.

All the candy has the same probability of being drawn from the box.

So, the probability of getting a twix in the first drawn, is equal to the quotient between the number of twix and the total number of candy in the box, this is:

p = 4/7

Now for the second draw, we do the same, but because we have already drawn one twix before, now the number of twix in the box is 3, and the total number of candy in the box is 6.

this time the probability is:

q = 3/6 = 1/2

The joint probability is the product of the individual probabilities, so here we have

P = p*q = (4/7)*(1/2) =  2/7

b) same reasoning than in the previous case:

For the first bar, the probability is:

p = 3/7

for the second bar, the probability is:

q = 2/6 = 1/3

The joint probability is:

P = p*q = (3/7)*(1/3) = 1/7

c) Suppose that first we draw a twix.

The probability we already know that is:

p = 4/7

Now we want another type, so we need to draw a kit-kat, the probability will be equal to the quotient between the remaining kit-kat bars (3) and the total number of candy in the box (6)

q = 3/6

The joint probability is:

P = p*q = (4/7)*(3/6) = 2/7

But, we also have the case where we first draw a kit-kat and after a twix, so we have a permutation of two, then the probability in this case is:

Probability = 2*P = 2*2/7 = 4/7

Answer:

(1,2)

Step-by-step explanation:

1. plug x into the equation:

[tex]2<\frac{2}{3}(1)+2[/tex]

2. simplify:

[tex]2<\frac{2}{3}+2[/tex]

[tex]2<\frac{2}{3}+\frac{6}{3}[/tex]

[tex]2<\frac{8}{3}[/tex]

since 8/3 is greather than 2, (1,2) is a solution

Answer:

See figure below.

Step-by-step explanation:

See the figure below.

Answer:

15 hour(s) and 30 minute(s).

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

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Step-by-step explanation:

the UK. I have been a while. I have been a while. I have been a while. I have been a while 6e5 the UK. I have been a while. I have been a while. I have

. How do we have a look at the moment. The comments for the first time in the UK. I

Answer:

1cm divided by 17 = 32 then subtract the 32 into 17

Answer:

Distributive property.

Step-by-step explanation:

.

Answer:

holis polis trolis bsuslsgddnnbz

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

Let one angle = A

Let the other angle = B

A + B = 180

A = B - 16.4                   Substitute for A in the top equation

B - 16.4 + B = 180         Combine the left

2B - 16.4 = 180             Add 16.4 to both sides

2B = 180 + 16.4

2B = 196.4                    Divide by 2

B = 196.4/2

B = 98.2

A = B - 16.4

A = 98.2 - 16.4

A = 81.8

Answer:

The lengths of the other sides would be 10, as well.

Step-by-step explanation:

Since we already know two of the three angles, we can subtract to find the other angle. The interior angles of a triangle will always add up to 180°. We have 60° and 60°, giving us 120°. 180 - 120 is equal to 60°, so that's the missing angle. Because all of the angles are the same, this is an equilateral triangle, which means the sides also have to be the same length. If one of the sides is 10, all of the sides are 10.

The triangle with sides 10 , 10 and 10 and all angles at 60° is an equilateral triangle

An equilateral triangle is a triangle in which all three sides have the same length.

Let the triangle be ΔABC , and

∠A = ∠B = ∠C = 60° and AB = BC = CA

Given data ,

Let the triangle be represented as ΔABC

Let the side length of the triangle be AB = 10

Now , the measure of ∠ABC = 60°

And , the measure of ∠BAC = 60°

So , the total sum of all the angles in a triangle = 180°

And , the measure of ∠ACB = 180° - ( 60° + 60° ) = 60°

Therefore , all the angles of the triangle are 60°

So , it is an equilateral triangle

And , the measure of side lengths of the triangle is 10

Therefore , AB = BC = CA = 10

Hence , it is an equilateral triangle

To learn more about equilateral triangle click :

https://brainly.com/question/17824549

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