plz help me find the answers​

Answer:

See figure below.

Step-by-step explanation:

See the figure below.

Orders of Magnitude are in terms of scientific notation.

23,000 written in scientific notation is 2.3 x 10^4, it's magnitude is 4 ( the number 10 is raised to)

56 in scientific notation would be 5.6 x 10^1, its magnitude is 1.

4 - 1 = 3

2300 is 3 order of magnitudes larger.

The answer is 3.

Answer:

1st one

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

25

Step-by-step explanation:

6ab of 2a ÷ 12 × 12ab + 14a - a

= 6ab * 2a ÷ 12 × 12ab + 14a - a

= 12a²b ÷ 144ab + 13a

= 12*a*a*b / 144*a*b + 13*a

= a/12 + 13*a

= 1/12 + 13

= 1/25

Answer:

We know that in the box there are:

4 twix

3 kit-kat

Then the total number of candy in the box is:

4 +3 = 7

a)

Here we want to find the probability that we draw two twix.

All the candy has the same probability of being drawn from the box.

So, the probability of getting a twix in the first drawn, is equal to the quotient between the number of twix and the total number of candy in the box, this is:

p = 4/7

Now for the second draw, we do the same, but because we have already drawn one twix before, now the number of twix in the box is 3, and the total number of candy in the box is 6.

this time the probability is:

q = 3/6 = 1/2

The joint probability is the product of the individual probabilities, so here we have

P = p*q = (4/7)*(1/2) =  2/7

b) same reasoning than in the previous case:

For the first bar, the probability is:

p = 3/7

for the second bar, the probability is:

q = 2/6 = 1/3

The joint probability is:

P = p*q = (3/7)*(1/3) = 1/7

c) Suppose that first we draw a twix.

The probability we already know that is:

p = 4/7

Now we want another type, so we need to draw a kit-kat, the probability will be equal to the quotient between the remaining kit-kat bars (3) and the total number of candy in the box (6)

q = 3/6

The joint probability is:

P = p*q = (4/7)*(3/6) = 2/7

But, we also have the case where we first draw a kit-kat and after a twix, so we have a permutation of two, then the probability in this case is:

Probability = 2*P = 2*2/7 = 4/7

Point F

Point E

These lie in the second quadrant.

Answer:

Im guessing because their no chart.

Step-by-step explanation:

The answer is.

Vertex: 0,4.

Domain: X is a real number.

Range: 4.

Answer:

Please find the complete question in the attached file.

Step-by-step explanation:

Calculation with Lagrange multipliers of its optimum restricted places,

[tex]f_x = 2\ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ g_x = 2x\\\\f_y = 1 \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ g_y = 2y\\\\[/tex]

Set the multiplier formulas for Lagrange:

[tex]f_x = \lambda g_x \to 2 = \lambda 2x ............ (i)\\\\f-y = \lambda g_y \to 1 = \lambda 2y................ (ii)\\\\constraint: \\\\\to x^2 + y^2 = 5 .................... (iii)\\\\Taking \ (i)\ divides\ (ii), \ (assuming\ \lambda \neq 0)\\\\\frac{2}{1}=\frac{\lambda 2x}{\lambda 2y}=\frac{x}{y}\\\\\therefore \\\\2y = x\\\\Sub\ into\ (iii)\ to\ find\\\\4y^2 + y^2 = 5 \to y = \pm 1\\\\[/tex]

We get solutions (x,y)=(2,1) and (−2,−1) if combined with 2y = x. These are all the identical points we obtained in (c) and we know the f(2,1) is the max, whereas f(−2, −1) is a minimum.

Answer: b

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

15 hour(s) and 30 minute(s).

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

krkrkrl4k3?8999kekek

Step-by-step explanation:

the UK. I have been a while. I have been a while. I have been a while. I have been a while 6e5 the UK. I have been a while. I have been a while. I have

. How do we have a look at the moment. The comments for the first time in the UK. I

Answer:

(1,2)

Step-by-step explanation:

1. plug x into the equation:

[tex]2<\frac{2}{3}(1)+2[/tex]

2. simplify:

[tex]2<\frac{2}{3}+2[/tex]

[tex]2<\frac{2}{3}+\frac{6}{3}[/tex]

[tex]2<\frac{8}{3}[/tex]

since 8/3 is greather than 2, (1,2) is a solution

Answer:

68.5

Step-by-step explanation:

Arc ABE = 360 - 2x

Arc AE = 2x

half the difference between the two arcs is 43

43 = [tex]\frac{1}{2}[/tex] [360 -2x - (2x)]    

Answer:

11 feet

Step-by-step explanation:

Given,

Area of square ( a^2 ) = 121 ft

To find : Length of each side ( a ) = ?

Formula : -

Area of square = a^2

a^2 = 121

a = √121

a = 11 feet

Answer:

11 ft = side length

Step-by-step explanation:

The area of a square is found by

A = s^2

121 = s^2

Taking the square root of each side

sqrt(121) = sqrt(s^2)

11 = s

Answer:

A) 60%

Step-by-step explanation:

24/40

= 0.6

0.6*100

= 60%

I really hope this is right and it helps.

Answer:

23

4* 4  = 16

cir = 2[tex]\pi[/tex]r = 2[tex]\pi[/tex](1.2) = 2.4[tex]\pi[/tex]

16 + 2.4[tex]\pi[/tex] = 23.53

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

B

Step-by-step explanation:

Let divide g(x) by f(x)

[tex] \frac{ {x}^{2} - 9 }{2 - x {}^{ \frac{1}{2} } } [/tex]

The domain of a rational function cannot equal zero so let set the bottom function to zero.

[tex]2 - x {}^{ \frac{1}{2} } = 0[/tex]

[tex]x {}^{ \frac{1}{2} } = 2[/tex]

Square both sides

[tex]x = 4[/tex]

Also we can simplify the bottom denomiator into a square root function

[tex]2 - \sqrt{x} [/tex]

The domain of a square root function is all real number greater than or equal to zero because a square root of a negative number isn't graphable.

So we must find a answer that

Answer:

335+306h

Step-by-step explanation:

solve the brackets first by distributing 18 to 17h and 19

-7+306h+342

then group the like terms

-7+342+306h

335+306h

Answer:

a

Step-by-step explanation:

∠DAF - ∠CFA=∠DFC

 118-49 =69

Answer:

2 meters.

Step-by-step explanation:

We know that a cube of sidelength L has a volume:

V = L^3

Here, we know that the volume of water that the cube can hold is:

(1000/125) m^3

Then the volume of our cube is exactly that:

V = (1000/125) m^3

Then we have the equation:

L^3 = (1000/125) m^3

Which we can solve for L

L = ∛((1000/125) m^3 ) = (∛1000/∛125) m

Where we used that:

∛(a/b) = ∛a/∛b

Solving the cubic roots, we get:

L = (10/5) m = 2m

The length of the side of the water tank is 2 meters.

Answer:

The answer should be 30. I don’t know if those letters are apart of it but it’s 30.

Answer:

the answer is A, if you need explanation comment

Step-by-step explanation:

9514 1404 393

Answer:

  C

Step-by-step explanation:

The ellipse y-intercepts are ±3, the x-intercepts are ±9, eliminating choices A and B. The parabola is shaded inside, eliminating choice D.

The correct choice is the third one.

Answer:

son Judy even eat and technology and yyry and then he will get your BMW

Answer:

A mammogram is what she would receive

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

x ≈ 52.1°

Step-by-step explanation:

Using the tangent ratio in the right triangle

tan x = [tex]\frac{opposite}{adjacent}[/tex] = [tex]\frac{KL}{LM}[/tex] = [tex]\frac{36}{28}[/tex] , then

x = [tex]tan^{-1}[/tex] ([tex]\frac{36}{28}[/tex] ) ≈ 52.1° () to the nearest tenth )

Answer:

x ≈ 2.0794

Step-by-step explanation:

Given

[tex]e^{x}[/tex] = 8 ( take ln of both sides )

ln [tex]e^{x}[/tex] = ln 8

x lne = ln 8 [ lne = 1 ]

x = ln 8 ≈ 2.0794 ( to 4 dec. places )

Answer:

x ≈ 2.0794

Step-by-step explanation:

[tex] \small \sf \: e {}^{x} = 8[/tex]

Take the natural logarithm of both side of equation

[tex] \small \sf \: Use \: In(e {}^{x} ) = x \: to \: simplify \: the \: expression.[/tex]

Write the number in exponential form.

Use In(aⁿ) = n × In ( a ) to transform the expression.

Round to four decimal places = 2.0794