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Answer:

Speed of the electron is 2.46 x 10^8 m/s

Explanation:

momentum of the electron before relativistic effect = [tex]M_{0} V[/tex]

where [tex]M_{0}[/tex] is the rest mass of the electron

V is the velocity of the electron.

under relativistic effect, the mass increases.

under relativistic effect, the new mass M will be

M = [tex]M_{0}/ \sqrt{1 - \beta ^{2} }[/tex]

where

[tex]\beta = V/c[/tex]

c  is the speed of light = 3 x 10^8 m/s

V is the speed with which the electron travels.

The new momentum will therefore be

==> [tex]M_{0}V/ \sqrt{1 - \beta ^{2} }[/tex]

It is stated that the relativistic momentum is 1.75 times the non-relativistic momentum. Equating, we have

1.75[tex]M_{0} V[/tex] = [tex]M_{0}V/ \sqrt{1 - \beta ^{2} }[/tex]

the equation reduces to

1.75 = [tex]1/ \sqrt{1 - \beta ^{2} }[/tex]

square both sides of the equation, we have

3.0625 = 1/[tex](1 - \beta ^{2} )[/tex]

3.0625 - 3.0625[tex]\beta ^{2}[/tex] = 1

2.0625 = 3.0625[tex]\beta ^{2}[/tex]

[tex]\beta ^{2}[/tex] = 0.67

β = 0.819

substitute for  [tex]\beta = V/c[/tex]

V/c = 0.819

V = c x 0.819

V = 3 x 10^8 x 0.819 = 2.46 x 10^8 m/s

Answer:

c. 70 Ω

Explanation:

The R and R resistors are in parallel.  The 2R and 2R resistors are in parallel.  The 4R and 4R resistors are in parallel.  Each parallel combination is in series with each other.  Therefore, the equivalent resistance is:

Req = 1/(1/R + 1/R) + 1/(1/2R + 1/2R) + 1/(1/4R + 1/4R)

Req = R/2 + 2R/2 + 4R/2

Req = 3.5R

Req = 70Ω

Answer:

Upper plate Q/3

Lower plate 2Q/3

Explanation:

See attached file

Answer

The effect is that it Decreases the field current IF and increases slope K1

Answer:

The time taken is  [tex]\Delta t = 1.5 \ s[/tex]

Explanation:

From the question we are told that

   The mass of the ball is  [tex]m = 1.25 \ kg[/tex]

    The time taken to make the first complete revolution is  t= 3.60 s

    The displacement of the first complete revolution is  [tex]\theta = 1 rev = 2 \pi \ radian[/tex]

Generally the displacement for one  complete revolution is mathematically represented as

       [tex]\theta = w_i t + \frac{1}{2} * \alpha * t^2[/tex]

Now given that the stone started from rest [tex]w_i = 0 \ rad / s[/tex]

     [tex]2 \pi =0 + 0.5* \alpha *(3.60)^2[/tex]

     [tex]\alpha = 0.9698 \ s[/tex]

Now the displacement for two  complete revolution is

         [tex]\theta_2 = 2 * 2\pi[/tex]

         [tex]\theta_2 = 4\pi[/tex]

Generally the displacement for two complete revolution is mathematically represented as  

     [tex]4 \pi = 0 + 0.5 * 0.9698 * t^2[/tex]

=>   [tex]t^2 = 25.9187[/tex]

=>   [tex]t= 5.1 \ s[/tex]

So

 The  time taken to complete the next oscillation is mathematically evaluated as

     [tex]\Delta t = t_2 - t[/tex]

substituting values

      [tex]\Delta t = 5.1 - 3.60[/tex]

     [tex]\Delta t = 1.5 \ s[/tex]

The time for the ball to complete the next revolution is 1.5 s.

The given parameters;

The constant angular acceleration of the ball is calculated as follows;

[tex]\theta = \omega t \ + \ \frac{1}{2} \alpha t^2\\\\2\pi = 0 \ + \ 0.5(3.6)^2 \alpha\\\\2\pi = 6.48 \alpha \\\\\alpha = \frac{2 \pi }{6.48} \\\\\alpha = 0.97 \ rad/s^2[/tex]

The time to complete the next revolution is calculated as follows;

[tex]4\pi = 0 + \frac{1}{2} (0.97)t^2\\\\8\pi = 0.97t^2\\\\t^2 = \frac{8\pi }{0.97} \\\\t^2 = 25.91\\\\t = \sqrt{ 25.91} \\\\t = 5.1 \ s[/tex]

[tex]\Delta t = 5.1 \ s \ - \ 3.6 \ s \\\\\Delta t = 1.5 \ s[/tex]

Thus, the time for the ball to complete the next revolution is 1.5 s.

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Explanation:

Consider a loop of wire, which has an area of [tex]A=14 \mathrm{cm}^{2}[/tex] and [tex]N=250[/tex] turns, it is initially placed perpendicularly in the earth magnetic field. Then it is rotated from this position to a position where its plane is parallel to the field as shown in the following figure in [tex]\Delta t=0.030[/tex] s. Given that the earth's magnetic field at the position of the loop is [tex]B=5.0 \times 10^{-5} \mathrm{T}[/tex], the flux through the loop before it is rotated is,

[tex]\Phi_{B, i} &=B A \cos \left(\phi_{i}\right)=B A \cos \left(0^{\circ}\right[/tex]

[tex]=\left(5.0 \times 10^{-5} \mathrm{T}\right)\left(14 \times 10^{-4} \mathrm{m}^{2}\right)(1)[/tex]

[tex]=7.0 \times 10^{-8} \mathrm{Wb}[/tex]

[tex]\quad\left[\Phi_{B, i}=7.0 \times 10^{-8} \mathrm{Wb}\right[/tex]

after it is rotated, the angle between the area and the magnetic field is [tex]\phi=90^{\circ}[/tex] thus,

[tex]\Phi_{B, f}=B A \cos \left(\phi_{f}\right)=B A \cos \left(90^{\circ}\right)=0[/tex]

[tex]\qquad \Phi_{B, f}=0[/tex]

(b) The average magnitude of the emf induced in the coil equals the change in the flux divided by the time of this change, and multiplied by the number of turns, that is,

[tex]{\left|\mathcal{E}_{\mathrm{av}}\right|=N\left|\frac{\Phi_{B, f}-\Phi_{B, i}}{\Delta t}\right|}{=} & \frac{1.40 \times 10^{-5} \mathrm{Wb}}{0.030 \mathrm{s}}[/tex]

[tex]& 3.6 \times 10^{-4} \mathrm{V}=0.36 \mathrm{mV}[/tex]

[tex]\mathbb{E}=0.36 \mathrm{mV}[/tex]

(a) The initial and final flux through the coil is 1.75 × 10⁻⁵ Wb and 0 Wb

(b) The induced EMF in the coil is 0.583 mV

Given that the coil has N = 250 turns

and an area of A = 14cm² = 1.4×10⁻³m².

It is rotated for a time period of Δt = 0.030s such that it is parallel with the earth's magnetic field that is B = 5×10⁻⁵T

(a) The flux passing through the coil is given by:

Ф = NBAcosθ

where θ is the angle between area vector and the magnetic field

The area vector is perpendicular to the plane of the coil.

So, initially, θ = 0°, as area vector and earth's magnetic field both are perpendicular to the plane of the coil

So the initial flux is:

Φ = NABcos0° = NAB

Ф = 250×1.4×10⁻³×5×10⁻⁵ Wb

Ф = 1.75 × 10⁻⁵ Wb

Finally, θ = 90°, and since cos90°, the final flux through the coil is 0

(b) The EMF induced is given by:

E = -ΔФ/Δt

E = -(0 - 1.75 × 10⁻⁵)/0.030

E = 0.583 × 10⁻³ V

E = 0.583 mV

Learn more about magnetic flux:

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Answer:

A)     K / K₀ = 4   b)     v / v₀ = 4

Explanation:

A) For this exercise we can use the conservation of mechanical energy

in the problem it indicates that the displacement was doubled (x = 2xo)

starting point. At the position of maximum displacement

      Em₀ = Ke = ½ k (2x₀)²

final point. In the equilibrium position

      [tex]Em_{f}[/tex] = K = ½ m v²

        Em₀ = Em_{f}

        ½ k 4 x₀² = K

        (½ K x₀²) = K₀

         K = 4 K₀

          K / K₀ = 4

B) the speed value

          ½ k 4 x₀² = ½ m v²

          v = 4 (k / m) x₀

if we call

           v₀ = k / m x₀

          v = 4 v₀

         v / v₀ = 4

Answer:

-50N

Explanation:

F=ma=m(Vf-Vi)/t

F=(10)(-10)/(2)=-50N

So the force acting on the block is -50N, where the negative sign simply tells us that the force is opposite to the direction of movement.

Answer:

1) a block going down a slope

2) a) W = ΔU + ΔK + ΔE, b) W = ΔE, c)  W = ΔK, d) ΔU = ΔK

Explanation:

In this exercise you are asked to give an example of various types of systems

1) a system where work is transformed into internal energy is a system with friction, for example a block going down a slope in this case work is done during the descent, which is transformed in part kinetic energy, in part power energy and partly internal energy that is represented by an increase in the temperature of the block.

2)

a) rolling a ball uphill

In this case we have an increase in potential energy, if there is a change in speed, the kinetic energy also increases, if the change in speed is zero, there is no change in kinetic energy and there is a change in internal energy due to the stationary rec in the point of contact

 W = ΔU + ΔK + ΔE

b) in this system work is transformed into internal energy

      W = ΔE

c) There is no friction here, therefore the work is transformed into kinetic energy

    W = ΔK

d) if you assume that there is no friction with the air, the potential energy is transformed into kinetic energy

      ΔU = ΔK

B. A chemical change

Explanation:

I'm guessing ?

Answer:

0.35 m³/s

Explanation:

When the pipe's depth is 0.4 m, the area of the circular segment is:

A = ½ R² (θ − sin θ)

The depth of the water is:

h = R (1 − cos(θ/2))

Solving for θ:

0.4 = 0.5 (1 − cos(θ/2))

0.8 = 1 − cos(θ/2)

cos(θ/2) = 0.2

θ/2 = acos(0.2)

θ = 2 acos(0.2)

θ ≈ 2.74 rad

The area is therefore:

A = ½ (0.5 m)² (2.74 − sin 2.74)

A = 0.338 m²

The cross-sectional area when the pipe is full is:

A = π (0.5 m)²

A = 0.785 m²

The flow velocity is constant:

v = v

Q / A = Q / A

(0.15 m³/s) / (0.338 m²) = Q / (0.785 m²)

Q = 0.35 m³/s

Answer:

The reason for the increase or decrease of the moon is due to the angular perception of the moon.

Explanation:

Also called lunar illusion, this phenomenon is due to the position in which the moon is, it can be at the zenith or on the horizon, both distances are different from each other with respect to the position of the person.

The zenith is the highest part of the sky and the horizon the lowest.

When there are landmarks such as trees, buildings or mountains on the horizon, the illusion of closeness is given and the illusion of distance is misinterpreted.

But when looking up at the sky as there is no reference point there will be a failure in the perception of size.

Answer:

 Good Diet: ! gallon of water a day, Fruits, Vegetables, White meats(Chicken), Don't eat past 3 PM.

Bad Diet: Pizza, Red meat, Baked goods, Eating at late hours.

Explanation: I know the difference because, When you drink water first thing in the morning it gets your metabolism running. Than means you can digest foods better, you want to feed your body good foods but you should not eat until you feel stuffed. You should eat until you are no longer starving. Than you should drink a cup of water in between meals. I know you should not eat past 3 pm because your body needs time to digest foods because you should never go to sleep with a full stomach. I know the difference between good food and bad food because when you eat healthy food and a balanced diet, your body will have more energy and you wont feel tired afterwards. Eating bad foods and food with artificial sugars will clump up in your kidneys, and your body will have small bursts of energy but you will feel lazy afterwards...Your body is supposed to stay energized from a healthy meal in order to give you the energy your body needs to exercise. If you feel droopy all the time and you don't want to do anything, than you are unhealthy.

Answer:

A vegetarian diet is an example of a good fad diet if you do it correctly. It can help you get lots of veggies and good nutrients from them while still following the non-meat diet you want. This can be effective and good for weight loss becasue you are still eating and getting all the good nutrients and calories from less fatty foods. 

Vegan diet (some can be successful but many people fail and do not do good that is why I choose this) The problem with this fad diet is that it can cause nutritional deficiencies and lead to a host of additional health problems, including negatively impacting hormonal health and metabolism. Many people also struggle to find healthy vegan food and end up eating bad and fatty foods instead. 

Explanation:

Got a 100

Answer:

0.6 m/s

Explanation:

2Hz = 2^-1 = 2 /s

30cm = .3m

Velocity is in the units m/s, so multiplying wavelength in meters by the frequency will give you the velocity.

(.3m)*(2 /s) = 0.6 m/s

Answer:

7.86×10⁻⁷ m

Explanation:

Using,

v = λf.................. Equation 1

Where v = velocity of electromagnetic wave, λ = wave length, f = frequency.

make λ the subject of the equation

λ = v/f............... Equation 2

Note: All electromagnetic  wave have the same speed which is 3×10⁸ m/s.

Given: f = 3.818×10¹⁴ Hz

Constant: v = 3×10⁸ m/s

Substitute these values into equation 2

λ  =  3×10⁸/3.818×10¹⁴

λ  = 7.86×10⁻⁷ m

Hence the wavelength of the electromagnetic radiation is  7.86×10⁻⁷ m

The wavelength of this electromagnetic radiation is equal to [tex]7.86 \times 10^{-7} \;meters[/tex]

Given the following data:

Scientific data:

Velocity of an electromagnetic radiation = [tex]3 \times 10^8\;m/s[/tex]

To determine the wavelength of this electromagnetic radiation:

Mathematically, the wavelength of an electromagnetic radiation is calculated by using the formula;

[tex]Wavelength = \frac{Speed }{frequency}[/tex]

Substituting the given parameters into the formula, we have;

[tex]Wavelength = \frac{3 \times 10^8}{3.818\times 10^{14}}[/tex]

Wavelength = [tex]7.86 \times 10^{-7} \;meters[/tex]

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Explanation:

Using Equations of Motion :

[tex]s = ut + \frac{1}{2} g {t}^{2} [/tex]

Height = 0 * 4 + 4.9 * 16

Height = 78.4 m

Answer:

b. The current in the loop always flows in a counterclockwise direction.

Explanation:

When a magnet falls through a loop of wire, it induces an induced current on the loop of wire. This induced current is due to the motion of the magnet through the loop, which cause a change in the flux linkage of the magnet. According to Lenz law, the induced current acts in such a way as to repel the force or action that produces it. For this magnet, the only opposition possible is to stop its fall by inducing a like pole on the wire loop to repel its motion down. An induced current that flows counterclockwise in the wire loop has a polarity that is equivalent to a north pole on a magnet, and this will try to repel the motion of the magnet through the coil. Also, when the magnet goes pass the wire loop, this induced north pole will try to attract the south end of the magnet, all in a bid to stop its motion downwards.

The current in the loop always flows in a counterclockwise direction. Hence, option (b) is correct.

The given problem is based on the concept and fundamentals of magnetic bars. When a magnet falls through a loop of wire, it induces an induced current on the loop of wire. There is some magnitude of current induced in the wire.

Thus, we can say that the current in the loop always flows in a counterclockwise direction. Hence, option (b) is correct.

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Answer:

The potential will be Va/b

Explanation:

So Let sphere A charged Q to potential V.

so, V= KQ/a. ....(1

Thus, spherical shell B is connected to the sphere A by a wire, so all charge always reside on the outer surface.

therefore, potential will be ,

V ′ = KQ/b = Va/b... That is from .....(1), KQ=Va]

Answer:

1.94cm³/s

Explanation:

1L = 1000cm³

Ihr = 3600s

So

Using

Average flow rate

Fr= 1L/100Km x 700Km/1hr x 1hr/3600s x 1000cm³/ 1L

= 1.94cm³/s

Answer:

The tension on string when the speed was raised is 134.53 N

Explanation:

Given;

Tension on the string, T = 120 N

initial speed of the transverse wave, v₁ = 170 m/s

final speed of the transverse wave, v₂ = 180 m/s

The speed of the wave is given as;

[tex]v = \sqrt{\frac{T}{\mu} }[/tex]

where;

μ is mass per unit length

[tex]v^2 = \frac{T}{\mu} \\\\\mu = \frac{T}{v^2} \\\\\frac{T_1}{v_1^2} = \frac{T_2}{v_2^2}[/tex]

The final tension T₂ will be calculated as;

[tex]T_2 = \frac{T_1 v_2^2}{v_1^2} \\\\T_2 = \frac{120*180^2}{170^2} \\\\T_2 = 134.53 \ N[/tex]

Therefore, the tension on string when the speed was raised is 134.53 N

Answer:

The movement of energy and matter in a system differs from one system to another. On the other hand, in open system both the matter and energy move into and out of the system. Therefore, matter and energy in a system naturally change over time will decrease in entropy.

Explanation:

Answer:

Decrease in entropy

Explanation:

Various systems which exist in nature possess energy and matter that move through these system continuously. The movement of energy and matter in a system differs from one system to another.

In a closed system for example, only energy flows in and out of the system while matter does not enter or leave the system.

On the other hand, in open system both the matter and energy move into and out of the system.

Answer:

There is no induced current on the coil.

Explanation:

Current is induced in a coil or a circuit, when there is a break of flux linkage. A break in flux linkage is caused by a changing magnetic field, and must be achieved by a relative motion between the coil and the magnet. Holding the magnet above the center of the coil will cause no changing magnetic filed since there is no relative motion between the coil and the magnet.

Answer:

8.65x10^3m

Explanation:

See attached file

Answer:

A. magnetic field

Explanation:

The magnetic field is produced around a wire when an electrical current is in the wire because of the magnetic effect of the electric current therefore the correct answer is option A .

A magnetic field could be understood as an area around a magnet, magnetic material, or an electric charge in which magnetic force is exerted.

As given in the problem statement we have to find out what is produced around a wire when an electrical current is in the wire.

The magnetic field is produced as a result when an electrical current is passed through the conducting wire .

Option A is the appropriate response because a wire's magnetic field is created when an electrical current flows through it due to the magnetic influence of the electric current .

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Answer:

-0.73mA

Explanation:

Using amphere's Law

ε =−dΦB/ dt

=−(2.6T)·(7.30·10−4 m2)/ 1.00 s

=−1.9 mV

Using ohms law

ε=V =IR

I = ε/ R =−1.9mV/ 2.60Ω =−0.73mA

Answer:

a

   [tex]m = 0.169 \ kg[/tex]

b

  [tex]|v_{max} |= 0.5653 \ m/s[/tex]

Explanation:

From the question we are told that

    The  spring constant is  [tex]k = 14 \ N/m[/tex]

     The  maximum extension of the spring is  [tex]A = 6.0 \ cm = 0.06 \ m[/tex]

     The number of oscillation is  [tex]n = 30[/tex]

      The  time taken is  [tex]t = 20 \ s[/tex]

Generally the the angular speed of this oscillations is mathematically represented as

           [tex]w = \frac{2 \pi}{T}[/tex]

where T is the period which is mathematically represented as

     [tex]T = \frac{t}{n}[/tex]

substituting values

     [tex]T = \frac{20}{30 }[/tex]

     [tex]T = 0.667 \ s[/tex]

Thus  

       [tex]w = \frac{2 * 3.142 }{ 0.667}[/tex]

       [tex]w = 9.421 \ rad/s[/tex]

this angular speed can also be represented mathematically as

       [tex]w = \sqrt{\frac{k}{m} }[/tex]

=>   [tex]m =\frac{k }{w^2}[/tex]

substituting values

      [tex]m =\frac{ 15 }{(9.421)^2}[/tex]

      [tex]m = 0.169 \ kg[/tex]

In SHM (simple harmonic motion )the equation for velocity is  mathematically represented as

        [tex]v = - Awsin (wt)[/tex]

The  velocity is maximum when  [tex]wt = \(90^o) \ or \ 1.5708\ rad[/tex]

     [tex]v_{max} = - A* w[/tex]

=>   [tex]|v_{max} |= A* w[/tex]

=>    [tex]|v_{max} |= 0.06 * 9.421[/tex]

=>   [tex]|v_{max} |= 0.5653 \ m/s[/tex]

Answer:

your question answer is 22°

Answer:

A. 30.38°

B 5.04N

Explanation:

Using

F= ILBsin theta

2 .55N= 8.4Ax 0.5mx 1.2T x sintheta

Theta = 30.38°

B. If theta is 90°

Then

F= 8.4Ax 0.5mx 1.2x sin 90°

F= 5.04N

Explanation:

Change in Velocity = final velocity - initial velocity

Change in velocity = 30km/h - (- 45km/h )

= 75 km/h due west

Answer:

Explanation:

magnetic field due to an infinite current carrying conductor

B = k x 2I / r where k = 10⁻⁷  , I is current in conductor and r is distance from wire

putting the given data

B = 10⁻⁷ x 2 x 100 / 8

= 25 x 10⁻⁷ T .

B )

earth's magnetic field = .5 gauss

= .5 x 10⁻⁴ T

= 5 x 10⁻⁵ T

percent required = (25 x 10⁻⁷ / 5 x 10⁻⁵) x 100

= 5 %

C )

ii.  No. Since this field is much lesser than the earth's magnetic field, it would be expected to have less effect than the earth's field.