please help me out! i have a few more of these questions, about 2

Answer:

area of a rectangle/front side of the box = 100 cm²

Step-by-step explanation:

The prism box is a rectangular prism and the front side of the box will be made of the clear material. The other sides will be made of cardboard paper. The surface area of the side with clear material is only the area of the front side of the box. The area of only the front side is the area of 1 rectangle.

The box has a length of 20 cm , height of 5 cm and a width of 4 cm. The surface area of only the front side of the box which is the area of one rectangle only deals with the height and the length.

area of a rectangle/front side = length × height

where

length = 20 cm

height = 5 cm

area of a rectangle/front side = 20 × 5

area of a rectangle/front side = 100 cm²

Answer:

D. 100

Step-by-step explanation:

20x5=100

I did the test! Good luck with the rest of your test! Have a good day/night! <3

Answer:

Between -2 and 0

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

rhombus

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

Its D

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer: [tex]-2x^3-14x^2+7x-4[/tex]

Step-by-step explanation:

[tex](3x^3-2x^2+4x-8)-(5x^3+12x^2-3x-4)[/tex]

Distribute the negative sign.

[tex](3x^3-2x^2+4x-8)-5x^3-12x^2+3x+4[/tex]

Remove the other parentheses.

[tex]3x^3-2x^2+4x-8-5x^3-12x^2+3x+4[/tex]

Combine like terms.

[tex]-2x^3-14x^2+7x-4[/tex]

Answer:

28 hope this helped

Step-by-step explanation:

20+26+26=72

72+28=100

100/4=25

let the number be X

20 + 26 + 26 + X /4 = 25

72 + X /4 = 25

cross multiply

72 + X = 25*4

72 + X = 100

X = 100.- 72 = 28

X = 28

proof

20 + 26 + 26 +28 / 5 = 25

I hope it will help. can I have braainlest

As both of the values are equal to each other.

A square root of a number is a value that, when multiplied by itself, gives the number.

Here, given that,

6^(1/2) and √6

Now, we know that both have same value.

6^(1/2)=√6 ≈2.45

Hence, they are equal.

To learn more on square root click:

brainly.com/question/29286039

#SPJ2

Answer: is there a gra or something to show

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

The area of sector is [tex]25.12 miles^2[/tex]

Step-by-step explanation:

Radius of circle = 4 miles

We are supposed to find the area of a sector bounded by a 180 arc

[tex]\theta = 180^{\circ}[/tex]

Area of sector =[tex]\frac{\theta}{360^{\circ}} \pi r^2[/tex]

Area of sector = [tex]\frac{180^{\circ}}{360^{\circ}} \times \frac{22}{7} \times 4^2[/tex]

Area of sector = [tex]25.12 miles^2[/tex]

Hence The area of sector is [tex]25.12 miles^2[/tex]

Answer:

i used calculator and got 1

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

Probability that 3 out of the next 5 voters approving the proposal is 0.3125.

Step-by-step explanation:

We are given that the sample probability of the voters approving the proposal is 50% and Political scientists want to determine the probability of exactly 3 out of the next 5 voters they meet approving a proposal.

The above situation can be represented through binomial distribution;

[tex]P(X=r) = \binom{n}{r} \times p^{r} \times (1-p)^{n-r} ; x = 0,1,2,3,.....[/tex]

where, n = number of trials (samples) taken = 5

            r = number of success = exactly 3

            p = probability of success which in our question is probability of

                  the voters approving the proposal, i.e; p = 50%

Let X = Number of voters approving the proposal

So, X ~ Binom(n = 5 , p = 0.50)

Now, Probability that 3 out of the next 5 voters approving the proposal is given by = P(X = 3)

               P(X = 3)  =  [tex]\binom{5}{3} \times 0.50^{3} \times (1-0.50)^{5-3}[/tex]

                              =  [tex]10 \times 0.50^{3} \times 0.50^{2}[/tex]

                              =  0.3125

Answer:

The shapes are the same, just one is sideways. They also have very similar measurements.

Step-by-step explanation:

Even so, when we check this we get:

(1 1/2 x 1 3/4) 7 = (3 x 1 3/4) 3 1/2

when simplified (solved) this is: 18 3/8 = 18 3/8

Answer:

D

Step-by-step explanation:

Look at the attachment

Answer:

[tex]\angle L=\angle S[/tex] using congruence rule

Step-by-step explanation:

Given: ΔSAL, SA = LA and AT is the bisector of [tex]\angle A[/tex]

To prove: [tex]\angle L=\angle S[/tex]

Proof:

Two triangles are congruent if they have same shape and same size.

Consider triangles ALT and AST

AL = AS

As AT bisects [tex]\angle A[/tex], [tex]\angle LAT=\angle SAT\\[/tex]

AT = AT (common side)

So, [tex]\Delta ALT\cong \Delta AST[/tex] ( by SAS congruence rule )

Here, SAS denotes side-angle-side

[tex]\angle L=\angle S[/tex] (using corresponding parts of congruent triangles)

Hence proved

Explanation:

First, we know that △ALT ≅ △AST, because of Side Angle Side Theorem. Next, we know that AL ≅ AS, because it's given.

Since A = A, we can remove A and it gives us m∠L = m∠S.

If you need to show work in math terms, your answer should look something like this:

1. △ ALT ≅ △AST - SAS

2. AL ≅ AS - Given

3. m∠ L ≅ m∠S

Hope this helped!

Always substitute variable first !

10(10) - ( 10x6 - 2(6) )

100- ( 60-12)

100 - 48

52!

Answer:

2/36

Step-by-step explanation:

There are 36 possibilities when rolling a die

There are 2 that sum to 11

P (sum of 11) =  sum of 11/ total

                      =2/36

                        1/18

Answer:

13.8

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

[tex]\frac{rise}{run} =\frac{4}{1} =4[/tex]

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

C

Step-by-step explanation:

NO is not parallel to ML.

Answer:

384 cubic meters

Step-by-step explanation:

Think of it as two rectangles on top of each other and then add the two volumes.

Volume is l*w*h

So for the bottom rectangle: (8) (12) (2) = 192 cubic meters

And for the top rectangle: (4)(6)(8) = 192 cubic meters

It is important to remember that for the top box you have to subtract the height of the bottom box which is why I used 4 for the height instead of 6.

Then you add them together.

192+192 = 384 cubic meters

The answer is B. Loan given for a short period of time that is not dependent on credit history

I just took the quiz and I am big brain.

A loan given for a short period of time that is not dependent on credit history is called a easy - access credit.

Credit is the ability to borrow money or access goods or services with the understanding that you'll pay later.

Given is the easy-access credit.

Easy access credit refers to very short-term and usually very high interest loans. It's a fancy way of saying payday loans, pawn shop transactions, or title loans.

Therefore, a loan given for a short period of time that is not dependent on credit history is called a easy - access credit.

To solve more questions on credits, visit the link below-

https://brainly.com/question/29632930

#SPJ2

Answer:

a=he went back home

b=speed=240km/h

Step-by-step explanation:

ps: wouldn't mind brainliest

Answer:

a) Jo moved 1 kn from her starting position at minute 10

b) 0.13 km/min

Step-by-step explanation:

Look at the picture

Answer:

ZY = 14, SQ= 28

Step-by-step explanation:

Because of "ZR=ZS" and "YR=YQ", so we can apply the Thales theorem:

[tex]\frac{x+2}{3x-8}=\frac{RZ}{RS} =\frac{1}{2} \\[/tex]

so 2(x+2)= 3x-8

2x+4 = 3x-8

2x-3x= -8 -4

-x = -12

or x =12

ZY = x+ 2 = 12+ 2 = 14

SQ= 2*ZY= 2*14 = 28

Answer:

You will break even with the cost of your supplies equals your income how many cups of your hot chocolate and less you sell to break even

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

ln(216[tex]x^{4}[/tex] )

Step-by-step explanation:

Using the rules of logarithms

log x + log y = log(xy)

log [tex]x^{n}[/tex] ⇔ n log x

Given

3ln6 + 4lnx

= ln 6³ + ln[tex]x^{4}[/tex]

= ln (216[tex]x^{4}[/tex] )

Answer:

[tex]P(X \geq 1)=1-P(X<1)= 1- P(X=0)[/tex]

[tex]P(X=0)=(2C0)(0.01)^0 (1-0.01)^{2-0}=0.9801[/tex]

And replacing we got:

[tex] P(X \geq 1) = 1-0.9801 = 0.0199[/tex]

Step-by-step explanation:

Let X the random variable of interest "number of craked eggs", on this case we now that:

[tex]X \sim Binom(n=2, p=0.01)[/tex]

The probability mass function for the Binomial distribution is given as:

[tex]P(X)=(nCx)(p)^x (1-p)^{n-x}[/tex]

Where (nCx) means combinatory and it's given by this formula:

[tex]nCx=\frac{n!}{(n-x)! x!}[/tex]

And we want to find this probability:

[tex]P(x \geq 1)=1-P(X<1)= 1- P(X=0)[/tex]

And we can find the probability:

[tex]P(X=0)=(2C0)(0.01)^0 (1-0.01)^{2-0}=0.9801[/tex]

And replacing we got:

[tex] P(X \geq 1) = 1-0.9801 = 0.0199[/tex]

Answer:

=82%

Step-by-step explanation:

64:78*100=82%