On January 1, 2021, Splash City issues $320,000 of 8% bonds, due in 15 years, with interest payable semiannually on June 30 and December 31 each year. Required:Assuming the market interest rate on the issue date is 8%, the bonds will issue at $320,000. Record the bond issue on January 1, 2021, and the first two semiannual interest payments on June 30, 2021, and December 31, 2021. (If no entry is required for a particular transaction/event, select "No Journal Entry Required" in the first account field.)

Answers

Answer 1

Answer:

Journal entries are given below

Explanation:

Entry for the bond issue on January 1, 2021, and the first two semiannual interest payments on June 30, 2021, and December 31, 2021, are prepared as follows

January 01, 2021 (Splash City issues $320,000 of 8% bonds)

                                                 Debit     Credit  

Cash                                320,000  

Bonds payable                          320,000    

June 30, 2021 (Interest paid)

                                        Debit       Credit  

Interest expense         $12,800  

Cash                                                 $12,800

Working

Interest expense = $320,000 x 8% x 6/12

Interest expense = $12,800

December 31, 2021 (Interest paid)

                                        Debit       Credit  

Interest expense         $12,800  

Cash                                                 $12,800

Working

Interest expense = $320,000 x 8% x 6/12

Interest expense = $12,800


Related Questions

In your opinion, what are the forms of institutional advertising that are suitable for banks in Palestine with examples. Why??

Answers

Answer:

Institutional advertising for banks in Palestine should take into account the cultural sensibilities of the country.

As a muslim country, banks should take into account not only local Palestinian culture, but also general islamic culture when developing their advertising.

Palestine also has complex foreign relationships. Banks should also take this into account in order to create advertising that is effectively catered to the Palestinian people.

A promotion related to the movie Pacific Rim Uprising was seen in Target stores throughout the United States. The sales promotion was designed to maximize the consumer's attention to a DVD release and provide storage for the products. This type of sales promotion is referred to as a

Answers

Answer:

This type of sales promotion is referred to as a Dealer Sales Promotion (Trade Promotion).

Explanation:

The Dealer Sales Promotion, otherwise known as Trade Promotion, is aimed at Dealers, designed to maximize the attention of consumers, and provide storage for the products in Target stores throughout the United States.  The promoters want Pacific Rim Uprising to be seen by consumers, so that their attention is galvanized, and to get Target stores to create the space for the DVD upon the film's release, through cooperative advertising.   It is not aimed directly at consumers or salespersons, but dealers.

All About Animals has two product​ lines: Cat food and Dog food. Contribution margin income statement data for the most recent year​ follow:
Total Cat Food Dog Food
Sales revenue $435,000 $350,000 $85,000
Variable expenses $61,000 $21,000 $40,000
Contribution margin $374,000 $329,000 $45,000
Fixed expenses $101.000 $49,000 $52,000
Operating income (loss) $273,000 $280,000 $(7,000)
Assuming the Dog food is discontinued, total fixed costs remain unchanged, and the space formerly used to produce the line is rented for $26,000 per year, how will operating income be affected?
A. Increase $254,000
B. Decrease $19,000
C. Increase $527,000
D. Increase $19,000

Answers

Answer:

B. Decrease $19,000

Explanation:

The computation of the amount affect the operating income is shown below

But before that first we need to find the new operating income

Total operating income for Cat Food  $280,000

Less: Fixed costs for Dog Food           ($52000)

Add: rented per year                             $26000

New net operating income                  $254000

Now decrease in net operating income is

= operating income - new operating income

= $273,000 - $254,000

= $19,000

Acme Company’s production budget for August is 17,700 units and includes the following component unit costs: direct materials, $6.0; direct labor, $10.2; variable overhead, $6.2. Budgeted fixed overhead is $34,000. Actual production in August was 18,630 units. Actual unit component costs incurred during August include direct materials, $8.40; direct labor, $9.60; variable overhead, $7.00. Actual fixed overhead was $35,700. The standard fixed overhead application rate per unit consists of $2 per machine hour and each unit is allowed a standard of 1 hour of machine time.Required:Calculate the fixed overhead budget variance and the fixed overhead volume variance. (Indicate the effect of each variance by selecting "F" for favorable, "U" for unfavorable, and "None" for no effect (i.e., zero variance).)

Answers

Answer:

a. $1,700 U

b. $3,260 F

Explanation:

a. Fixed over head budget variance = Actual fixed overhead - Budgeted fixed overhead

Actual fixed overhead = $35,700

Budgeted fixed overhead = $34,000

Fixed overhead budget variance = $35,700 - $34,000

= $1,700 U

b. Fixed overhead volume variance = Budgeted fixed overhead - Standard fixed overhead

Standard fixed overhead application rate = $2 per machine hr × 1hr

= $2

Budgeted fixed overhead = $34,000

Standard fixed overhead = Standard hours for actual output × Budgeted rate

= (18,630 units × 1hr) × $2

= $37,260

Fixed overhead volume variance

= $34,000 - $37,260

= 3,260 F

Emira wants to buy a classic drawing from an art centre in Kuala Lumpur. She managed to secure a painting by a renowned Malaysian artist that costs her RM99,800. Currently, she only has RM12,650 in her savings account and she intends to use 70% of her saving to fund the purchase. If she borrows the remaining amount from Bank Atlantis that levies 4.77% of interest rates, determine the total interest payment that she will pay if the agreement takes 10 years of settlement.

Answers

Answer:

RM23,617.80

Explanation:

cost of the painting RM99,800

she has RM12,650 on her bank account and she will use 70% = RM8,855 as down payment. She will borrow the rest = RM99,800 - RM8,855 = RM90,945

interest charged on the loan 4.77% / 12 = 0.3975%

120 monthly periods (10 years)

using the present value formula to determine the monthly payment:

PV = monthly payment x annuity factor

monthly payment = PV / annuity factor

PV = 90,945

annuity factor (120 periods, 0.3975%) = 95.26168

monthly payment = 90,945 / 95.26168 = 954.69

total payments = 120 x 954.69 = RM114,562.80

interests paid = RM114,562.80 - RM90,945 = RM23,617.80

according to the nist the process of identifying risk, assessing risk, and taking steps to reduce risk to an

Answers

Answer: Risk management

Explanation:

According to the nist, the process of identifying risk, assessing risk, and taking steps to reduce risk to an acceptable level is referred to as the risk management.

Risk management simply has to do with the identification of risks before they occur. In such scenarios, the business owners can either avoid the risk or minimize the impact of the risk.

Vaughn Manufacturing is constructing a building. Construction began in 2020 and the building was completed 12/31/20. Vaughn made payments to the construction company of $3114000 on 7/1, $6456000 on 9/1, and $5950000 on 12/31. Weighted-average accumulated expenditures were

Answers

Answer:

$3,709,000

Explanation:

7/1 Time weighted amount = $3,114,000 * 6/12 = $1,557,000

9/1 Time weighted amount =  $6,456,000 * 4/12 = $2,152,000

12/31 Time weighted amount = $5,950,000 * 0/12 = $0

Weighted-average accumulated expenditures = 7/1 Time weighted amount + 9/1 Time weighted amount + 12/31 Time weighted amount

Weighted-average accumulated expenditures = $1,557,000 + $2,152,000 + 0

Weighted-average accumulated expenditures = $3,709,000

1. Noor Patel has had a busy year! She decided to take a cross-country adventure. Along the way, she won a new car on "The Price Is Right" (valued at $15,500) and won $500 on a scratch-off lottery ticket (the first time she ever played). She also signed up for a credit card to start the trip and was given a sign-up bonus of $100. How much will she have to include in her federal taxable income?

2A. What is the amount of taxes for a head of house hold with a taxable income of $57,500 with a rate of 25%?

B. What is the amount of taxes for a single person with a taxable income of $35,000 with a rate of 15%?

C. What is the amount of taxes for a married couple filling jointly with a taxable income of $70,700 with a rate of 15%?

Answers

Answer:

1. 16,100

Explanation:

To get how much she would include in her federal taxable income. We would have to add up these values:

The car won on the price is right + scratch off lottery + sign up bonus.

15,500 + 500 + 100

=$16,100

2a.

head of household

0 to 9275 at 10% = 927.5

(37650 - 9275)*15% = 4256.1

(57500 - 37650)*25% = 4962.5

total = 927.5 + 4256.1 + 4962.5

= 10146.1

2b

single person

0 to 9275 at 10% = 927.5

(35000-9275)*10% = 3858.75

total = 927.5 + 3858.75

= 4786.25

2c

for married couple

0 to 18550 at 10% = 1855

(70700-1855)*15% = 7822.5

total = 1855 + 7822.5

=9677.5

"Your customer has been declared legally incompetent and his daughter has presented the proper legal papers appointing her as the guardian. Which statement is TRUE?"

Answers

Answer: B. Trading instructions can be accepted only from the daughter

Explanation:

The customer has been declared legally incompetent which means that he should not be making decisions that have to do with something as serious as trading instructions as he will not be able to comprehend them.

The only person that should therefore take over such roles would be his daughter who is a legal guardian. As she is not his guardian, she is able to take such decisions for him and so the trading instructions should be accepted only from the daughter.

Which method of evaluating capital investment proposals uses present value concepts to compute the rate of return from the net cash flows

Answers

Answer:

Internal rate of return

Explanation:

The internal rate of return is that return in which the net present value equivalent to zero

i.e.

Net present value = 0

That means

Initial investment = Present value of cash inflows after charging the discounting factor like 10% 12% etc

So as per the given situation, the internal rate of return is the correct answer

Debra and Merina sell electronic equipment and supplies through their partnership. They wish to expand their computer lines and decide to admit Wayne to the partnership. Debra's capital is $200,000, Merina's capital is $160,000, and they share income in a ratio of 3:2, respectively.Required:Record Wayne's admission for each of the following independent situations:a. Wayne directly purchases half of Merina's investment in the partnership for $97,000.b. Wayne invests the amount needed to give him a one-third interest in the partnership's capital if no goodwill or bonus is recorded.

Answers

Answer:

a. Merina's captal is $160,000. Half would be $80,000.

Entry;

DR Merina, Capital ..................................................................$80,000

CR Wayne, Capital ....................................................................................$80,000

(To record purchase of half of Merina Capital)

b.

DR Cash......................................................................$180,000

CR Wayne, Capital.........................................................................$180,000

(To record Wayne investment)

Working

The current Capital amount is;

= 200,000 +160,000

= $360,000

If Wayne joins and adds to this such that he owns 1/3 then;

2/3x = 360,000

x = 360,000/2/3

x = $540,000

Wayne's share would be;

= 1/3 * 540,000

= $180,000

The journal entries that would take place will take effect as A- A debit in Merina's capital amount and Cash account as $17000 and a credit effect in Wayne's capital account. The amount of debit and credit will be $97000.

And for B- There will be Debit in Cash account effecting a credit in The Wayne's capital account. The amount effecting the debit and credit side will be $180,000.

The journal entries are added in the images attached to the answer. The entries would take place in the journal entries on the respective date of their occurrence.( Image attached below).

When Wayne is introduced as partner for one third share the calculation of the amount of his capital would be shown as considering the capital as x. The capital by existing partners is $360000. (Image below).

,[tex]\dfrac{2}{3}x\ = 360000[/tex]

[tex]x= \dfrac {360000}{\dfrac{2}{3}}[/tex]

Now the value of x will be calculated as

[tex]x= \dfrac{540000}{3}[/tex]

[tex]x=180000[/tex]

Therefore Wayne's capital will be calculated as $180,000, so he will be required to bring in additional $180,000 capital in the firm for getting one third share in the profits and losses of the company.

Hence, the correct statements for A will be that Wayne pays $97000 which will be divided in Merina's capital and cash accounts in the proportion of $80000 and $17000 respectively.

To know more about partnership firm, click the link below.

https://brainly.com/question/6346527

how will a new front desk manager address a problem of lateness in a hotel.​

Answers

Answer:

They will have a system like a lot book where they would take in the visitors details and then Mark in or out and time of arrival and leaving

Hope this helps :)

Explanation:

Brodrick Company expects to produce 21,200 units for the year ending December 31. A flexible budget for 21,200 units of production reflects sales of $508,800; variable costs of $63,600; and fixed costs of $142,000. Assume that actual sales for the year are $587,200 (26,300 units), actual variable costs for the year are $113,900, and actual fixed costs for the year are $137,000. Prepare a flexible budget performance report for the year.

Answers

Answer:

                Flexible budget performance report  for the year

                           Flexible budget  Actual     Variance   Fav/Unf

Sales                        631,200         587,200    44,000   UNF

Variable cost           (78,900)         (113,900)    35,000    F

Contribution            416,000         368,000   48,000   UNF

margin

Fixed cost               (142,000)        (137,000)    5000       UNF

Net operating          274,000        231,000    43,000    UNF

income

Working:

a. At flexible budget, selling price per unit = $508,800 / 21,200 = $24 per unit . Total sales =26,300 *24 = $631,200  

b. Variable cost per unit = $63,600 / 21,200 = $3 per unit . Total cost = 3 * 26,300 = 78,900

dazzle, inc. produces beads for jewelry making use the journal entry to record production activities for direct labor usage is

Answers

Answer:

Debit Work in Process Inventory $180,000; credit Factory Wages Payable $180,000.

Explanation:

The journal entry to record the direct labor usage is shown belwo:

Work in process inventory Dr

          To factory wages payable

(Being the direct labor usage is recorded)

For recording this we debited the work in process as it increased the assets and credited the factory wages payable as it also increased the liabilities

Moreover, when the wages is applied in the production level so the respective account is debited and credited

A company sold equipment that originally cost $290,000 for $145,000 cash. The accumulated depreciation on the equipment was $145,000. The company should recognize a:

Answers

Answer:

$0 gain/loss

Explanation:

A company sold an equipment that originally cost $290,000 for $145,000

The accumulated depreciation on the equipment was $145,000

The first step is to calculate the book value of the equipment

Book value of the equipment= Cost of equipment-accumulated depreciation

= $290,000-$145,000

= $145,000

Therefore, the gain/loss on the equipment can be calculated as follows

= Selling price-book value

= $145,000-$145,000

= 0

Hence there is no recognized gain or loss on the equipment

Answer:

Company would recognize a no loss or gain on the disposal i.e Nil

Explanation:

The gain or loss on disposal is the difference between the carrying value of an assets at the point of disposal and the the disposal value.

Gains/(Loss)= Disposal value - carrying value

The carrying value is the difference between the historical cost and the accumulated depreciation till date.

Carrying value = Historical cost - Accumulated depreciation till date

Carrying value = 290,000 - 145,000 = 145 ,000

Gains/Loss= 145,000 - 145,000 = 0.

Company would recognize a no loss or gain on the disposal i.e Nil

Burke's Corner currently sells blue jeans and T-shirts. Management is considering adding fleece tops to its inventory to provide a cooler weather option. The tops would sell for $53 each with expected sales of 4,300 tops annually. By adding the fleece tops, management feels the firm will sell an additional 285 pairs of jeans at $65 a pair and 420 fewer T-shirts at $26 each. The variable cost per unit is $36 on the jeans, $16 on the T-shirts, and $31 on the fleece tops. With the new item, the depreciation expense is $33,000 a year and the fixed costs are $76,000 annually. The tax rate is 35 percent. What is the project's operating cash flow?

Answers

Answer:  $‬26,282.25‬

Explanation:

The operating cash-flow will be the amount of cash the company got from sales less the amount they would have to pay on taxes.

Cash from tops

= (Sales price - Variable costs) * quantity

= ( 53 - 31) * 4,300

= $94,600

Cash from jeans

= ( 65 - 36) * 285

= $8,265

Cash from jeans

= (26 - 16) * -420

= -$4,200

As this deals with cash, a tax adjusted depreciation will need to be added back because it is a non cash expense and fixed costs will have to be deducted.

Pre-tax operating cash-flow = 94,600 + 8,265 - 4,200 - 76,000

= $22,665‬

Post-tax Project Operating cash-flow

= $22,665‬ * ( 1 - 0.35) + (depreciation * tax)

= $22,665‬ * ( 1 - 0.35) + (33,000 * 0.35)

= $14,732.25‬ + 11,550

= $‬26,282.25‬

A portfolio to the right of the market portfolio on the CML is: Group of answer choices a lending portfolio. an inefficient portfolio. a borrowing portfolio.

Answers

Answer:

a borrowing portfolio.

Explanation:

A borrowing portfolio is a portfolio to the right of the market portfolio. It is on the right half of the line. It shows that an investor can purchase the market portfolio and still borrow money so as to purchase more.

CML is known as the the capital market line. It shows the most advantageous portfolios that are a combination of risk and return.

Answer:

a borrowing portfolio.

Explanation:

A borrowing portfolio is a portfolio to the right of the market portfolio. It is on the right half of the line. It shows that an investor can purchase the market portfolio and still borrow money so as to purchase more.

CML is known as the the capital market line. It shows the most advantageous portfolios that are a combination of risk and return.

Explanation:

Find the operating cash flow for the year for Harper​ Brothers, Inc. if it had sales revenue of ​, cost of goods sold of ​, sales and administrative costs of ​, depreciation expense of ​, and a tax rate of .

Answers

Answer:

$101,960,000

Explanation:

For the computation of operating cash flow first we need to follow some steps which are shown below:-

Step 1

EBIT = Sales - Cost of goods sold - Sales and administrative costs - Depreciation

= $302,100,000 - $135,900,000 - $39,600,000 - $65,000,000

= $61,600,000

Step 2

Net income = EBIT - Tax

= $61,600,000 - ($61,600,000 × 40%)

= $61,600,000 - $24,640,000

= $36,960,000

and finally

Operating cash flow = EBIT - Taxes + Depreciation

= $61,600,000 - $24,640,000 + $65,000,000

= $101,960,000

Say the marginal tax rate is 30 percent and that government expenditures do not change with output. Say also that the economy is at potential output and that the deficit is $200 billion.Required:a. What is the size of the cyclical deficit?b. What is the size of the structural deficit?c. How would your answers to a and b change if the deficit was still $200 billion but output was $200 billion below potential?d. How would your answers to a and b change if the deficit was still $200 billion but output was $100 billion above potential?

Answers

Answer:

a. The Cyclical deficit refers to the deficit arising from the difference between the potential output and the actual output.

The question assumes that the economy is producing at potential which means actual output equals potential output.

Cyclical Deficit = Tax rate * ( Potential Output - Actual Output)

Cyclical Deficit = 0.3 * 0

Cyclical Deficit  = $0

b. Structural deficit occurs even when the economy is at potential because it refers to Government deficits that happen when the economy is experiencing normal activity.

Structural Deficit = Actual deficit - Cyclical deficit

Structural Deficit = 200 billion - 0

Structural Deficit = $200 billion

c. Output is $200 billion below potential

Cyclical Deficit = Tax rate * ( Potential Output - Actual Output)

Cyclical Deficit = 0.3 * 200

Cyclical Deficit  = $60 billion

Structural Deficit = Actual deficit - Cyclical deficit

Structural Deficit = 200 billion - 60

Structural Deficit = $140 billion

d. Output is $100 billion above potential

Cyclical Deficit = Tax rate * ( Potential Output - Actual Output)

Cyclical Deficit = 0.3 * -100 as actual is above potential

Cyclical Deficit  = -$30 billion

Structural Deficit = Actual deficit - Cyclical deficit

Structural Deficit = 200 billion - (-30)

Structural Deficit = $230 billion

A cash equivalent is: Multiple Choice Another name for cash. Close to its maturity date but its market value may still be affected by interest rate changes.

Answers

Complete Question:

A cash equivalent is:

Group of answer choices

a) Generally is within 12 months of its maturity date.

b) Another name for cash.

c) An investment readily convertible to a known amount of cash.

d) Is not considered highly liquid.

e) Close to its maturity date but its market value may still be affected by interest rate

changes

Answer:

c) An investment readily convertible to a known amount of cash.

Explanation:

In Financial accounting, cash equivalents can be defined as any short term and highly liquid investments which can be easily converted or transformed to a known and standard amounts of cash and as such are subjective to little or no risk of changes in value.

This ultimately implies that, a cash equivalent is an investment readily convertible to a known amount of cash.

Under the statements of cash flow, cash equivalents can be classified broadly into three (3) categories and these are;

1. Operating activities.

2. Financing activities.

3. Investing activities.

Answer:

money

Explanation:

ROI, Residual Income, and EVA with Different Bases Envision Company has a target return on capital of 12 percent. The following financial information is available for October ($ thousands):

Software Division . Consulting Division Venture Capital Division

(Value Base) (Value Base) (Value Base)

Book Current Book Current Book Current

Sales $100,000 $100,000 $200,000 $200,000 $800,000 $800,000

Income 12,250 11,700 16,400 20,020 56,730 51,920

Assets 70,000 90,000 100,000 110,000 610,000 590,000

Liabilities 10,000 10,000 14,000 14,000 40,000 40,000

Required

a. Compute the return on investment using both book and current values for each division. Round answers to three decimal places.

Book Value Current Value

Software Answer ? Answer ?

Consulting Answer ? Answer ?

Venture Capital Answer ? Answer ?

b. Compute the residual income for both book and current values for each division. Use negative signs with answers, when appropriate.

Book Value Current Value

Software $Answer 3,850 $Answer 900

Consulting Answer 4,400 . Answer 6,820

Venture Capital Answer (16,470) Answer (1,880)

c. Compute the economic value added income for both book and current values for each division if the tax rate is 30 percent and the weighted average cost of capital is 10 percent. Use negative signs with answers, when appropriate. Book Value Current Value

Software $Answer ? $Answer ?

Consulting Answer ? Answer ?

Venture Capital Answer ? Answer ?

Answers

Answer:

a. ROI = income / Assets      

                                      Book Value       Current Value    

Software Division              0.175              0.13    

Consulting Division           0.164              0.182    

Venture Capital Division   0.093            0.088

Workings:

i. Book value

Software Division = 12,250/70,000=0.175

Consulting Division = 16,400/100,000=0.164  

Venture Capital Division = 56,730/610,000 =0.093

ii. Current value

Software Division = 11,700/90,000=0.13

Consulting Division = 20,020/110,000=0.182

Venture Capital Division= 51,920/ 590,000=0.088

b. Residual income = Income - {Asset x Return on capital 12% }

                                      Book Value       Current Value    

Software Division              3850              900    

Consulting Division           4400              6820    

Venture Capital Division   -16470           -18880

Workings:

i. Book value

Software Division = 12,250-(70,000*12%)=3850

Consulting Division = 16,400-(100,000*12%)=4400  

Venture Capital Division = 56,730-(610,000*12%) =-16470

ii. Current value

Software Division = 11,700-(90,000*12%)=900

Consulting Division = 20,020-(110,000*12%)=6820

Venture Capital Division= 51,920-(590,000*12%)=-18880

c. Economic Value Added ( EVA ) = Net Income After Tax - ( Amount of Capital x Weighted Average Cost of Capital [WACC] )

C.                     Software Division  

                            (Value Base)  

                                    Book            Current

Sales                           100,000          100,000

Income                          12,250           11,700

Assets                           70,000          90,000

Liabilities                      10,000           10,000

Capital invested           60,000          80,000

(Asset - Liabilities)

Tax on Income(30%)     3675            3510

Income after Tax            8,575           8,190

(Income - Tax on

income) (A)

Capital invested             6,000           8,000

* WACC - 10% ) (B)

EVA (C)=(A)-(B)                2,575            190

                       Consulting Division

                            (Value Base)

                                     Book            Current

Sales                         200,000        200,000

Income                        16,400           20,020

Assets                         100,000        110,000

Liabilities                      14,000         14,000

Capital invested           86,000       96,000

(Asset - Liabilities)

Tax on Income(30%)     4920            6006

Income after Tax           11,480           14,014

(Income - Tax on

income) (A)

Capital invested           8,600            9,600

* WACC - 10% ) (B)

EVA (C)=(A)-(B)              2,880            4,414

                     Venture Capital Division

                           (Value Base)

                                   Book            Current

Sales                        800,000       800,000

Income                      56,730          51,920

Assets                       610,000        590,000

Liabilities                    40,000         40,000

Capital invested        570,000        550,000

(Asset - Liabilities)

Tax on Income(30%)    17019          15576

Income after Tax          39,711         36,344

(Income - Tax on

income) (A)

Capital invested           57,000       55,000

* WACC - 10% ) (B)

EVA (C)=(A)-(B)              -17,289       -18,656

Abica Roast Coffee Company produces Columbian coffee in batches of 6,000 pounds. The

standard quantity of materials required in the process is 6,000 pounds, which cost $5.00per pound. Columbian coffee can be sold without further processing for $8.40 per pound.

Columbian coffee can also be processed further to yield Decaf Columbian, which can

be sold for $10.00 per pound. The processing into Decaf Columbian requires additional

processing costs of $9,450 per batch. The additional processing will also cause a 5% loss

of product due to evaporation.



Columbian coffee can be sold without further processing for $8.40 per pound.

Columbian coffee can also be processed further to yield Decaf Columbian, which can

be sold for $10.00 per pound. The processing into Decaf Columbian requires additional

processing costs of $9,450 per batch. The additional processing will also cause a 5% loss

of product due to evaporation.

a. Prepare a differential analysis dated August 28, 2012, on whether to sell regular

Columbian (Alternative 1) or process further into Decaf Columbian (Alternative 2).

b. Should Abica Roast sell Columbian coffee or process further and sell Decaf

Columbian?

c. Determine the price of Decaf Columbian that would cause neither an advantage or

disadvantage for processing further and selling Decaf Columbian.

Answers

Answer:

A)

                                       no further          further                 differential

                                       processing        processing          amount

price per pound             $8.40                 $10.00                $1.60

materials                         $5                      $5.25                 ($0.25)

processing costs            $0                      = $9,450 /          ($1.66)

                                                                  5,700 = $1.66

operating profit per        $3.40                 $3.09                 ($0.31)

pound

                                     

B)

The company should sell coffee without any further processing, just sell it as normal Colombian coffee.

C)

In order to eliminate the financial disadvantage of processing further the decaf coffee, the the price should be $10 + $0.31 = $10.31 per pound.

Which of the following methods is appropriate for a business whose inventory consists of a relatively small number of unique, high-cost items?
a. FIFO
b. average
c. LIFO
d. specific identification

Answers

Answer: Specific identification

Hope it is correct

D specific identification

Bank's Balance Sheet Assets Liabilities and Owners' Equity $1,600 $250 Securities $1,000 Capital (owners' equity) $150 Reserves$200 Deposits Loans $800 Debt Suppose the owners of the bank borrow $100 to supplement their existing reserves.
This would increase the reserves account and ______ the ______ account.
This would also bring the leverage ratio from its initial value of __________ to a new value of_______
Which of the following is true of the capital requirement?
a. The higher the percentage of assets a bank holds as loans, the higher the capital requirement.
b. A minimum leverage ratio for all banks.
c. Its intended goal is to protect the interests of those who hold equity in the bank.

Answers

Answer:

1. This would increase the reserves account and increase the debt account.

Borrowing refers to debt and so it will increase the debt account.

2. This would also bring the leverage ratio from its initial value of 13.33 to a new value of 14.

The bank leverage ratio refers to its Assets divided by Capital (Owners equity).

Before the $100 was borrowed, the leverage ratio was;

= (Reserves + loans + securities)/Capital

= ( 200 + 800 + 1,000) / 150

= 13.33

After the $100 was borrowed

= ( 200 + 800 + 1,000 + 100) /150

= 14.

3. a. The higher the percentage of assets a bank holds as loans, the higher the capital requirement.

The capital requirement is meant to protect depositors in case the loans are defaulted on as the loans are created from the funds depositors bring in. Should the loans be defaulted on, they will be paid from the capital therefore if the bank holds more loans, it will have to hold more capital to ensure it can cover those loans.

Geese Company utilizes the LIFO retail inventory method. Its cost-to-retail percentage is 60% based on beginning inventory and 64% based on current-period purchases. The company determined that beginning inventory at retail was $200,000 and that during the current period a new layer was added with retail value of $50,000. The cost of ending inventory should be

Answers

Answer:

$152,000

Explanation:

Calculation for the cost of the ending inventory

First step is to calculate the cost-to-retail percentage of the beginning inventory amount

Using this formula

Beginning Inventory =Cost-to-retail percentage*Beginning inventory at retail

Let plug in the formula

Beginning Inventory =60%*$200,000

Beginning Inventory =$120,000

Second step is to calculate current-period purchases percentage of the new layer amount

Using this formula

Current period purchases= Purchases percentage* New layer

Let plug in the formula

Current period purchases=64%*50,000

Current period purchases=$32,000

The last step is to find the cost of the ending inventory using this formula

Ending inventory cost=Beginning Inventory+Current period purchases

Let plug in the formula

Ending inventory cost=$120,000+$32,000

Ending inventory cost=$152,000

Therefore the cost of the ending inventory will be $152,000

Assume you have a margin account with a 50% initial margin. You purchase 100 shares of stock at $80 per share. The price increases to $100 per share. What is the net value of your investment (margin) now

Answers

Answer:

Net value of the investment (margin) is $6,000

Explanation:

The initial margin = (100 shares * $80) * 50%

The initial margin = $4,000

Increase in the Margin value = 100 shares* ($100-$80)

Increase in the Margin value = 100 shares * $20

Increase in the Margin value =$2,000

Net value of the investment (margin) = $4,000 + $2,000

Net value of the investment (margin) = $6,000

An investment adviser representative's friend provides him with a list of 10 prospective clients. The representative agrees to pay his friend a referral fee for each person on the list that opens an account with the adviser. Which statement is TRUE

Answers

Answer: C. The arrangement is permitted only if it is in writing between the investment adviser and the friend and the arrangement is disclosed in writing to any customer opening an account

Explanation:

The friend in this case will be ruled to be a Solicitor under SEC Rules as they are referring clients to the Investment Adviser for a fee.

As such this business relationship between the friend and the Investment Adviser representative will fall under SEC Rule 206(4)-3 Cash payments for client solicitations. This rule makes it clear amongst other things that the investment adviser will have to prepare a written disclosure document which will inform any customer opening an account  of the agreement between the adviser and his friend.

Blossom, Inc., manufactures golf clubs in three models. For the year, the Big Bart line has a net loss of $4,700 from sales $201,000, variable costs $175,000, and fixed costs $30,700. If the Big Bart line is eliminated, $19,800 of fixed costs will remain. Prepare an analysis showing whether the Big Bart line should be eliminated. (Enter negative amounts using either a negative sign preceding the number e.g. -45 or parentheses e.g. (45).) g

Answers

Answer:

Analysis of the Big Bart line discontinuity

Opportunity Costs :

Sales                                                        ($201,000)

Savings :

Variable Costs                                          $175,000

Fixed Costs ($30,700 - $19,800)              $10,900

Financial Advantage / (Disadvantage)     ($15,100)

Conclusion :

Do not eliminate / discontinue Big Bart line.

Explanation:

The results show that closing Big Bart line results in a contribution towards fixed cost being lost to the amount of $15,100. Therefore leaving the entire company in a worse off position.

Q3) Creative Sports Design (CSD) manufactures a standard-size racket and an oversize racket. The firm’s rackets are extremely light due to the use of a magnesium-graphite alloy that was invented by the firm’s founder. Each standard-size racket uses 0.125 kilograms of the alloy and each oversize racket uses 0.4 kilograms; over the next two-week production period only 80 kilograms of the alloy are available. Each standard-size racket uses 10 minutes of manufacturing time and each oversize racket uses 12 minutes. The profit contributions are $10 for each standard-size racket and $15 for each oversize racket, and 40 hours of manufacturing time are available each week. Management specified that at least 20% of the total production must be the standard-size racket. How many rackets of each type should CSD manufacture over the next two weeks to maximize the total profit contribution? Assume that because of the unique nature of their products, CSD can sell as many rackets as they can produce.

Answers

Answer:

165 oversize rackets = 32 machine hours (79.71% of total production)

42 standard size rackets = 7 machine hours (20.29% of total production)

total profit contribution = (165 x $15) + (42 x $10) = $2,895

Explanation:

                                         materials          machine hours      profit

standard size                    0.125 kg              1/6                        $10

oversize                             0.4 kg                 1/5                        $15

constraints 80 kilograms of materials

40 hours of manufacturing

profit per machine hour:

standard size  $10 x 6 = $60 x 40 hours = $2,400 (total possible production = 240 rackets)

oversize  $15 x 5 = $75 x 40 hours = $3,000 (total possible production = 200 rackets)

profit per kilogram of alloy:

standard size  $10 / 0.125 = $80 x 80 kgs = $6,400 (total possible production = 480 rackets)

oversize  $15 / .4  = $37.50 x 80 hours = $3,000 (total possible production = 200 rackets)

since the most important constraint is the manufacturing hours available, the company should try to produce the products that yield the highest contribution margin per machine hour. In this case, at least 20% of total production must be standard size rackets, so the remaining 80% should be oversize rackets that yield a higher profit.

165 oversize rackets = 32 machine hours (79.71% of total production)

42 standard size rackets = 7 machine hours (20.29% of total production)

total manufacturing time = 40 hours

if we produce 166 oversize rackets and 41 standard size rackets, total manufacturing time will exceed 40 hours (40.03 hours exactly).

The credit terms 2/10, n/30 are interpreted as: Multiple Choice 2% cash discount if the amount is paid within 10 days, or the balance due in 30 days. 30% discount if paid within 2 days. 2% discount if paid within 30 days. 30% discount if paid within 10 days. 10% cash discount if the amount is paid within 2 days, or the balance due in 30 days.

Answers

Answer:

The credit terms 2/10, n/30 are interpreted as:

2% cash discount if the amount is paid within 10 days, or the balance due in 30 days.

Explanation:

I will explain using an example:

On January 2, the company sells $1,000 worth of goods with credit terms 2/10, n/30.

January 2

Dr Accounts receivable 1,000

    Cr Sales revenue

If the client pays within the discount period:

January 11

Dr Cash 980

Dr Sales discounts 20

    Cr Accounts receivable 1,000

If the client pays after the discount period but before 30 days:

January 31

Dr Cash 1,000

    Cr Accounts receivable 1,000

The credit terms 2/10, and n/30 are interpreted as a 2% cash discount if the amount is paid within 10 days, or the balance is due in 30 days. Thus, option A is the correct option.

Trade credits like 2/10 net 30 are frequently provided by suppliers to purchasers. It stands for an agreement that if payment is made within 10 days, the buyer would get a 2% reduction on the net invoice amount. Otherwise, you have 30 days to pay the entire invoice amount.

It's a common way to express an early payment discount. In accounting, the discount amount and the window of availability are typically represented using a formula like 2/10, n/30. This implies that if the invoice is paid in full within ten days, a 2% reduction is applied; otherwise, the full amount is owed.

Learn more about trade credit here:

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